Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Operative Dentistry > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

The pulpal floor of an occlusal preparation on tooth #28 should be made parallel to a plane between the buccal and lingual cusps.

a. True
b. False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Moisture contamination of a zinc containing amalgam after the initial set, has effect on the dimensional change of the amalgam.

a. True
b. False

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. When Caries involve the dentin in both pit and fissure caries and smooth surface caries, there is a spread of the caries along the dentino-enamel junction.
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. The reason we extend proximal and gingival extensions of a class II amalgam cavity preparation .5 mm from adjacent tooth structure is to ensure a proper 70˚ - 90˚ proximal cavosurface angle.
    a. True
    b. False
A

True????

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. In a Class II amalgam preparation, which of the following provides retention form to the cavity preparation?
  2. Gingival seat perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth
  3. Flat pulpal floor
  4. Convergence of the occlusal and proximal walls pulpo-occlusally
  5. A rounded axio-pulpal line angle
  6. Line angle retentions in the bucco-axial and linguo-axial line angles

a. 1,2, and 4
b. 1, 3, and 5
c. 2, 3, and 5
d. 3 and 5
e. 1, 2, and 3

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. In a Class II amalgam preparation, which of the following provides resistance form to the cavity preparation?
  2. Gingival seat perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth
  3. Occlusal convergence of the buccal and lingual occlusal walls
  4. Flat pulpal floor
  5. A rounded axio-pulpal line angle
  6. Bucco-axial, linguo-axial line angle retentions

a. 1, 3, and 4
b. 2 and 5
c. 2, 4, and 5
d. 1 and 3
e. 2, 3, and 4

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. In order to prove adequate resistance form, the mesio-occlusal wall of the dovetail of a DO amalgam preparation should be
  2. parallel to the internal surface of the tooth bucco-lingually.
  3. divergent pulpo-occlusally to the long axis.
  4. convergent pulpo-occlusally to the long axis.
  5. parallel to the long axis of the tooth pulpo-occlusally.
    a. 1 and 2
    b. 1 and 3
    c. 1 and 4
    d. 2
    e. 4
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. What effects would the addition of copper to amalgam alloy have?
  2. Increase strength
  3. Decreased hardness
  4. Decreased flow
  5. Increased expansion
  6. Decreased tarnish resistance
    a. 1, 2, and 4
    b. 2, 3, and 4
    c. 1, 3, and 4
    d. 1, 2, and 5
    e. 2, 4, and 5
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. The correct occluso-gingival width of a matrix band used for condensing a Class II amalgam should extend
  2. Just to the gingival cavosurface margin
  3. 3 mm occlusal to the marginal ridge of the adjacent tooth.
  4. 0.5 mm apical to the gingival cavosurface margin.
  5. 1.5 mm occlusal to the marginal ridge of the adjacent tooth
  6. Just level to the marginal ridge of the adjacent tooth.
    a. 2 and 3
    b. 1 and 5
    c. 1 and 4
    d. 1 and 2
    e. 3 and 4
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. A cavity found in the buccal development pit of mandibular first molars is classified as
    a. Class I
    b. Class II
    c. Class V
    d. Class VI
    e. None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Which term best describes the junction of the internal walls of a cavity preparation with the external surface of the tooth?
    a. Line angle
    b. Cavosurface angle
    c. Point angle
    d. Axial wall
    e. Bucco-occlusal wall
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Burnishing is an important part of the amalgam manipulation process because it
    a. Increases residual surface mercury content
    b. Diminishes microporosity
    c. Eliminates the need for finishing and polishing
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. The ideal width of the isthmus of a Class II amalgam preparation should be
    a. 0.5mm
    b. 1/3 the intercuspal distance
    c. 1/4 the intercuspal distance
    d. 3.0 mm
    e. 1/6 the intercuspal distance
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which principle of cavity preparation prevents dislodgement of the restorative material through tipping or lifting forces?
    a. Outline form
    b. Retention form
    c. Convenience form
    d. Resistance form
    e. Enamel finish
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which principle of cavity preparation determines the shape and placement of the cavity walls which will best enable the tooth and the restoration to withstand the forces of mastication?
    a. Outline form
    b. Retention form
    c. Resistance form
    d. Convenience form
    e. Enamel finish
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. In a Class II amalgam preparation on the distal of tooth #4, which wall forms a line angle with both the gingival floor and the buccal proximal wall?
    a. Pulpal floor
    b. Lingual proximal wall
    c. Gingival seat
    d. Axial wall
    e. Proximo-occlusal wall
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The amalgam alloys with finer particle size possess a shorter setting time because
    a. The increased surface area promotes faster reactions.
    b. The composition of the alloy is slightly altered
    c. More heat is released during amalgamation
    d. Lathe-cut particles are used
    e. None of the above
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. The metallic element in conventional dental amalgam most responsible for tarnish and corrosion is
    a. Silver
    b. Copper
    c. Tin Gamma II is most prone to corrosion which is Sn/Hg
    d. Zinc
    e. Nickle
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most accurate definition for the term amalgam?
    a. Amalgam is the metallic substance supplied in the form of fillings which is mixed with mercury
    b. Amalgam is a metallic substance composed of two or more metals which are mutually soluble in a molten state.
    c. Amalgam is an alloy of two or more metals, one of which is mercury.
    d. Amalgam is a metallic substance composed of silver, copper, zinc, and tin.
    e. Royal mineral succedaneum
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. During the restoration of a cavity with amalgam the chief reason excess amalgam is condensed on the surface is to
    a. Reduce delayed expansion.
    b. Reduce overcarving the restoration.
    c. Permit burnishing of the restoration to the cavity margins.
    d. Reduce the mercury content at the surface of the final restoration.l
    e. Strengthen the line angles.
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. It is often possible to restore the distal marginal ridge of the mandibular first premolar without extending an occlusal dovetail into the mesial fossa because of the
    a. Small lingual lobe
    b. Large buccal cusp
    c. Large buccal pulp horn
    d. Coalesced transverse ridge
    e. Coalesced oblique ridge
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Amalgam restorations expand excessively when they have been contaminated by moisture during their insertion because the water reacts with the
    a. Mercury
    b. Tin
    c. Silver
    d. Copper
    e. Zinc
A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Rounding the axiopulpal line angle in a Class II cavity preparation for amalgam serves to:
    a. Increase the bulk of the restoration
    b. Increase the strength of the restoration
    c. Decrease the internal stress of the restoration
    d. All of the above
    e. None of the above
A

D

24
Q
  1. When an MO amalgam restoration is to be placed on tooth #18 and the cavity preparation is made, what are the primary reasons for placing a dovetail
  2. provide resistance form to the preparation.
  3. eliminate the precarious distal pit and distal triangular grooves.
  4. extend the margin to where it can be finished.
  5. provide retention form to the preparation.
  6. provide convenience to the preparation.
    a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
    b. 1, 4
    c. 2, 4
    d. 2, 3
    e. 1, 3, 4
A

C

25
Q
  1. The classification of a cavity that occurs on the proximal surfaces of incisors where the incisal angle is involved is….
    a. Class II
    b. Class III
    c. Class IV
    d. Class V
    e. Class VI
A

C

26
Q
  1. (A) The axial wall of a Class II amalgam preparation should be made parallel to the external surface of the tooth occluso-gingivally and (B) follows the curvature of the cavosurface margin of the gingival wall bucco-lingually.
A

False, True…. or Both True

27
Q
  1. (A) Line angle retention grooves are placed in all Class II amalgam preparations and (B) should extend from the gingival seat to the occlusal cavosurface margin.
A

True, False

28
Q
  1. The purpose of condensation is to (A) adapt the plastic amalgam as tightly against the cavity as is possible and (B) increase the density of the amalgam by decreasing the percentage of matrix and by decreasing the distance between gamma particles.
A

True, True

29
Q
  1. (A) In excavating a carious lesion on the pulpal floor of a preparation, the entire pulpal floor should be extended to the deepest part of the carious lesion. (B) When excavating caries, the color of the dentin is the best indicator that caries has been completely removed.
A

False, False

30
Q
  1. (A) Polishing of amalgam restorations provides a more corrosion resistant surface and (B) more comfort to the patient.
A

True, True

31
Q
  1. A wedge placed interproximally prior to condensation of amalgam into an MO preparation functions to adapt the gingival portion of the matrix against the tooth and gains slight separation between the teeth during condensation.
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

32
Q
  1. In Class II Amalgam preparations a “S” curve is necessary in the buccal proximal walls of all posterior teeth.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

33
Q
  1. High speed air turbine handpieces are run at approximately 200,000 rpm’s and exhibit high torque.
    a. True
    b. Flase (online is says they are higher?)(they also have low torque)
A

False????

34
Q
  1. Line angle retentions are unnecessary in three surface Class II amalgams because the opposing axial wall serves the same function as the line angle retention.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

35
Q
  1. Resistance form features are those which provide resistance to occlusal displacement of the restoration.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

36
Q
  1. Spherical alloys are superior to conventional filing alloys in obtaining proximal contact during the condensation of a Class II amalgam.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

37
Q
  1. The reason we extend proximal and gingival extensions of a Class II amalgam cavity preparation 0.5 mm from adjacent tooth structure is to ensure access for finishing procedures and cleaning.
    a. True
    b. False
A

True

38
Q
  1. For best results handpieces should be operated near “stall” levels to minimize the energy imparted to tooth structure and increase the cutting efficiency.
    a. True
    b. False
A

False

39
Q
  1. Which term best describes the junction of three internal walls of a cavity preparation?
    a. Line angle
    b. Cavosurface angle
    c. Point angle
    d. Axial wall
    e. Bucco-occlusal wall
A

C

40
Q
  1. A cavity found in the lingual cingulm pit of tooth #7 would be classified as:
    a. Class I
    b. Class III
    c. Class IV
    d. Class V
    e. Class VI
A

A

41
Q
  1. Which of the following classification of cavities involves the proximal portion of a tooth?
  2. Class I
  3. Class II
  4. Class III
  5. Class IV
  6. Class VI
    a. 2 and 5
    b. 1, 2, 3
    c. 2, 4, 5
    d. 2, 3, 4
A

D

42
Q
  1. Retention in an MOD amalgam restoration is obtained from:
  2. Divergence of axial walls to the long axis
  3. Convergence of occlusal walls to the occlusal in the triangular ridge areas.
  4. Axio-proximal pyramidal undercut areas
  5. Extension into buccal and lingual grooves
  6. Converging proximal walls gingiva-occlusally
    a. 1, 2
    b. 1, 2, 3
    c. 2, 3, 4
    d. 1, 3, 4
    e. 3, 4, 5
A

E

43
Q
  1. The pulpal floor of Class II restorations should always be:
  2. Perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth.
  3. A minimum of 0.5 mm into dentin.
  4. Smooth and flat.
  5. Parallel to the gingival seat.
    a. 1, 2
    b. 2, 3
    c. 1, 3
    d. 1, 2, 3
    e. 1, 2, 3, 4
A

B

44
Q
  1. Some Class II amalgam cavity preparations require an outline form with an “S” curve where the buccal occlusal wall meets the buccal proximal wall.
    A. What is the reason for this curve?
    B. Why is there usually no “S” curve lingually in the occlusal outline?
A

The contact point on the tooth usually lies to the buccal whereas the central groove is in the center of the tooth. A reverse curve allows for a 90 degree exit angle and clearing the contact while preserving the major ridges.
Since the contact lies buccally the lingual exit line is a straight shot from the central groove.

45
Q
  1. During an examination of a patient in your dental offices you find a DO amalgam restoration that has been fractures through the occlusal portion buccolingually just distal to the isthmus. If the cavity preparation is at fault, which of the seven basic principles of cavity preparation has most likely been violated?
A

Resistance Form

46
Q
  1. Carious lesion is usually just ________ to the contact.
    a. Incisal
    b. Facial
    c. Lingual
    d. Gingival
A

D

47
Q
  1. Which are the advantages of using Amalgam? (Choose all that apply)
    a. Ease of use
    b. High compressive strength
    c. Excellent wear resistance
    d. Favorable long-term clinical research results
    e. Lower cost than composite restorations
    f. Long Life
    g. Non insulating
    h. Initial marginal leakage
A

A, B, C, D, E, F

48
Q
  1. The purpose of proper wedge and matrix placement is: (Choose all that apply)
    a. Allow re-establishment of contact
    b. Prevent extrusion of the amalgam and an overhang
    c. Provide physiologic contour on the proximal
    d. Isolate the tooth
A

A, B, C

49
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the Tofflemire retainer?
    a. Secures the matrix band
    b. Confuses the patient
    c. Retract the lip
    d. Isolate
A

A

50
Q
  1. Why should you carve the marginal ridge before you remove the matrix band?
    a. It will be easier to carve after you remove the band
    b. To prevent its breakage
    c. So it will be soft
A

B

51
Q
  1. One way to prevent the marginal ridge from breaking:
    a. Put water or moisture on it
    b. Support it with a condenser as you remove the band
    c. Wait 4 minutes before removing the band
A

B

52
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about indirect pulp caps is false?
    a. Some leathery caries may be left in the preparations.
    b. A liner is generally recommended in the excavation.
    c. The operator should wait at least 6-8 weeks before reentry (if then).
    d. The prognosis of indirect pulp cap treatment is poorer than the prognosis of direct pulp caps.
A

D

53
Q
  1. Causes of postoperative sensitivity with amalgam restorations include all of the following except one. Which is the exception?
    a. Lack of adequate condensation, especially lateral condensation in the proximal boxes
    b. Voids
    c. Extension onto the root surface
    d. Lack of dentinal sealing
A

C

54
Q
  1. For a mechanical pulp exposure that is noncarious and the exposure is less than 1.0 mm, what is usually the most appropriate treatment?
    a. No pulp treatment
    b. Direct pulp cap
    c. Indirect pulp cap
    d. Endodontic therapy
A

B

55
Q
  1. Which of the following possess all of the characteristics of an ideal material for pulpal protection?
    a. Varnish?
    b. Calcium Hydroxide
    c. Zinc Phosphate
    d. None of the above
A

D

56
Q
  1. Which of the following are properties of an ideal cavity liner?
  2. Improve marginal seal
  3. Low thermal conductivity
  4. Prevent chemical exchange
  5. Non-irritating to the pulp
  6. Easy to use

a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 5
e. 1, 4, 5

A

A

57
Q
  1. In excavating a carious lesion on the pulpal floor of a preparation, the entire pulpal floor should be extended to the deepest part of the carious lesion.
    a. Trues
    b. False
A

False

Operative Dentistry (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions