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Operative Dentistry > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

In which area of the tooth do the enamel rods orient themselves as they progress from the DEJ to the external tooth surface?

A

Cervical

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2
Q

In an amalgam preparation, what is the proper depth of the pulpal floor before caries is removed?

A

0.5mm into the DEJ

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3
Q

Class II caries penetrates enamel as a cone with the apex oriented toward the DEJ and penetrates the dentin as a cone with the apex oriented pulpally.

A

True

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4
Q

What is the single most important factor in producing cariogenic plaque?

A

Exposure to high fructose

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5
Q

What is more opaque, dentin, or enamel?

A

Dentin is more opaque

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6
Q 
Which of the following will minimize amalgam expansion?
a. moisture contamination
b. increased condensation
c. pressure
increased mercury content
d. decreased trituration time
A

B

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of resistance form for an amalgam cavity
    a. Flat pulpal floor.
    b. Restricting the extension of external walls.
    c. Converging walls under cusps.
    d. Proper amalgam bulk.
A

C

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding caries removal on the pulpal floor when preparing a tooth for silver amalgam?
    a. Infected dentin can remain in a prepared tooth.
    b. Only the caries at the DEJ needs to be removed.
    c. Affected dentin can remain in a prepared tooth.
    d. The entire pulpal floor is lowered until all caries is removed.
A

C

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9
Q
  1. Compared to low copper alloys, high copper alloys exhibit:
    a. More corrosion.
    b. Less compressive strength.
    c. More tensile strength.
    d. Less creep.
A

D

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10
Q
  1. Which phase(s) make up the matrix in a set dental amalgam?
    a. Gamma and Gamma I.
    b. Gamma and Gamma II.
    c. Gamma.
    d. Gamma I and Gamma II.
A

D

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE concerning condensation of dental amalgam?
    a. The operator applies 6-10 pounds of thrust.
    b. The operator has about 5-7 minutes to complete condensation.
    c. The technique must be orderly, stepwise, and overlapping.
    d. Overpacking is done to ensure the removal of the mercury rich surface during
    carving.
A

D

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12
Q
  1. According to the hydrodynamic theory, pain transmission in the tooth:
    a. Results from demineralization of enamel changing the surface topography of
    the enamel rods.
    b. Occurs due to small, rapid movements of fluid within enamel rods.
    c. Cannot occur because the tooth is mostly inorganic in nature.
    d. None of the above.
A

D

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of resistance form for an amalgam cavity preparation?
    a. Grooves.
    b. Slightly rounded internal line angles. (resistance form principles slide)
    c. Pins.
    d. Occlusal dovetails.
A

B

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14
Q
  1. The presence of zinc in dental amalgam:
    a. Suppresses oxidation of the key elements in the alloy.
    b. Can lead to delayed expansion if contaminated with moisture after setting.
    c. Can lead to the production of hydrogen gas if contaminated with moisture after setting.
    d. All of the above are true.
A

A

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about amalgam strength is FALSE?
    a. Voids in dental amalgam decrease strength.
    b. Amalgam strength is greatest 1 hour after placement.
    c. High copper alloys are stronger.
    d. Under trituration of amalgam decreases strength.
A

B

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16
Q
  1. A #699 bur is an example of a(n):
    a. Elliptical bur.
    b. Tapered plain fissure bur.
    c. Long inverted cone bur.
    d. Tapered cross-cut fissure bur.
A

D

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17
Q
  1. Caries involving the mesial surface of tooth #9 is:
    a. Class I caries.
    b. Class II caries.
    c. Class III caries.
    d. Class V caries.
A

C

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18
Q
  1. Caries involving the distal surface of tooth #5 is:
    a. Class I caries.
    b. Class II caries.
    c. Class III caries.
    d. Class V caries.
A

B

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19
Q
  1. Caries involving the cervical third on the facial surface of tooth #22 is:
    a. Class I caries.
    b. Class II caries.
    c. Class III caries.
    d. Class V caries.
A

D

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20
Q

How many degrees do walls converge or diverge in cavity preparations?

A

5-7%

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21
Q
  1. What a. b. c. d. is the GREATEST hazard for mercury toxicity in the dental office? Mercury spills.
    Mercury vapor inhalation.
    Skin contact with mercury.
    Mercury ingestion.
A

Mercury vapor inhalation

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22
Q
  1. When carving a Class I silver amalgam restoration, what is the first step that is done following the pre-carve burnish?
    a. Form grooves.
    b. Place cuspal inclines.
    c. Locate margins.
    d. The tooth is rinsed with water.
A

C

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following is an abbreviation for a Class I preparation?
    a. MO.
    b. MI.
    c. DL.
    d. OL.
A

D

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24
Q
  1. In comparison with a plain fissure bur, a crosscut fissure bur cuts:
    a. Faster.
    b. Smoother.
A

B

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25
Q
  1. An external line angle is a line angle whose apex points into the tooth.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

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26
Q
  1. What is the orientation of the enamel rods in the pits and grooves of the occlusal surfaces?
    a. Converge from DEJ to external tooth surface.
    b. Diverge from DEJ to external tooth surface.
A

A

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27
Q
  1. All accumulations of plaque are pathogenic. This statement is an example of:
    a. Nonspecific Plaque Hypothesis.
    b. Specific Plaque Hypothesis.
A

A

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28
Q
  1. The cavosurface margin is the angle of tooth structure formed by the junction of a prepared wall and the external surface of the tooth.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

True

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29
Q
  1. When using amalgam carving strokes that are perpendicular to the preparation margin, the carver is always moved from enamel to amalgam.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

True

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30
Q
  1. Amalgam chemically bonds to the enamel and dentin of a prepared tooth.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

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31
Q
  1. Amalgam creep occurs during the initial setting reaction of dental amalgam.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

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32
Q
  1. Round burs are primarily used for caries removal in a high speed handpiece.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

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33
Q
  1. As the number of blades or flutes on a bur decreases, efficiency is decreased but a smooth cut is achieved.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

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34
Q
  1. Amalgam should never be placed in patients where moisture control is difficult.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

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35
Q
  1. An admixed amalgam contains both lathe-cut particles and spherical particles.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

True

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36
Q
  1. Enamel hardness is lowest at the CEJ.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False?? It might be lowest at DEJ

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37
Q
  1. Secondary dentin lacks dentinal tubules and continues deposition throughout the life of the tooth.
    a. True.
    b. False. (Secondary dentin does have tubules)
A

False

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38
Q
  1. Which elements compose the gamma phase in the setting reaction for silver amalgam?
    a. Silver and Mercury.
    b. Copper and Tin.
    c. Tin and Mercury.
    d. Silver and Tin.
A

D

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39
Q
  1. What is the PRIMARY source of amalgam retention in a cavity preparation?
    a. Vertical preparation walls.
    b. Grooves or pins.
    c. Mechanical undercuts.
    d. Amalgam bonding agents.
A

C

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE concerning a post-carve burnish of silver amalgam?
    a. It helps to locate margins.
    b. It is done before the amalgam reaches its initial set.
    c. It is only done for restorations that are not smooth.
    d. It expresses more free mercury and increases the surface strength.
A

D

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41
Q
  1. High copper alloys:
    a. Are stronger than low copper alloys.
    b. Are more brittle than low copper alloys.
    c. Have higher creep values than low copper alloys.
    d. Have higher corrosion values than low copper alloys.
A

A

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42
Q
  1. Enamel is:
    a. Formed by odontoblasts.
    b. Mostlyorganic.
    c. Hardest at the DEJ.
    d. Brittle.
A

D

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43
Q
  1. Which teeth are the least susceptible to caries?
    a. Maxillary molars.
    b. Maxillary incisors.
    c. Mandibular molars.
    d. Mandibular incisors.
A

D

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44
Q
  1. Dentin is:
    a. Formed by ameloblasts.
    b. More mineralized than enamel.
    c. Capable of self repair.
    d. Less permeable than enamel.
A

C

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45
Q
  1. What is the primary determinant of the outline form for a cavity preparation?
    a. Esthetics.
    b. The extent of carious dentin.
    c. Anatomy of the tooth.
    d. Type of restorative material planned.
A

B

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46
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a requirement for amalgam preparations?
    a. The cavosurface angle must approach 90o.
    b. The bulk of amalgam must be a 2mm thick.
    c. There must be adequate mechanic retention.
    d. All of the above are requirements for amalgam preparations.
A

B - should be between 1.5-2. If not, D

47
Q
  1. Enamel dissolution is initiated when the intraoral pH level reaches 3.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

48
Q
  1. Increased setting expansion of a silver amalgam restoration indicates that it was over triturated.
    a. True. b. False.
A

False

49
Q
  1. Polishing stones and rubber points should be used in the high speed handpiece so water coolant can be used to help control restoration overheating.
    a. True. b. False.
A

False

50
Q
  1. During Black’s 4th step of cavity preparation, the entire pulpal floor is lowered to the level of the deepest decay.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

51
Q
  1. A Class I lesion should not be prepared to receive a restoration until it is visible on a radiograph.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

52
Q
  1. Natural ridges, free of defective grooves can usually be preserved and should not be included within cavity preparations unless less than 1mm of sound supported tooth structure remains.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

True

53
Q
  1. With the exception of the mandibular second premolar, the pulpal floor is normally cut at a right angle to the long axis of the tooth placing it perpendicular to the forces of occlusion.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

54
Q
  1. Since the operator has only 5-7 minutes to complete condensation, he/she should always use the large end the amalgam carrier to deliver the most amalgam possible to the preparation and decrease the amount of time spent condensing.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

55
Q
  1. Dead tracts extend from external dentin to the pulp and are sealed off at the pulp by secondary dentin.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

56
Q
  1. During periods of remission in the caries process, bacteria are decreasing in metabolic activity, teeth are remineralizing and the pH of the oral environment is decreasing.
    a. True. b. False.
A

False

57
Q
  1. In a tooth preparation, a line angle whose apex points away from the tooth is defined as an internal line angle.
    a. True. b. False.
A

False

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is a possible consequence of overheating a silver amalgam restoration while polishing?
    a. Corrosion of the restoration.
    b. Excess mercury is brought to the surface of the restoration.
    c. Irreversible pulp damage to the tooth.
    d. All of the above are possible consequences.
A

D

59
Q
  1. When deciphering the difference between enamel and dentin which of the following is TRUE?
    a. Dentin is harder than enamel.
    b. Enamel is more opaque than dentin.
    c. Dentin lightens with age.
    d. Enamel produces a high pitch when an explorer tine passes across it.
A

D

60
Q
  1. The cavosurface margin is the angle of tooth structure formed by the junction of a prepared wall and the external surface of the tooth.
    a. True. b. False.
A

A

61
Q
  1. Which of the following is an abbreviation for a Class III preparation?
    a. MOD.
    b. MIFL.
    c. DL.
    d. L.
A

C

62
Q
  1. Lactobacilli dominate during the _______________of caries.
    a. Onset.
    b. Progression.
A

B

63
Q
  1. The shape and placement of preparation walls that best enables the restoration and tooth to withstand mastication forces without fracture is:
    a. Resistance form. b. Retention form.
A

A

64
Q
  1. MS and Actinomyces initiate caries in pits and fissures of posterior teeth.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

B

65
Q
  1. Place the following in the order in which they would appear on a standard three- number formula dental hand instrument.
    _____ a. Length of the blade in millimeters.
    _____ b. Width of the blade in tenths of millimeters.
    _____ c.Number-angle of the blade from the long axis of the shaft in centigrade or hundredths of a circle.
A

2, 1, 3

66
Q
  1. The advantage of carbon steel used in hand held instruments designed for cutting tooth structure intraorally is that it will not rust or corrode.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

67
Q
  1. The high speed handpiece is ideal for high tactile sensitivity and smoothness of the finish on the preparation walls.
    True False
A

False

68
Q 
68. Which of the following is not one of the disadvantages of the slow speed handpiece?
Time consuming
Requires heavier force
Creates vibration
Greater tactile sense
A

D

69
Q

69. A twelve standard round bur but the surface finish is rougher.
bladed finishing bur is more efficient for cutting tooth structure than the
a. Both statements are true.
b. The first statement is true but the second is false.
c. The first statement is false and the second is true.
d. Both statements are false.

A

D

70
Q
  1. Write Black’s Six Steps as listed in the syllabus and in the order which he proposed for them.
A

Outline form, resistance and retention form, convenience form, removal of remaining decay, finish enamel walls, cleanse.

71
Q
  1. The Dovetail spoken of in the syllabus represents which of Black’s Six Steps?
A

Resistance/retention

72
Q
  1. Affected dentin that exhibits a texture like that of normal dentin represents an area of decalcification preceding the penetration of microorganisms and must be removed from the tooth to be restored.
    a. Both statements are true.
    b. The first statement is true but the second is false.
    c. The first statement is false and the second is true.
    d. Both statements are false.
A

D or B

73
Q
  1. The only exception to the rule of creating the pulpal floor perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth is:
    a. The maxillary first molar
    b. The mandibular first molar
    c. The mandibular first premolar
    d. The mandibular second molar
A

C

74
Q
  1. Both convergence and divergence occur in the walls of a properly prepared Class I amalgam preparation in a mandibular first molar.
    a. True b. False
A

A

75
Q 
75. Identify which bacterium is primarily involved in each of the caries processes listed below:
Answers:
\_\_\_\_\_a. Actinomyces
\_\_\_\_\_b. Streptococcus Mutans
\_\_\_\_\_c. Lactobacilli
Process:
Initiation of Caries
Progression of Caries
Root surface caries
A

C, A, B

76
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a favorable tooth habitat for pathogenic plaque?
    a. Root surfaces
    b. Pits and fissures
    c. Occlusal/Incisal 1/3 of the buccal/facial surface
    d. Subgingival areas
A

C

77
Q
  1. When preparing a tooth for a silver amalgam restoration, unsupported enamel does not need to be removed.
    a. True b. False
A

False

78
Q
  1. The cavosurface margin is the angle of tooth structure formed by the junction of a prepared wall and the pulpal floor.
    a. True b. False
A

False

79
Q
  1. After completion of Black’s first step, the proper depth of the pulpal floor for an
    amalgam preparation is:
    a. 0.25mm beyond the deepest portion of caries.
    b. 3mm from a cuspal incline.
    c. 1.5m at the central pit.
    d. 0.5mm beyond the DEJ.
A

D

80
Q
  1. In which area of the tooth do the enamel rods orient themselves apically as they progress from the DEJ to the external tooth surface?
    a. Cusp tips
    b. Developmental grooves
    c. Cervical
    d. No enamel rods orient apically.
A

C

81
Q
  1. A cavity preparation which involved the distal and incisal surfaces of tooth #23 would be called a ___________ cavity preparation.
    a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV e. Class VI
A

D

82
Q
  1. By definition dental amalgam is alloy combined with:
    a. Silver
    b. Tin
    c. Copper
    d. Mercury
A

D

83
Q
  1. Name the three most common types of amalgam alloy based on particle geometry and size.
    a. _______ b. _______ c. _______
A

Spherical, Lathe-cut, admixed

84
Q
  1. Identify the primary elements present in each of the following phases of dental amalgam.
    a. Gamma ___________
    b. Gamma I __________
    c. Gamma II _________
    d. Eta ________
A

AgSn, AgHg, SnHg, CuSn

85
Q
  1. Ideally, with respect to the reaction, one would prefer it not get to completion, but only progress far enough to generate enough matrix to bind the ________ particles together.
    a. Gamma I
    b. Gamma II
    c. Gamma
    d. Eta phase
A

C

86
Q
  1. Rank the following components of a dental amalgam according to strength with the strongest being number 1.
    a. ______ gamma
    b. ______ gamma I
    c. ______ gamma II
A

1, 2, 3

87
Q
  1. The process of mixing the components of dental amalgam for placement into the cavity preparation is called:
    a. Spatulation b. Flagellation c. Trituration
    d. Condensation
A

C

88
Q
  1. The condensation pressure delivered to the amalgam during condensation is directly proportional to the area of the face of the nib.
    a. True b. False
A

False

89
Q
  1. What element is best omitted from the various combinations of alloys used in dental amalgams where it is NOT possible to isolate the restoration from moisture contamination?
    a. Sn b. Hg c. Ag d. Cu e. Zn
A

E

90
Q
  1. Most dental burs have a:
    a. Positive rake angle.
    b. Radial rake angle.
    c. Negative rake angle.
    d. Neutral rake angle.
A

C

91
Q
  1. Condensation of dental amalgam is only done in a vertical direction because the amalgam is fluid enough to adapt to the preparation walls without any lateral condensation.
    a. Both parts of the statement are true.
    b. The first part is true, the second is false.
    c. The first part is false, the second is true.
    d. Both parts of the statement are false.
A

D

92
Q 
92. Please place the following abrasives in correct order for use in polishing a silver amalgam restoration:
\_\_\_\_\_a. Finishing burs
\_\_\_\_\_b. Tinoxide/alcohol slurry 
\_\_\_\_\_c. Green rubber points/cups 
\_\_\_\_\_d. Pumice/water slurry
\_\_\_\_\_e. Brown rubber points/cups 
\_\_\_\_\_f. Green stone
\_\_\_\_g. White stone
A

3, 7, 5, 6, 4, 1, 2

93
Q
  1. Please list 2 reasons for polishing silver amalgam restorations.
    a. ________________________________________
    b. ________________________________________
A

Redefine anatomy, Enhance surface texture

94
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a possible consequence of overheating a silver amalgam while polishing?
    a. Corrosion of the restoration.
    b. Excess mercury is brought to the surface of the restoration.
    c. Irreversible pulp damage to the tooth.
    d. Decreased strength of the restoration.
    e. None of the above.
A

E

95
Q
  1. Please list three ways you can minimize mercury vapor in the dental office.
    a___
    b___
    c___
A

a. Store in unbreakable/tightly sealed containers
b. Store near a good vent
c. Salvage and place scraps in a tightly sealed container

96
Q
  1. A large silver amalgam restoration should be polished immediately after placement.
    a. True b. False
A

False

97
Q
  1. Please list 3 ways to avoid overheating while polishing a silver amalgam restoration.
    a___
    b___
    c___
A

a. __Decrease rotational speed___________________________
b. __Keep pumice moist__________________
c. __Air cool___________________________

98
Q
  1. If the defect due to decalcification is greater than 1/3 of the thickness of enamel, the area in question should be included within the preparation outline design and not removed by enamoplasty.
    a. True b. False
A

True

99
Q
  1. Mesial and distal cavosurface margins should be parallel with the appropriate marginal, transverse or oblique ridges.
    a. True b. False
A

True

100
Q
  1. Which of the following factors DOES NOT contribute to increased expansion of amalgam?
    a. Too high Hg/alloy ratio.
    b. Undertrituration.
    c. Overtrituration.
    d. Moisture contamination.
A

C

101
Q
  1. Which of the following IS NOT one of the advantages of amalgam?
    a. Durable
    b. Esthetic
    c. Economical
    d. Least technique sensitive of all restorative materials.
A

B

102
Q
  1. The third number in a four number formula hand instrument specifies:
    The angle of the cutting edge from the long axis of the shaft.
    The width of the blade in millimeters.
    The length of the blade in millimeters.
    The angle of the shank to the handle
A

C

103
Q
  1. It is useful to know the diameters and lengths of the burs used in tooth
    preparation so that they can be used as gauges of depth and distance.
    a. True b. False
A

True

104
Q
  1. What is the PRIMARY source of amalgam retention in a cavity preparation?
    a. Vertical preparation walls.
    b. Grooves or pins.
    c. Mechanical undercuts.
    d. Amalgam bonding agents.
A

C

105
Q
  1. What is the highest pH at which enamel begins to demineralize?
    a. 3.0
    b. 4.5
    c. 5.5
    d. 6.5
A

C

106
Q
  1. Pre-carve burnishing produces denser amalgam at the restoration margins.
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

107
Q
  1. Which of the following is an advantage of amalgam?
    a. Marginal breakdown is common.
    b. Potential for galvanic reaction.
    c. Corrosion causes an effective seal at the tooth-restoration interface.
    d. Public perception of mercury toxicity.
A

C

108
Q
  1. It is important to realize that amalgam’s tensile strength is 1/5 to 1/8 that of the compressive strength and that is why amalgam can take straight on or 90 degree loads better than shearing loads.
    a. Both statements are true.
    b. The first statement is true but the second is false.
    c. The first statement is false but the second is true.
    d. Both statements are false.
A

A

109
Q
  1. High copper alloys have lower creep values and better marginal integrity than conventional alloys.
    a. True b. False
A

True

110
Q
  1. The longer one takes to condense the amalgam, the greater the chances of having a restoration with a greater than 1:1 mercury to alloy ratio.
    a. True b. False
A

True

111
Q
  1. Once caries reaches the DEJ, it spreads laterally and pulpally.
    a. True.
    b. False.
A

True

112
Q
  1. Lactobacilli dominate during the _______________of caries.
    a. Onset.
    b. Progression.
A

B

113
Q
  1. MS and Actinomyces initiate caries in pits and fissures of posterior teeth. a. True.
    b. False.
A

False

114
Q
  1. Using the four number formula for dental hand instruments define what dimensions
    about the instrument each number represents. Use the numbers 15-98-10-14.
A

Width of blade in mm
Angle of cutting edge from long axis of shaft
Length of blade in mm
Angle of blade with the long axis of shaft

Operative Dentistry (4 decks)

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