Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. When should you restore a carious class V lesion?
    a. When the tooth is sensitive
    b. When the lesion is in the esthetic zone
    c. When it is an abfractive lesion
    d. Always, if it is restorable
A

D

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2
Q
  1. What determines the type of preparation used for a class V lesion? (slide 13/50 ) class V
    a. Whether or not a rubber dam is used
    b. The location of the lesion
    c. The type of lesion
    d. The type of restorative material to be used
A

D

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3
Q
  1. Studies show that occlusive forces alone will cause abfractive lesions. (Slide 15 and 21/50) class V
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

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4
Q
  1. Demineralized tooth structure cannot remineralize. (Slide 20/50 Class V)
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

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5
Q
  1. Which is not a reason to restore a NCCL? (Slide 25/50 class v)
    a. When the tooth is significantly sensitive
    b. When the etiologic factors are uncontrolled
    c. When there is a threat to the strength of the tooth
    d. when the lesion is esthetically acceptable
A

D

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6
Q
  1. A good preventive and treatment strategy for dental caries includes _______.
    a. Limiting cariogenic substrate
    b. Controlling cariogenic flora
    c. Elevating host resistance
    d. All of the above
A

D

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding caries risk assessment is correct?
    a. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of current caries activity.
    b. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity.
    c. The presence of dental plaque is a good indicator of current caries activity.
    d. The presence of pit-and-fissure sealants is a good indicator of current caries activity.
A

B

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a reversible carious lesion?
    a. The lesion surface is cavitated.
    b. The lesion has advanced to the dentin radiographically.
    c. A white spot is detected on drying.
    d. The lesion surface is rough or chalky.
A

C

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9
Q
  1. Smooth surface caries refers to _______. (Slide 6/50 Class V)
    a. Facial and lingual surfaces
    b. Occlusal pits and grooves
    c. Mesial and distal surfaces
    d. Both A and C
A

D

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10
Q
  1. When placement of proximal retention locks in class II amalgam preparations is necessary, which of the following is not correct? (Slide 26/51 of class2 cavity prep ppt.) *I think its suppose to be .5mm into DEJ
    a. One should not undermine the proximal enamel.
    b. One should not prepare locks entirely in the axial wall.
    c. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock placement.
    d. One should place locks 0.2 mm inside the dentinoenamel junction (DEJ) to ensure that the proximal enamel is not undermined.
A

C

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11
Q
  1. In the conventional Class I composite preparation, retention is achieved by which of the following features?
    a. Occlusal convergence
    b. Occlusal bevel
    c. Bonding
    d. Retention grooves
    e. 2 and 4
    f. 1 and 3
    g. 1 and 4
    h. 2 and 3
A

F

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12
Q
  1. Many factors affect tooth/cavity preparation. Which of the following would be the least important factor?
    a. Extent of the defect
    b. Size of the tooth
    c. Fracture lines
    d. Extent of the old material
A

B??

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13
Q
  1. Restoration of an appropriate proximal contact results in all of the follwing except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. Reduces or eliminates food impaction at the inter-dental papilla
    b. Provides appropriate space for the interdental papilla
    c. Provides increased retention form for the restoration
    d. Maintains the proper occlusal relationship
A

C

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14
Q
  1. All of the following are likely to indicate the need for restoration of a cervical notch except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. Patient age
    b. Esthetic concern
    c. Tooth is symptomatic
    d. Tooth is deeply notched axially
A

A

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15
Q
  1. Bonding of resins to dentin is best described as involving _______.
    a. Mechanical interlocking
    b. Ionic bonding
    c. Covalent bonding
    d. Van der Waals forces
A

A

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary contraindication for the use of a composite restoration?
    a. Occlusal factors
    b. Inability to isolate the operating area
    c. Nonesthetic areas
    d. Extension onto the root surface
A

B

17
Q
  1. Which of the following materials has the highest linear coefficient of expansion?
    a. Amalgam
    b. Direct gold (14.2)
    c. Tooth structure (16.96)c
    d. Composite resin
A

D

18
Q
  1. A cervical lesion should be restored if it is _______.
    a. carious
    b. Very sensitive
    c. Causing gingival inflammation
    d. All of the above
A

D

19
Q
  1. Compared with amalgam restorations, composite restorations are _______.
    a. Stronger
    b. More technique-sensitive
    c. More resistant to occlusal forces
    d. Not indicated for Class II restorations
A

B

20
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding the choice between doing a composite or amalgam restoration is true?
    a. Establishing restored proximal contacts is easier with composite.
    b. The amalgam is more difficult and technique-sensitive.
    c. The composite generally uses a more conservative tooth/cavity preparation.
    d. Only amalgam should be used for Class II restorations.
A

C??

21
Q
  1. Eburnated dentin has which of the following characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)
    a. Is sclerotic dentin
    b. Indicates recent poor hygiene (I think this might not be true because it’s a long process…)
    c. Usually appears as a white patch
    d. Is firm to the touch of an explorer
    e. Is usually seen in older patients
A

Most likely B & D

22
Q
  1. Rounding internal cavity preparation angles is part of what form in cavity preparation?
    a. Resistance form
    b. Retention form
    c. Convenience form
    d. Outline form
A

A

23
Q
  1. Which of the following terms refers to tooth structure loss in the cervical area secondary to biomechanical loading?
    a. Abfraction
    b. Abrasion
    c. Attrition
    d. Erosion
A

A

24
Q
  1. For a mechanical pulp exposure that is non-carious and the exposure is less than 1.0 mm, what is usually the most appropriate treatment?
    a. No pulp treatment
    b. Direct pulp cap
    c. Indirect pulp cap
    d. Endodontic therapy
A

B

25
Q
  1. After completing the tooth preparation for the application of an etch-and-rinse (total-etch) three-step dental adhesive, what is the next step?
    a. Apply adhesive
    b. Rinse etchant and leave surface wet
    c. Apply two to three layers of primer
    d. Etch enamel and dentin with phosphoric acid for 10 to 15 seconds
    e. Light-cure
A

D??

26
Q
  1. Major differences between etch-and-rinse (previously known as total-etch) and self-etching primer adhesive systems include all of the following except one. Which one is the exception?
    a. Time necessary to apply the materials
    b. amount of smear layer removed
    c. Bond strengths to enamel
    d. Need for wet bonding
A

A

27
Q
  1. Match each condition of tooth loss with the most closely linked type of tooth loss.
    a. Mechanical wear secondary to abnormal forces (i.e. toothbrushing) ____
    b. Normal tooth wear __
    c. Wear secondary to chemical presence____
    d. Tooth loss in the cervical area secondary to biomechanical loading___
    e. Abfracion
    f. Attrition
    g. Erosion
    h. Abrasion
A
H
F
G
E
??
28
Q
  1. From the following list, select the reasons to consider the restoration of abraded or eroded (noncarious) cervical lesions. (Choose four).
    a. Caries develops in the lesion.
    b. The defect is shallow and does not compromise the structural integrity of the tooth.
    c. Intolerable sensitivity exists and is unresponsive to conservative desensitizing measures.
    d. The defect contributes to a phonetic problem.
    e. The area is to be involved in the design of a removable partial denture.
    f. Teeth are endodontically treated.
    g. The patient desires an esthetic improvement.
A

A, C, D, and G

??

29
Q
  1. From the following list, select the reasons associated with replacement of existing restorations. (Choose four).
    a. Marginal ridge discrepancy that contributes to food impaction
    b. Existing restoration has significant discrepancies and is a negative etiologic factor to adjecent teeth or tissue.
    c. Light marginal staining not compromising esthetics and judged noncarious
    d. Poor proximal contour or a gingival overhang that contributes to periodontal breakdown
    e. recurrent caries that can be adequately treated by a repair restoration
    f. Presence of shallow ditching around an amalgam restoration
    g. For tooth-colored restorations, unacceptable esthetics
A

A, B, D, and E

30
Q
  1. Match each pulpal condition with the most closely linked recommended pulp therapy.
    a. Mechanical pulp exposure, noncarious (1.0 mm) with purulent exudate ____
    d. Residual questionable dentin near pulp, asymptomatic tooth____
    e. Endodontic therapy
    f. No pulp therapy required
    g. Direct pulp cap
    h. Indirect pulp cap
A

G
F
E
H

31
Q
  1. In the contemporary order of tooth preparation, outline form, resistance form, and retention form become irrelevant.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

32
Q
  1. Minimally invasive dentistry is meant to halt or delay the typical restorative cycle.
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

33
Q
  1. It is more important to remove the central caries prior to removal of the peripheral caries.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False