Midterm Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

Professional line level signals are transmitted via ____________ lines.

A

Balanced, low-impedance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Professional microphone signals are transmitted via ____________ lines.

A

Balanced, low-impedance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In a balanced line, ___________ is employed to actively remove noise picked up during signal transmission.

A

Common-mode rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In Studio A, what kind of signal is used to carry multitrack audio to and from the API console and Pro Tools?

A

Analog line-level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In Studio A, what kind of signal is used to carry program audio (mixes) to and from the Rosetta 800 and Pro Tools?

A

AES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In Studio A, what kind of signal is used to carry program audio (mixes) to and from the API console and Rosetta 800?

A

Line-level analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In Studio A, without patching, which API console outputs feed the Rosetta 800 analog inputs 7 & 8 via a patch bay normal?

A

Grand Master outputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In Studio A, without patching, which API console inputs are fed from the Rosetta 800 analog outputs 7 & 8?

A

Playback Monitor 2T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In Studio A, without patching, which API console outputs feed the Pro Tools audio inputs for multitrack recording?

A

Either direct outputs or multitrack summing bus outputs depending on DL connection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In Studio A, without patching, which API console inputs are fed from the Pro Tools audio outputs?

A

Channel Tape inputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Using a hardwire split of the output of a microphone causes signal degradation in the form of ________ .

A

Loading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The primary function of a “direct box” or “DI” is to _______________ .

A

Change a high-impedance, unbalanced signal to a low-impedance, balanced signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A key advantage of using an active direct box is __________ .

A

Constant input and output impedance regardless of the volume level of the source

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A key advantage of using a passive direct box is __________ .

A

Electrical isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is the proper procedure for setting the level of a mic on a console input channel under normal circumstances?

A

Set the fader to unity gain and adjust the mic preamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In a standard professional analog patch bay, “full-normalled” patch points operate as follows when a plug is inserted:

A

Output breaks, input breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In a standard professional analog patch bay, “half-normalled” patch points operate as follows when a plug is inserted:

A

Output splits, input breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In a typical studio installation, which patch bay rows are “full-normalled?”

A

Mic lines and preamp inputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which microphone uses the difference in capacitance between the diaphragm and a backplate as its means of transduction?

A

Condenser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which microphone uses magnetic induction as its means of transduction?

A

Moving coil and ribbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A microphone that reacts to signals arriving at both sides of its diaphragm is known as a __________ mic.

A

Pressure gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which microphone will always have an omni-directional polar pattern?

A

Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following mics is most likely to be damaged by phantom power?

A

Ribbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When selecting studio quality mics, which characteristic might lead an engineer to choose a small diaphragm condenser microphone over the other types? (In other words, which specification is typically best in a small diaphragm condenser microphone?)

A

Better transient response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which studio quality microphone will typically have the best sensitivity at low levels?

A

Large diaphragm condenser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The uneven frequency response of signals arriving at the rear of a cardioid mic is known as _______ .

A

Off-axis coloration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The increase in low frequency response as a cardioid mic is placed closer to a source is known as ______ .

A

Proximity effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Per the discussion in class, which sonic characteristic is common in all moving coil microphones, especially when compared to condensers?

A

Apparent compression due to poor transient response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

To better assure phase compatibility between multiple microphones on the same source, a ______ ratio should be used when placing a distant mic relative to the close mic and the source.

A

3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When recording drums with top and bottom mics, what must be done in order to assure a phase-correlated signal?

A

Make sure the top and bottom mics are in proper polarity

31
Q

Per the demonstration in class, what part of an acoustic guitar was recommended as a good starting position for a microphone in order to obtain a balanced sound?

A

At the 12th fret

32
Q

When recording a triangle solo, a roll-off on the mic can be applied to ______________ .

A

Reduce unneeded low-frequency content and preserve headroom

33
Q

Which of the following stereo microphone arrays creates a stereo image based only on the differences of intensity of the sound arriving at each microphone (not timing)?

A

Coincident

34
Q

Which of the following stereo microphone arrays will create the widest stereo image (often with a hole in the middle) based on the differences of intensity and timing of sound arriving at each microphone?

A

Spaced Pair

35
Q

Which stereo microphone array employs one bi-directional mic and one cardioid mic with coincident capsule placement at a 90° angle?

A

M-S

36
Q

Which stereo microphone array employs two cardioid mics with coincident capsule placement at a 90° angle?

A

X-Y

37
Q

Which stereo microphone array employs two cardioid mics with near-coincident capsule placement 17cm apart at a 110° angle?

A

ORTF

38
Q

Which stereo microphone array employs two bi-directional mics with coincident capsule placement at a 90° angle?

A

Blumlein

39
Q

Using common professional terminology and according to Thompson, which console path is typically used to route a microphone to the multitrack recorder?

A

Channel path

40
Q

Using common professional terminology and according to Thompson, which console path is typically used to route the multitrack return to the mix recorder & speakers?

A

Monitor path

41
Q

Based on the Thompson chapters, the signal architecture, signal routing/processing capabilities. and physical layout of API Vision, it is best classified as _________ ?

A

An inline recording console

42
Q

On professional audio equipment, what function or device is commonly mislabeled as a “Phase Reverse” (Ø)?

A

A polarity inverter

43
Q

In professional practice, what type of outboard gear is most likely to be routed to and from a console channel insert send/return?

A

Signal processors

44
Q

Which is a typical characteristic of a pan-pot?

A

2.5 to 6 dB of attenuation is applied to both sides before contribution to a stereo bus when panned center

45
Q

A Solo-In-Place solo uses which output for monitoring?

A

Program bus

46
Q

AFL stands for ___________ .

A

After Fader Listen

47
Q

PFL stands for ___________ .

A

Pre-Fader Listen

48
Q

Which solo mode is “destructive” on most recording consoles?

A

Solo-In-Place (SIP)

49
Q

Solo Safe (or Isolate) is used with which solo mode(s)?

A

Solo-In-Place

50
Q

Which console solo mode uses a dedicated solo bus for monitoring?

A

AFL and PFL

51
Q

While mixing on a console, engineers typically use Solo Safe or Solo Isolate on what kind of channels?

A

Effects return channels

52
Q

Which API console channel resource(s) are assigned to Fader 1 by default?

A

Auxiliary sends, direct output and multitrack summing buses, compressor and EQ

53
Q

Which audio path on MTSU’s API console is configured to be the default “monitor path” when multitrack recording?

A

Fader 1

54
Q

Which audio path on MTSU’s API console is configured to be the default “channel path” when multitrack recording?

A

Fader 2

55
Q

Which device is configured to be the master clock for digital audio Studio A?

A

Avid HD SYNC

56
Q

When using a Pro Tools HD system, which windows/parameters should always be checked as a part of pre-session set-up?

A

Clocking, hardware setup, and I/O setup

57
Q

Which Pro Tools window is the primary window used to configure audio interfaces?

A

Hardware Setup

58
Q

Which Pro Tools window is used to create audio paths between the software and the audio interfaces?

A

I/O Setup

59
Q

Given which device is the “loop master” in Studio A, which is the proper Pro Tools window to select a clock source for the system?

A

Session Setup

60
Q

In Studio A, which clock signal is shared between all AVID HD devices?

A

Loop Sync (SYNC)

61
Q

In Studio A, what is the default clock source for the Rosetta 800 when using it with Pro Tools?

A

AES Input

62
Q

In a tracking session, the proper way to set up console cue sends for a separate headphone mix is ____________ .

A

Pre-fader from the monitor path

63
Q

While tracking or mixing on a console, the typical method to route an effect send is ___________ .

A

Post-fader from the monitor path

64
Q

When tracking with a console, the output of the _________ is added to the headphone feed to facilitate communication with musicians.

A

Talkback mic preamp

65
Q

In a filter, the cut-off frequency (corner frequency) is defined as _______________ .

A

The frequency where the level is attenuated by 3dB

66
Q

The slope of a filter is defined as ______________ .

A

dB of attenuation per octave (dB/8va)

67
Q

___________ is a common term for a high-order band-reject filter with a very narrow bandwidth.

A

Notch filter

68
Q

If a 2-pole (2nd order) high-pass filter is set at 200 Hz, the level at 50 Hz will be ___________ .

A

-27 dB

69
Q

Center frequency divided by bandwidth is the formula for ­­­­­__________ .

A

Q

70
Q

An EQ that provides boost or cut to all frequencies above or below a given frequency is known as a _______ .

A

Shelving EQ

71
Q

In an equalizer, a constant Q value is equivalent to a consistent _____________ regardless of center frequency.

A

Musical interval

72
Q

An EQ that provides boost or cut to a band of frequencies, leaving the frequencies above or below unaffected is known as a _______ .

A

Peaking EQ

73
Q

The primary purpose of a gobo in a studio is to __________ .

A

Control reflections

74
Q

Besides protecting everyone’s hearing, what’s the most important thing a good engineer does?

A

Serve the artist and their music