MIDTERM LEC 1: AGENTS OF YEAST Flashcards

1
Q

2 classifications of yeast fungi

A

Yeast
Yeast like fungi

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2
Q

Isolates that reproduce sexually,

A

Yeast

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3
Q

Not capable of sexual reproduction or whose sexual state has not been discovered

A

Yeast like fungi

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4
Q

How do yeast reproduce sexually

A

By forming ascospores or basidiospores

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5
Q

Most common recognized yeast pathogens

A

Candida spp.

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6
Q

Species most commonly isolated from clinical material

A

Candida albicans

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7
Q

Where are Candida spp. naturally found as normal flora

A

GI tract
Mucous membranes
Skin

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8
Q

Common risk factors of developing Candidiasis

A

1) Diabetes
2) Immunosuppressive disease or therapy
3) Neutropenia
4) AIDS
5) High dose chemotherapy

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9
Q

Blood stream infections such as fungal endocarditis can be fostered by

A

Use of indwelling vascular lines

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10
Q

All Candida spp. exist as what kind of form

A

Oval yeastlike forms

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11
Q

All Candida spp exist as oval yeastlike forms that produce:

A

Buds or blastoconidia

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12
Q

Candida spp produce hyphae and pseudohyphae except what species

A

Candida glabrata

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13
Q

C. galbrata consume what sugar

A

Trehalose

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14
Q

Second most common species of Candida

A

C. glabrata

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15
Q

Describe the colony of C. galbrata

A

Smooth, white, creamy, domed colonies

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16
Q

C. albicans and other spp may undergo what process wherein a single strain may change reversibly among several different morphotypes

A

Phenotypic switching

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17
Q

most frequent infection of candida albicans causes _______ of the skin

A

erythematous lesion

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18
Q

erythematous lesion is sometimes accompanied by

A

creamy, white exudate or scaling

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19
Q

common sites of erythematous lesion of the skin

A

groin
between fingers and toes
under the female breast
axilla

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20
Q

T or F:
workers who immerse their hands in the water for long periods of time are also at risk for infection of the hand skin

A

T

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21
Q

Candida yeast infection of the nails

A

onychomycosis

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22
Q

Candida yeast infection of the nail bed

A

paronychium

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23
Q

clinical manifestation of oral candidiasis

A

creamy white patches (thrush/cottage-cheese like patches on the mouth) overlying erythematous buccal mucosa

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24
Q

oral candidiasis is aka

A

moniliasis

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25
Q

thrush is recognized as an indicator of what

A

indicator of immunosuppression

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26
Q

hallmark of failed immune system

A

oral thrush

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27
Q

what condition can occur in heavy infection of oral thrush

A

dysphagia

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28
Q

oral candidiasis is a common initial infection in patients with what disease

A

HIV

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29
Q

T or F:
Oral candidiasis is a marker of immune failure in HIV px

A

T

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30
Q

inflammatory condition that affects the commissures of the mouth, causing break in the tissue with redness, crusting, and scaling

A

angular cheilitis

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31
Q

angular cheilitis is aka

A

perleche

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32
Q

angular cheilitis is often caused by:

A

buildup of saliva in the fissures

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33
Q

how can Candida cause angular cheilitis

A

due to presence of saliva, making the tissue soft allowing the Candida to infect the area (lateral fissure)

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34
Q

occurs as fungal infx on esophagus

A

esophagitis

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35
Q

T or F:
esophagitis cannot cause dysphagia

A

F
it can, due to painful lesions

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36
Q

erosive lesions of the distal esophagus and stomach resulting in substernal pain which is aggravated by swallowing

A

Gastrointestinal candidiasis

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37
Q

T or F:
Gastrointestinal candidiasis occurs more frequently as esophagitis and less commonly as gastritis

A

T

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38
Q

fungal infx in the vagina

A

Vulvovaginitis

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39
Q

factors of vulvovaginitis

A

1) Antibiotic
2) Pregnancy
3) Uncontrolled diabetes
4) Impaired immune system

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40
Q

why does pregnancy considered a risk for having vulvovaginitis

A

high estrogen= glycogen

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41
Q

why does diabetes put you at risk for having vulvovaginitis

A

increased glucose

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42
Q

vaginal discharge of vulvovaginitis

A

cottage cheese

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43
Q

why is Candida urinary tract infection difficult to diagnose

A

the yeast is frequently recovered from urine as a result of vaginal contamination or colonization of the bladder in px with indwelling catheters

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44
Q

Candida infection of the upper urinary tract

A

urinary tract infection

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45
Q

infection of the upper urinary tract can include necrosis of what part of the urinary tract

A

renal papillae

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46
Q

renal papillae necrosis occurs primarily in patients with what condition

A

obstructive uropathy

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47
Q

type of candidiasis that involve sources other than skin or mucous membranes

A

invasive candidiasis

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48
Q

isolation of Candida spp from at least one blood culture specimen with hematogenous spread of the yeast to one or more organs

A

Candidemia

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49
Q

onychomycosis is frequently due to

A

dermatophytes or non dermatophyte

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50
Q

what dermatophyte cause onychomycosis

A

Tinea unguium

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51
Q

what non dermatophyte cause onychomycosis

A

Candidal onychomycosis

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52
Q

clinical manifestation of paronychomycosis

A

infected area can become swollen, red, and painful, and a pus-filled blister may form

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53
Q

which parts of the body is intertriginous candidiasis commonly seen

A

axillae
groin
inter and submammary folds
intergluteal folds
interdigital spaces
umbilicus

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54
Q

factors of intertriginous candidiasis

A

1) moisture
2) heat
3) friction
4) maceration of the skin

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55
Q

diaper rash is aka

A

candidal diaper dermatitis

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56
Q

steps of invasion process

A

1) Adhesion
2) Uptake
3) Penetration

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57
Q

virulence factor of yeast that grants the ability to stick to host cells, triggering a switch to hyphal form and growth towards the host

A

adhesins

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58
Q

virulence factor of yeast that facilitate host cell engulfment of the fungus through stimulated endocytosis

A

invasins

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59
Q

how is active penetration through host cell barriers enabled

A

through combination of adhesion, physical force, and fungal enzymes

60
Q

biofilm formation consists of

A

yeast cells (below)
hyphae (above)

61
Q

how can Candida change its surface features and biofilm formation abilities

A

phenotypic switching

62
Q

scrapings of mucosal or cutaneous lesions may be examined directly after treatment of what reagent

A

10-20% KOH containing calcofluor white

63
Q

tissue specimens, scrapings and swabs from the mouth or vagina should be inoculated unto primary isolation media with or without what reagent

A

cycloheximide

64
Q

what does the presence of filamentous extension from the edges of the colony indicate

A

microscopic indication that a pseudohyhae are being produced

65
Q

In histological sections, Candida stains poorly with what stain

66
Q

In histological sections, Candida stains well with what stains

A

Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)
Gomori Methenamine Silver
Gridley fungus

67
Q

definitive identification of C. albicans when germ test tube appears negative

A

Cornmeal Tween 80 Agar

68
Q

what does Cornmeal Twee 80 Agar detect

A

chlamydoconidia produced by C. albicans

69
Q

most generally accepted and economical method used to identify yeats

A

Germ tube test

70
Q

how many percent of the yeasts recovered from clinical specimens are Candida albicans

71
Q

how many hours can germ tube test reveal the identification of organism

72
Q

Identify:
(+) germ tube test @ 35 C

A

C. dubliniensis

73
Q

Identify:
(+) germ tube test @ 35C & 42C

A

C. albicans

74
Q

Identify:
(-) germ tube test

A

other candida

75
Q

define germ tube

A

hyphae-like extensions of young yeast cells showing parallel sides, aseptate and will not constrict at their point of origin

76
Q

look like germ tubes but are septate constricted at their point of origin

A

pseudohyphae

77
Q

what organism produce “pseudo-germ tubes”

A

C. tropicalis

78
Q

describe pseudo-germ tubes

A

constricted at the base or point of germ tube origin

79
Q

what does C. tropicalis form

A

blastoconidial germination w/ constriction

80
Q

most commonly used conventional definitive identification of yeast

A

Carbohydrate assimilation test

81
Q

T or F:
Not all Candida spp use glucose in CAT

A

F
all of them

82
Q

CAT:
C. albicans

83
Q

CAT:
C. krusei

84
Q

CAT:
C. dubliniensis

85
Q

CAT:
C. tropicalis

A

maltose, sucrose

86
Q

CAT:
C. galbrata

87
Q

differential medium useful for the recovery of Candida

A

Chrom Agar Candida

88
Q

different enzymes of different Candida spp. react with what substances to yield a characteristic color

A

chromogenic substances

89
Q

CAC:
C. albicans

90
Q

CAC:
C. dubliniensis

A

lighter green compared to C. albicans

91
Q

CAC:
C. krusei

A

Pale pink-purplish pink

92
Q

CAC:
C. galbrata

A

Creamy white

93
Q

CAC:
C. tropicalis

A

Metallic blue; bluish green

94
Q

treatment for thrush and other mucocutaneous form of candidiasis

A

topical nystatin or oral ketoconazole or fluconazole

95
Q

treatment for systemic candidiasis

A

Amphotericin B

96
Q

most protective measure in treatment

A

avoid disturbing the balance of microbiota and intact host defenses

97
Q

T or F:
Candidiasis is not communicable

98
Q

what organism causes meningitis, pulmonary disease and septicemia

A

Cryptococcus spp

99
Q

CD4 count in px with AIDS infected with Cryptococcus

100
Q

in what environment is Cryptococcus abundantly found

A

soil, trees, pigeon droppings

101
Q

Cryptococcus primarily affects which organs

A

primarily the lungs, then disseminate to the meninges and other sites

102
Q

Serotypes of Cryptcoccus

A

A, B, C, D

103
Q

A and D serotype

A

C. neoformans var neoformans

104
Q

B and C serotype

A

C. neoformans var gattii

105
Q

T or F:
Cryptococcus is encapsulated

106
Q

how does Cryptococcus replicate

A

by budding from a relatively narrow base

107
Q

how many buds are formed by Cryptococcus

A

usually single, but multiple buds and chains of budding cells are sometimes present

108
Q

Cryptococcus only produces what kind of spores

A

blastoconidia

109
Q

Cryptococcus does not produce true hyphae or pseudohyphae on what agar

A

cornmeal agar

110
Q

Cryptococcosis is aka

A

torulosis/torulepsis

111
Q

may present as a pneumonic process or more commonly, as CNS infx secondary to hematogenous and lymphatic spread from a primary pulmonary focus

A

Cryptococcosis

112
Q

variable in presentation from an asymptomatic process to a more fulminant bilateral pneumonia

A

pulmonary cryptococcosis

113
Q

neurotropic Cryptococcus spp

A

C. neoformans and C. gattii

114
Q

most common form of dse of C. neoformans and C. gatii

A

cerebromeningeal

115
Q

uncommon in C. neoformans but are the most common presentation of CNS cryptococcosis with C. gatii

A

Cryptococcomas (parenchymal lesions)

116
Q

other manifestations of disseminated cryptococcosis

A

1) skin lesions (10-15% of px)
2) ocular infections
3) osseous lesions
4) prostatic involvement
5) asymptomatic reservoir of infection

116
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis is also referred to as

A

Busse-Buschke Disease

117
Q

when was Cryptococcus discovered

118
Q

major factors contributing to the virulence of Cryptococcus

A

capsule of the fungus comprises polysaccharides glucuronoxylomannan and glucuronoxylomannogalactan

119
Q

virulence factor of Cryptococcus that functions as an antioxidant, defending against reactive oxygen species

120
Q

virulence factor of Cryptococcus that contribute to brain edema, advancing to cryptococcal meningitis when elevated un the CNS

121
Q

what temperature does Cryptococcus grows best for survival in the mammalian host

122
Q

virulence factor of Cryptococcus that facilitates the degradation of host tissues and evasion of immune responses

A

secretion of proteases, phospholipases, and urease

123
Q

adaptation strategy of Cryptococcus that involves the entry into the host via phagocytic cells and later escaping to colonize other tissues

A

Trojan Horse mechanism

124
Q

adaptation strategy of Cryptococcus in which it alters capsule size and cell shape under specific conditions; aids in avoiding detection by the host immune system

A

Phenotypic variation

125
Q

mode of entry of Cryptococcus

A

inhalation of spores or yeast cells

126
Q

Cryptococcus in healthy individuals

A

mimic influenza-like symptoms (asymptomatic)

127
Q

Cryptococcus in immunocompromised patients

A

hematogenous dissemination

128
Q

specimens for culture for Cryptococcus

A

blood
CSF
other clinical material

129
Q

microscopic examination of CSF with Cryptococcus

A

characteristic encapsulated budding yeast cells

130
Q

colonies appearance of Cryptococcus in culture

A

mucoid colonies

131
Q

stain for Cryptococcus

A

India ink or nigrosin

132
Q

stained characteristics of Cryptococcus

A

unstained halo are seen around individual cells

133
Q

diagnosis of cryptococcal meningitis

A

direct detection of capsular polysaccharide antigen in serum or CSF or urine

134
Q

how is the capsular polysaccharide antigen of Cryptococcus detected in serum, CSF or urine

A

through latex agglutination or enzyme immunoassay kits

135
Q

T or F:
all species of Cryptococcus are urease positive and the nitrate reaction rate differs

136
Q

color of Cryptococcus colonies on birdseed agar

A

brown-black

137
Q

brown-black color of Cryptococcus colonies is due to what substance

A

phenol oxidase

138
Q

phenol oxidase assimilates what subtsance

A

creatinine

139
Q

bird seed agar is aka

A

Niger seed/Staib’s

140
Q

gram stain appearance of Cryptococcus

A

classic starburst/sunburst appearance in CSF

141
Q

Cryptococcus:
urease

142
Q

Cryptococcus:
nitrate reduction

143
Q

Cryptococcus:
inositol

144
Q

Cryptococcus:
cycloheximide

A

susceptible (sensitive)

145
Q

C. neoformans is extremely difficult to distinguish from what species

146
Q

key laboratory characteristic of C. gattii

A

usage of glycine as a sole carbon and nitrogen source in the presence of canavanine