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MRAT 6050 - Recording Seminar > Midterm Concepts > Flashcards

Midterm Concepts Flashcards

1
Q

Professional line level signals are transmitted via ____________ lines.

A

Balanced, low-impedance

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2
Q

Professional microphone signals are transmitted via ____________ lines.

A

Balanced, low-impedance

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3
Q

In a balanced line, ___________ is employed to actively remove noise picked up during signal transmission.

A

Common-mode rejection

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4
Q

In Studio A, what kind of signal is used to carry multitrack audio to and from the API console and Pro Tools?

A

Analog line-level

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5
Q

In Studio A, what kind of signal is used to carry program audio (mixes) to and from the Rosetta 800 and Pro Tools?

A

AES

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6
Q

In Studio A, what kind of signal is used to carry program audio (mixes) to and from the API console and Rosetta 800?

A

Line-level analog

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7
Q

In Studio A, without patching, which API console outputs feed the Rosetta 800 analog inputs 7 & 8 via a patch bay normal?

A

Grand Master outputs

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8
Q

In Studio A, without patching, which API console inputs are fed from the Rosetta 800 analog outputs 7 & 8?

A

Playback Monitor 2T1

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9
Q

In Studio A, without patching, which API console outputs feed the Pro Tools audio inputs for multitrack recording?

A

Either direct outputs or multitrack summing bus outputs depending on DL connection

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10
Q

In Studio A, without patching, which API console inputs are fed from the Pro Tools audio outputs?

A

Channel Tape inputs

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11
Q

Using a hardwire split of the output of a microphone causes signal degradation in the form of ________ .

A

Loading

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12
Q

The primary function of a “direct box” or “DI” is to _______________ .

A

Change a high-impedance, unbalanced signal to a low-impedance, balanced signal

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13
Q

A key advantage of using an active direct box is __________ .

A

Constant input and output impedance regardless of the volume level of the source

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14
Q

A key advantage of using a passive direct box is __________ .

A

Electrical isolation

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15
Q

Which of the following is the proper procedure for setting the level of a mic on a console input channel under normal circumstances?

A

Set the fader to unity gain and adjust the mic preamp

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16
Q

In a standard professional analog patch bay, “full-normalled” patch points operate as follows when a plug is inserted:

A

Output breaks, input breaks

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17
Q

In a standard professional analog patch bay, “half-normalled” patch points operate as follows when a plug is inserted:

A

Output splits, input breaks

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18
Q

In a typical studio installation, which patch bay rows are “full-normalled?”

A

Mic lines and preamp inputs

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19
Q

Which microphone uses the difference in capacitance between the diaphragm and a backplate as its means of transduction?

A

Condenser

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20
Q

Which microphone uses magnetic induction as its means of transduction?

A

Moving coil and ribbon

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21
Q

A microphone that reacts to signals arriving at both sides of its diaphragm is known as a __________ mic.

A

Pressure gradient

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22
Q

Which microphone will always have an omni-directional polar pattern?

A

Pressure

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23
Q

Which of the following mics is most likely to be damaged by phantom power?

A

Ribbon

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24
Q

When selecting studio quality mics, which characteristic might lead an engineer to choose a small diaphragm condenser microphone over the other types? (In other words, which specification is typically best in a small diaphragm condenser microphone?)

A

Better transient response

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25
Which studio quality microphone will typically have the best sensitivity at low levels?
Large diaphragm condenser
26
The uneven frequency response of signals arriving at the rear of a cardioid mic is known as _______ .
Off-axis coloration
27
The increase in low frequency response as a cardioid mic is placed closer to a source is known as ______ .
Proximity effect
28
Per the discussion in class, which sonic characteristic is common in all moving coil microphones, especially when compared to condensers?
Apparent compression due to poor transient response
29
To better assure phase compatibility between multiple microphones on the same source, a ______ ratio should be used when placing a distant mic relative to the close mic and the source.
3:1
30
When recording drums with top and bottom mics, what must be done in order to assure a phase-correlated signal?
Make sure the top and bottom mics are in proper polarity
31
Per the demonstration in class, what part of an acoustic guitar was recommended as a good starting position for a microphone in order to obtain a balanced sound?
At the 12th fret
32
When recording a triangle solo, a roll-off on the mic can be applied to ______________ .
Reduce unneeded low-frequency content and preserve headroom
33
Which of the following stereo microphone arrays creates a stereo image based only on the differences of intensity of the sound arriving at each microphone (not timing)?
Coincident
34
Which of the following stereo microphone arrays will create the widest stereo image (often with a hole in the middle) based on the differences of intensity and timing of sound arriving at each microphone?
Spaced Pair
35
Which stereo microphone array employs one bi-directional mic and one cardioid mic with coincident capsule placement at a 90° angle?
M-S
36
Which stereo microphone array employs two cardioid mics with coincident capsule placement at a 90° angle?
X-Y
37
Which stereo microphone array employs two cardioid mics with near-coincident capsule placement 17cm apart at a 110° angle?
ORTF
38
Which stereo microphone array employs two bi-directional mics with coincident capsule placement at a 90° angle?
Blumlein
39
Using common professional terminology and according to Thompson, which console path is typically used to route a microphone to the multitrack recorder?
Channel path
40
Using common professional terminology and according to Thompson, which console path is typically used to route the multitrack return to the mix recorder & speakers?
Monitor path
41
Based on the Thompson chapters, the signal architecture, signal routing/processing capabilities. and physical layout of API Vision, it is best classified as _________ ?
An inline recording console
42
On professional audio equipment, what function or device is commonly mislabeled as a "Phase Reverse" (Ø)?
A polarity inverter
43
In professional practice, what type of outboard gear is most likely to be routed to and from a console channel insert send/return?
Signal processors
44
Which is a typical characteristic of a pan-pot?
2.5 to 6 dB of attenuation is applied to both sides before contribution to a stereo bus when panned center
45
A Solo-In-Place solo uses which output for monitoring?
Program bus
46
AFL stands for ___________ .
After Fader Listen
47
PFL stands for ___________ .
Pre-Fader Listen
48
Which solo mode is “destructive” on most recording consoles?
Solo-In-Place (SIP)
49
Solo Safe (or Isolate) is used with which solo mode(s)?
Solo-In-Place
50
Which console solo mode uses a dedicated solo bus for monitoring?
AFL and PFL
51
While mixing on a console, engineers typically use Solo Safe or Solo Isolate on what kind of channels?
Effects return channels
52
Which API console channel resource(s) are assigned to Fader 1 by default?
Auxiliary sends, direct output and multitrack summing buses, compressor and EQ
53
Which audio path on MTSU's API console is configured to be the default “monitor path” when multitrack recording?
Fader 1
54
Which audio path on MTSU's API console is configured to be the default “channel path” when multitrack recording?
Fader 2
55
Which device is configured to be the master clock for digital audio Studio A?
Avid HD SYNC
56
When using a Pro Tools HD system, which windows/parameters should always be checked as a part of pre-session set-up?
Clocking, hardware setup, and I/O setup
57
Which Pro Tools window is the primary window used to configure audio interfaces?
Hardware Setup
58
Which Pro Tools window is used to create audio paths between the software and the audio interfaces?
I/O Setup
59
Given which device is the “loop master” in Studio A, which is the proper Pro Tools window to select a clock source for the system?
Session Setup
60
In Studio A, which clock signal is shared between all AVID HD devices?
Loop Sync (SYNC)
61
In Studio A, what is the default clock source for the Rosetta 800 when using it with Pro Tools?
AES Input
62
In a tracking session, the proper way to set up console cue sends for a separate headphone mix is ____________ .
Pre-fader from the monitor path
63
While tracking or mixing on a console, the typical method to route an effect send is ___________ .
Post-fader from the monitor path
64
When tracking with a console, the output of the _________ is added to the headphone feed to facilitate communication with musicians.
Talkback mic preamp
65
In a filter, the cut-off frequency (corner frequency) is defined as _______________ .
The frequency where the level is attenuated by 3dB
66
The slope of a filter is defined as ______________ .
dB of attenuation per octave (dB/8va)
67
___________ is a common term for a high-order band-reject filter with a very narrow bandwidth.
Notch filter
68
If a 2-pole (2nd order) high-pass filter is set at 200 Hz, the level at 50 Hz will be ___________ .
-27 dB
69
Center frequency divided by bandwidth is the formula for ­­­­­__________ .
Q
70
An EQ that provides boost or cut to all frequencies above or below a given frequency is known as a _______ .
Shelving EQ
71
In an equalizer, a constant Q value is equivalent to a consistent _____________ regardless of center frequency.
Musical interval
72
An EQ that provides boost or cut to a band of frequencies, leaving the frequencies above or below unaffected is known as a _______ .
Peaking EQ
73
The primary purpose of a gobo in a studio is to __________ .
Control reflections
74
Besides protecting everyone’s hearing, what’s the most important thing a good engineer does?
Serve the artist and their music

MRAT 6050 - Recording Seminar (7 decks)

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