Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology > Midterm Practice Questions > Flashcards

Midterm Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The point at which there is no further increase in response to a drug even if the dosage continues to be increased is known as the

A
  • Ceiling effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Drugs and their metabolites are excreted from the body primary by

A
  • the kidneys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In general, the greater the value of the ____________, the safer the drug is considered to be

A
  • Therapeutic index
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A drug that binds to a receptor and directly initiates a change in the function of the cell is referred to as

A
  • An agonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The medication itsfriday has a half life of 7 hours. At 21 hours after ingestion, there will be approximately how much of the drug remaining in the body?

A
  • 12.5%
  • Half life = 7
  • Total time passed = 21 hrs
  • 21 ÷ 7 = 3, meaning divide by half 3x
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which “effect” occurs when drugs are transported initially to the liver where a significant amount of the drug may be metabolized and destroyed before the drug reaches its primary site of action?

A
  • First pass effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drugs that stimulate insulin secretion (such as sulfonylureas) or increase tissue sensitivity to insulin (such as metformin) are

A
  • Effective in some patients with type II diabetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The primary way “antidiabetic” drugs work for patients with Type II diabetes is to ________ insulin release and/or to ________ the sensitivity of the peripheral tissues to insulin.

A
  • Stimulate; increase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Hypothyroidism is typically treated with which of the following medications?

A
  • Levothyroxine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

All of the following are symptoms of hyperthyroidism EXCEPT:
a) Weight loss
b) Heat intolerance
c) Muscle wasting
d) Bradycardia
e) Insomnia

A

d) Bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

All of the following are drug strategies that can be used as part of a comprehensive plan to increase bone mineral density in postmenopausal women, EXCEPT:
a) Calcitonin
b) Bisphosphonates
c) Calcium replacement
d) Vitamin C

A

d) Vitamin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Small amounts of what mineral must be ingested in the diet so that the thyroid gland can synthesize thyroid hormones?

A
  • Iodine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following side effects is most likely to occur in a patient who takes anti-arrhythmic medications?
a) Chest pain
b) Frequent urination
c) Pro arrhythmic effect
d) Shortness of breath

A

c) Pro arrhythmic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Angina pectoris can be permanently resolved (cured) in most patients after short term use of:
a) Beta blockers
b) Calcium channel blockers
c) Organic nitrates
d) None of the above

A

d) None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Atorvastatin is a type of ________ which decreases overall cholesterol production resulting in a decreased chance of a major cardiac event.

A
  • Statin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Atenolol, a cardio-selective beta blocker, is advantageous over non-selective beta blockers in that it does not increase ______ in patients with asthma.

A
  • Bronchoconstriction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following drugs is the most effective at breaking down clots that have already formed?

A
  • Thrombolytics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sudden rupture of atherosclerotic plaques in the coronary artery is a characteristic of _______ angina; and is typically treated with ________.

A
  • Unstable; beta blockers, nitrates, antithrombotic drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

NSAIDs, such as aspirin and ibuprofen, do all of the following effects EXCEPT:
a) Reduce clotting
b) Relieve mild to moderate pain
c) Reduce fever
d) Increase bronchodilation

A

d) Increase bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Aspirin and acetaminophen are different because:

A
  • Acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

NSAIDs exert their primary therapeutic effects by interfering with the biosynthesis of:

A
  • Prostaglandins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In addition to the analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects, it appears that regular use of low-dose aspirin in older patients with cardiac risk factors may also help prevent:
a) Heart attacks
b) Ischemic strokes
c) Colorectal cancer
d) All of the above

A

d) All the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In theory, COX-2 selective drugs (example celecoxib) will be less likely to cause gastric irritation because:

A
  • COX-2 drugs do not inhibit the production of beneficial prostaglandins in the stomach
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

NSAIDs can lead to acute kidney injury.
a) True
b) False

A

a) True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The onset of withdrawal symptoms (body aches, shivering, sweating, etc) after sudden discontinuation of opioid analgesics exemplifies:

A
  • Physical dependence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

By blocking all opioid receptors, opioid antagonists such as nalmefene and naloxone (Narcan” are used primarily to

A
  • Treat an opioid overdose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Opioid drugs exert their analgesic effects by binding to the same receptors as:

A
  • Endogenous opioids (endorphines, enkephalins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

A physical therapist can address which of the following factors that can contribute to the pain experience:
a) Environmental factors
b) Stress
c) Psychology
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diuretics _______ the excretion of water by ________ sodium reabsorption in the kidneys.

A
  • Increase; inhibiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Beta-blockers are said to be cardioselective if they bind preferentially to:

A
  • Beta-1 receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is considered unexpected with regards to medication effects?
a) Adverse drug reactions
b) Drug interactions
c) Side effects
d) Clinical therapeutic effects

A

a) Adverse drug reactions

32
Q

Of the choices below, which would be considered the safest medication based on the therapeutic index (TI)?
a) TI = 5 (Levetiracetam)
b) TI = 2 (Tacrolimus)
c) TI = 2.7 (Phenytoin)
d) TI = 10 (Lamotrigine)

A

d) TI = 10 (Lamotrigine)

33
Q

Which of the following is broadly defined as the study of drugs?
a) Pharmacotherapeutics
b) Pharmatoxicology
c) Pharmacogenetics
d) Pharmacology

A

d) Pharmacology

34
Q

Which schedule of controlled substance has the least potential for abuse?
a) Schedule II
b) Schedule III
c) Schedule IV
d) Schedule V

A

d) Schedule V

35
Q

Which of the following routes of administration is 100% bioavailable? (F=1)
a) Inhalation
b) Oral
c) Transdermal
d) Intravenous

A

d) Intravenous

36
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate drug name for the PT class to study/learn?
a) Brand Name (example Tylenol)
b) Universal Name (example Paracetamol)
c) Chemical Name (example N-acetyl-para-aminophenol)
d) Generic Name (example Acetaminophen)

A

d) Generic Name (example Acetaminophen)

37
Q

A medication that can bind to a receptor and initiate a change in the cell’s function is known as:
a) Antagonist
b) Agonist
c) Competitive Antagonist
d) Macromolecule

A

b) Agonist

38
Q

All of the following symptoms are associated with hyperthyroidism except:
a) Heat intolerance
b) Bradycardia
c) Weight loss
d) Insomnia

A

b) Bradycardia

39
Q

A 45-year-old obese female presents to outpatient PT after a right ACL repair. The patient reports she has just been diagnosed as “pre-diabetic”. Of the given options, which of the following is the most appropriate initial medical plan to manage this condition?
a) Diabetic education, blood glucose monitoring and diet/lifestyle modification.
b) Recommend a short acting insulin such as insulin aspart for bolus meal-time coverage.
c) Recommend a long acting basal insulin such as insulin glargine.
d) Begin an oral antidiabetic drug such as metformin.

A

a) Diabetic education, blood glucose monitoring and diet/lifestyle modification

40
Q

You are working with a patient who has a past medical history of Type II Diabetes Mellitus. They are well controlled on oral agents, and both short and long acting insulin. During their previous session with you, they developed symptoms of hypoglycemia that required intervention. Of the listed options, which would be the best recommendation to prevent hypoglycemia in your patient?
a) Recommend continuous glucose monitoring placement prior to exercise.
b) Discuss reduction of short acting insulin just prior to exercise with patient’s provider.
c) Delay the session if the patient has taken any insulin in the past 4 hours.

A

b) Discuss reduction of short acting insulin just prior to exercise with patient’s provider.

41
Q

A common initial pharmacological strategy to treat hypoparathyroidism is to supplement with which of the following options.
a) Calcium supplements, Vitamin D
b) Calcitonin, Bisphosphonates

A

a) Calcium supplements, Vitamin D

42
Q

A patient has been assigned to your care who was just discharged after a 6 month inpatient stay at a local hospital. After reviewing their current medication list, you notice they currently are on a high dose of systemic prednisone. Given the major adverse effects of long-term steroid use, which would likely impact your approach to their physical rehabilitation development
a) Concern for hypoglycemia given prednisone’s impact on glucose metabolism, recommend glucose checks before and after each PT session.
b) Expect hypernatremia and probable balance issues as glucocorticoids heavily alter serum electrolyte homeostasis.
c) Recommend additional workup for peptic ulcer disease.
d) High degree of muscle atrophy given prolonged inpatient stay and additional steroid use.

A

d) High degree of muscle atrophy given prolonged inpatient stay & additional steroid use

43
Q

You are working in an outpatient clinic when a new patient is referred to your facility. While looking through their chart prior to their appointment, you notice they have been diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The most likely cause of their hypothyroidism is due to which of the following.
a) Poor calcitonin excretion
b) Graves’ Disease
c) Hashimoto’s Disease
d) Trauma

A

c) Hashimoto’s Disease

44
Q

When working with patients with a known history of diabetes, you should be aware of common symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms are most commonly found in patients experiencing hypoglycemia?
a) Fatigue and dizziness
b) Dry mouth
c) Nausea & vomiting
d) Thirst & frequent urination

A

a) Fatigue and dizziness

45
Q

Which of the following is NOT an intravenous anesthetic?
a) Dexmedetomidine
b) Rocuronium
c) Propofol

A

b) Rocuronium

46
Q

Iontophoresis, phonophoresis, and medicated patches all use the _______ route to administer drugs.
a) Infiltration
b) Transdermal
c) Injection
d) Inhalation

A

b) Transdermal

47
Q

All the following statements regarding osteoarthritis are true except:
a) It typically occurs in large weight-bearing joints such as the knees and hips as well as the spine.
b) It exceeds rheumatoid arthritis as the most common form of joint disease.
c) Treatment should focus on nonpharmacologic measures including physical therapy, weight loss and joint replacement in advanced stages.
d) It is likely caused by an autoimmune response in genetically susceptible people.

A

d) It is likely caused by an autoimmune response in genetically susceptible people.

48
Q

When working with patients post-local anesthesia administration, physical therapist should consider all of the following except:
a) Based on placement of anesthetic, patients may have decreased sensation and may lack motor control. Therapists should test for motor strength before attempting to ambulate.
b) Patients receiving sympathetic blockade to treat complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) should receive physical therapy sessions scheduled immediately following each injection.
c) All patients should receive intense therapy shortly after receiving a local anesthetic to take advantage of the analgesic effects. There is no risk of joint tissues being overstressed or damaged.
d) Heat should not be applied on or near a transdermal patch due to risk of increased drug absorption and toxicity.

A

c) All patients should receive intense therapy shortly after receiving a local anesthetic to take advantage of the analgesic effects. There is no risk of joint tissues being overstressed or damaged.

49
Q

Select the option with the correct sequence of stages of anesthesia
a) Analgesia, surgical anesthesia, medullary paralysis, Excitement/delirium
b) Analgesia, excitement/delirium, surgical anesthesia, medullary paralysis
c) Medullary paralysis, excitement/delirium, analgesia, surgical anesthesia
d) Excitement/delirium, analgesia, surgical anesthesia, medullary paralysis

A

b) Analgesia, excitement/delirium, surgical anesthesia, medullary paralysis

50
Q

Early and aggressive use of _____________ can slow progression of rheumatoid arthritis in many patients before there is extensive damage to affected joints.
a) Glucocorticoids
b) Viscosupplementation
c) Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)
d) NSAIDs
e) Acetaminophen

A

c) Disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

51
Q

Aspirin and other NSAIDs exert their primary therapeutic effect by interfering with the biosynthesis of ________________.
a) Interleukin 1
b) Cyclic AMP
c) Prostaglandins
d) Tumor necrosis factor
e) Catecholamines

A

c) Prostaglandins

52
Q

NSAIDs such as aspirin exhibit all of the following pharmacologic properties except:
a) The ability to protect the stomach lining from gastric acid
b) The ability to decrease elevated body temperature (antipyresis)
c) The ability to reduce inflammation (anti-inflammatory)
d) The ability to inhibit platelet aggregation (anticoagulation)
e) The ability to relieve mild to moderate pain (analgesia)

A

a) The ability to protect the stomach lining from gastric acid

53
Q

What is not a central class-wide side effect of opioid analgesics?
a) Respiratory depression
b) Drowsiness
c) Urinary retention
d) Euphoria

A

c) Urinary retention

54
Q

Onset of withdrawal side effects (i.e. fever, nausea/vomiting, tachycardia, etc.) after sudden discontinuation of opioid analgesics is what long-term complication of opioid use?
a) Tolerance
b) Hyperalgesia
c) Physical dependence
d) Addiction

A

c) Physical dependence

55
Q

Which of the following is a true statement regarding muscle skeletal relaxants?
a) Long-term use can lead to tolerance and physical dependence
b) CNS depression is a common adverse effect that can be additive to concomitant opioid analgesics
c) Designed to work synergistically with rehabilitation to treat spasticity and spasms
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

56
Q

Which strong agonist is known as the “prototypic” opioid and is the standard for comparing efficacy and potency among other opioids?
a) Codeine
b) Morphine
c) Oxycodone
d) Hydromorphone

A

b) Moprhine

57
Q

In reference to PCA, what choice in dosing a PCA may lead to over-sedation and increased side effects?
a) Decreased demand dose
b) Increased lockout interval
c) Initiating background infusion rate
d) Decreased interval dose limits

A

c) Initiating background infusion rate

58
Q

Strong opioid agonists exert their primary analgesic effects by binding to what opioid receptor?
a) Mu
b) Delta
c) Alpha
d) Kappa

A

a) Mu

59
Q

Oxycodone is classified as the following:
a) Antagonist
b) Mixed Agonist-Antagonist
c) Mild-to-Moderate agonist
d) Strong agonist

A

c) Mild-to-Moderate agonist

60
Q

Opioid antagonists (i.e. naloxone) have a great affinity to opioid receptors. With this activity, what are opioid antagonists primarily used for?
a) Reversal of opioid overdose
b) Prevent constipation
c) Used in conjunction with strong agonists to treat chronic pain
d) All of the above

A

a) Reversal of opioid overdose

61
Q

Which of the following is NOT a physical therapy modification one could consider for a patient on beta blockers?
a) Ask patients to check their blood glucose level before activities if on glucose lowering therapies
b) Assist patients when changing positions or exiting a heated pool
c) Use heart rate only to gauge activity level
d) Check blood pressure before and after activities

A

c) Use heart rate only to gauge activity level

62
Q

Which group of diuretics is the most potent, and therefore has the highest risk of causing adverse effects?
a) Potassium Sparing
b) All 3 groups are equally potent diuretics
c) Loops
d) Thiazides

A

c) Loops

63
Q

Hypertension is diagnosed by 2 or more blood pressure (BP) checks at separate visits with readings of:
a) Systolic BP <120 mm Hg and diastolic BP <80 mm Hg
b) Systolic BP 130-139 mm Hg or diastolic BP 80-89 mm Hg
c) Systolic BP ≥140 mm Hg or diastolic BP ≥90 mm Hg
d) Both B and C meet criteria for diagnosis of hypertension

A

d) Both B and C meet criteria for diagnosis of hypertension

64
Q

All the following are examples of beta blockers, except for:
a) Bisoprolol
b) Amlodipine
c) Atenolol
d) Carvedilol

A

b) Amlodipine

65
Q

Using the rate of perceived exertion to gauge activity may be especially beneficial in patients taking which class of medications?
a) Beta blockers
b) Diuretics
c) Calcium channel blockers
d) None of the above

A

a) Beta blockers

66
Q

Which is true of hypertension?
a) Also known as the “silent killer”
b) Increases risk of stroke
c) It’s the leading cause of cardiovascular disease globally
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

67
Q

Blood pressure is regulated short-term (seconds-minutes) through:
a) Blood volume control
b) Renin-angiotensin aldosterone system
c) Baroreceptor reflex
d) Peripheral muscle pump

A

c) Baroreceptor reflex

68
Q

Orthostatic hypotension is:
a) Also known as standing hypotension
b) Defined as an increase of at least ≥40 mm Hg systolic and/or ≥20 mm Hg diastolic when changing positions
c) More likely to occur in patients who are >60, have Parkinson’s disease, or are on certain medications
d) Caused by a normal baroreceptor reflex

A

c) More likely to occur in patients who are >60, have Parkinson’s disease, or are on certain medications

69
Q

Which medication produces vasodilation resulting in decreased oxygen demand, making it useful to have on-hand for use as needed in an acute anginal attack during rehab sessions?
a) Nitroglycerin
b) Lisinopril
c) Heparin
d) Metoprolol succinate

A

a) Nitroglycerin

70
Q

Which adverse effect can occur with anti-anginal medications that may require adjustment to therapy sessions?
a) Weakness
b) Orthostatic hypotension
c) Headache
d) Bleeding

A

b) Orthostatic hypotension

71
Q

Which of the following classes of medications both increases oxygen supply to the myocardium (via coronary vasodilation) and decreases oxygen demand (via systemic vasodilation)?
a) Beta-blockers
b) ACE inhibitors
c) Calcium channel blockers
d) Loop diuretics

A

c) Calcium channel blockers

72
Q

What adverse effect is most likely to occur in a patient who is taking an anti-arrhythmic drug?
a) Headache
b) Shortness of breath
c) Pro-arrhythmic effects
d) Frequent urination

A

c) Pro-arrhythmic effects

73
Q

Which agent can be used in inpatient during a severe heart failure exacerbation in order to directly improve pumping ability of the heart (i.e., is a positive inotrope)?
a) ACE inhibitor
b) Dobutamine
c) Vasodilators
d) Beta-blockers

A

b) Dobutamine

74
Q

Which heart failure medication is used for symptom management by helping to remove excess fluid from the body, but has no mortality benefit?
a) Beta-blockers
b) ACE inhibitors
c) Aspirin
d) Loop diuretics

A

d) Loop diuretics

75
Q

Which of the following oral agents can be used to treat venous thromboembolism?
Incorrect Response
a) Heparin
b) Atorvastatin
c) Apixaban
d) Bivalirudin

A

c) Apixaban

76
Q

What is an adverse effect that may be associated with statin medications used to treat hyperlipidemia?
a) Orthostatic hypotension
b) Myalgia
c) Bradycardia
d) Acute kidney injury

A

b) Myalgia

Pharmacology (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions