Midterm 3 Flashcards

1
Q

language

A

system of communication using sounds or symbols that enable us to express feelings, thoughts, ideas, and experiences

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2
Q

importance of language

A

provides a way of arranging a sequence of signals to transmit different types of information from one person to another; makes it possible to create new and unique sentences

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3
Q

structure of language

A

hierarchical system, governed by rules

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4
Q

hierarchical system in language

A

components that can be combined to form larger units

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5
Q

rules in language

A

specific ways components can be arranged

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6
Q

the universality of language

A

language occurs wherever there are people; language development is similar across cultures; language are “unique but the same” because they have different words, sounds, and rules but all have nouns, verbs, negatives, questions, past/present tense

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7
Q

B. F. Skinner on language

A

language learned through reinforcement

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8
Q

Noam Chomsky on language

A

human language coded in the genes; underlying basis of all language is similar; children produce sentences they have never heard and that have never been reinforced

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9
Q

psycholinguistics

A

discover psychological processes by which humans acquire and process language

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10
Q

organization of language

A

sentence –> phrase –> word –> morpheme –> phoneme

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11
Q

sentence

A

coherent sequence of words

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12
Q

word

A

a complete, discrete unit of meaning in a language

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13
Q

morpheme

A

the smallest language unit that carries meaning

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14
Q

phoneme

A

the smallest unit of sound that serves to distinguish meaning

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15
Q

production of speech

A

speech produced by airflow from the lungs that pass through the larynx and oral and nasal cavities; different vowels are created by movements of the lips and tongue that change the size and shape of the oral cavity; consonants are produced by movements that temporarily obstruct the airflow through the vocal tract

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16
Q

ways to distinguish sounds

A
  • manner of production
  • voicing
  • place of articulation
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17
Q

manner of production

A

how the airflow is restricted to produce different speech sounds

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18
Q

voicing

A

distinguish between sounds that are and are not voiced

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19
Q

place of articulation

A

point of airflow restriction; closing of lips, top teeth against bottom lip, tongue behind upper teeth

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20
Q

speech segmentation

A

the “slicing” of a continuous speech stream into appropriate segments

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21
Q

coarticulation

A

how the production of each phoneme is slightly altered depending on the preceding and following sounds

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22
Q

complexity of speech perception

A

has to “read past” context differences in order to identify the phonemes produced

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23
Q

perception of language

A

relies on prior knowledge and expectations to supplement input

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24
Q

phonemic restoration effect

A

occurs when phonemes are perceived in speech when the sound of the phoneme is covered up; “fill in” missing phonemes based on context of sentence and portion of word

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25
Q

categorical perception

A

people are better at hearing differences between categories of sounds than within sound categories

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26
Q

for each word that a speaker knows, the speaker…

A

knows the word’s sound; usually knows the word’s orthography (how it’s spelled); knows the rules of syntax (how to combine it with other words); knows the word’s semantics (what it means)

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27
Q

generativity

A

the capacity to create an endless series of new combinations from a small set of fundamental units

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28
Q

morphological knowledge

A

specifies how to create variations of each word by adding appropriate morphemes

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29
Q

lexical ambiguity

A

words have more than one meaning

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30
Q

meaning dominance

A

a particular meaning of a word could be used more frequently than others

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31
Q

biased dominance

A

when words have two or more meanings with different dominance

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32
Q

balanced dominance

A

when words have two or more meanings with about the same dominance

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33
Q

semantics

A

meanings of words and sentences

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34
Q

syntax

A

rules for combining words into sentences

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35
Q

factors that influence the way people access the meaning of words

A

meaning frequency, context

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36
Q

prescriptive rules

A

rules describing how something is “supposed to be” in the language

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37
Q

descriptive rules

A

rules describing the language as it is ordinarily used by fluent speakers and listeners

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38
Q

parsing

A

mental grouping of words in a sentence into phrases; central process for determining the meaning of a sentence

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39
Q

garden path sentences

A

sentences that begin by appearing to mean one thing, but then end up meaning something else

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40
Q

temporary ambiguity

A

when the initial words are ambiguous, but the meaning is made clear by the end of the sentence

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41
Q

syntax-first approach to parsing

A
  • as people read a sentence, their grouping of words into phrases is governed by a number of rules that are based on syntax
  • if readers realize there is something wrong with their parsing, then they take other information into account in order to reinterpret the sentence
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42
Q

interactionist approach to parsing

A

semantics and syntax both influence processing as one reads a sentence (ex. how “the spy saw the man with the binoculars” is interpreted)

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43
Q

people tend to do this regarding parsing…

A
  • seek the simplest interpretation in parsing sentences
  • assume that sentences will be in an active voice rather than passive voice
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44
Q

interpretations are influenced by…

A

context, experience, function words, morphemes signaling syntactic roles, background knowledge

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45
Q

N400 wave

A

peculiarity produced in the N400 brain wave when someone hears a semantic anomaly or perfectly sensible but false sentence

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46
Q

extralinguistic context

A

the physical and social setting in which we encounter sentences

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47
Q

prosody

A

the patterns of pauses and pitch changes that characterize speech production; reveals speaker’s mood, directs the listener’s attention to the sentences focus and theme, highlights the sentences intended meaning

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48
Q

language users rely on a set of principles when processing linguistic inputs

A

syntax, semantics, prosody

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49
Q

pragmatic rules

A

rules that govern how people actually use a language; maxim of relation and maxim of quantity

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50
Q

maxim of relation

A

says the speaker should say things that are relevant in conversation

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51
Q

maxim of quantity

A

says the speaker shouldn’t be more informative than is necessary

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52
Q

common ground

A

beliefs shared by the conversational partners

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53
Q

early stages of a conversation often serve to establish…

A

common ground

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54
Q

conversations

A

two or more people talking together; dynamic and rapid; involves shared knowledge; need to take into account what the other person is saying

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55
Q

given-new contract

A

speaker constructs sentences; they include given information, new information

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56
Q

syntactic coordination

A

using similar grammatical constructions in conversation

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57
Q

syntactic priming

A

production of a specific grammatical construction by one person increases chances other person will use that construction

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58
Q

speakers are sensitive to…

A

the linguistic behavior or other speakers and adjust their behavior to match

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59
Q

fluent language use in humans

A

enabled via innate neural machinery that is specialized for language learning and use

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60
Q

Broca’s aphasia

A

characterized by slow, laborious, nonfluent speech; better language comprehension than production; difficulty with function words; better with content words; produced by lesions in and around Broca’s area

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61
Q

agrammatism

A

difficulty in using grammatical constructions and comprehending them; produced by lesions in and around Broca’s area

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62
Q

anomia

A

word-finding difficulty; produced by lesions in and around Broca’s area

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63
Q

Wernicke’s aphasia

A

production of meaningless speech

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64
Q

by 3 to 4 years

A

most children can reasonably converse

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65
Q

overregularization errors

A

an error in which a person perceives or remembers a word/event as being closer to the “norm” than it really is

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66
Q

language learning

A

depends on one’s environment; children are sensitive to patterns and regularities; children derive broad principles form the language to which they are exposed

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67
Q

animal language

A

many species have sophisticated communication systems, but no naturally occurring animal communication system comes close to human language in richness or complexity

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68
Q

vervet monkey language

A

give alarm calls when they spot a nearby predator; distinct alarm calls for different types of predators

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69
Q

language learning may depend on both a human genome and a human environment

A

approximately 30 wild children have been discovered; none have been able to use language normally

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70
Q

linguistic relativity

A

the hypothesis that people who speak different languages think differently as a result; claims that the categories recognized by your language become the categories used in your thoughts

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71
Q

cultural differences in color perception

A

Berinmo people have only five words for describing colors; people who speak languages with a richer color vocabulary are able to make finer and more sharply defined distinctions among various hues

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72
Q

cultural differences in spatial terminology

A

absolute directions vs. relative directions; language differences can lead to corresponding differences in how people remember, and perhaps, how they perceive position

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73
Q

cultural differences in descriptions of events

A

active voice vs. passive voice; speakers of languages that do not mention the agent for an accidental event are less likely to remember the person who triggered the accident

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74
Q

another hypothesis

A

our language guides what we pay attention to, and what we pat attention to shapes our thinking

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75
Q

children raised in bilingual homes…

A

learn both languages as quickly as monolingual children learn one language; tendency to have a temporarily smaller vocabulary than monolingual children at an early age

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76
Q

bilingual patients with lesions

A

could show aphasia symptoms in one language and not another or specific deficits in one language and writing in another

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77
Q

decisions

A

the process of making choices between alternatives

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78
Q

judgement and reasoning

A

processes through which people draw conclusions from the evidence they encounter

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79
Q

inductive reasoning

A

reasoning based on observations; reaching conclusions from evidence

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80
Q

strength of argument of inductive reasoning

A

representativeness of observations, number of observations, quality of observations

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81
Q

inductive reasoning uses

A

make scientific discoveries; used in everyday life; some types of inductive reasoning happen automatically

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82
Q

frequency estimate

A

assessment of how often various events have occurred in the past

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83
Q

attribute substitution

A

strategy of relying on easily assessed information as a proxy for needed information; how easily and how quickly you can come up with relevant examples; thinking the more examples that come to mind, the more common something is

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84
Q

heuristics

A

shortcuts to help people reach conclusions rapidly based on past experience

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85
Q

two types of heuristics

A

availability and representativeness heuristics

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86
Q

availability heuristic

A

events more easily remembered are judged as being more probable than those less easily remembered

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87
Q

problem with availability heuristic

A

factors could make events stand out in memory and make you believe it is more probable than it actually is (e.g., distinctiveness, emotional salience, frequency of encoding/retrieval)

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88
Q

representativeness heuristic

A

people often make judgements based on how much one event resembles another event; assumption that resemblance to the prototype reflects probability

89
Q

assumption of homogeneity

A

an expectation that each individual is representative of the category overall

90
Q

conjunction rule

A

probability of two events cannot be higher than the probability of the single consituents

91
Q

representativeness heuristic example

A

randomly pick one male from the population of the US; that male, Robert, wears glasses, speaks quietly, and reads a lot; more likely that people will believe Robert is a librarian over a farmer because his description is closer to the prototype associated with librarians

92
Q

conjunction rule example

A

Linda is 31, single, outspoken, and very bright; she majored in philosophy; as a student, she was deeply concerned with issues of discrimination and social justice, and also participants in antinuclear demonstrations; more likely that Linda is a bank teller than her being a bank teller and active in the feminist movement

93
Q

gambler’s fallacy

A

ex. if a coin is tossed and the result is heads six times in a row, people will think the seventh coin toss is more likely to be tails even thought the odds of each individual toss are always 50-50

94
Q

law of large numbers

A

the larger the number of individuals randomly drawn from a population, the more representative the resulting group will be of the entire population

95
Q

covariation

A

X and Y “covary” if the presence (or magnitude) of X can be predicted by the presence (or magnitude) of Y and vice versa (ex. years of education and annual salary)

96
Q

illusory correlations

A

correlation appears to exist, but either does not exist or is much weaker than assumed

97
Q

stereotypes

A

oversimplified generalizations about a group or class of people that often focuses on the negative; may lead people to pay particular attention to behaviors associated with the stereotype, thus creating an illusory correlation that reinforces the stereotype

98
Q

range of availability effects

A

people regularly overestimate the frequency of rare events; rare events are likely to be well-recorded in memory and thus more available than common events

99
Q

base-rate information

A

information about how frequently something generally occurs

100
Q

rule subjects tend to follow

A
  • use base rate information if that is all that is available
  • use diagnostic information if available and disregard base rate information
101
Q

dual-process model

A

proposal that people have two distinct ways of thinking about evidence that they encounter: type 1 and type 2

102
Q

type 1

A

fast and automatic thinking; reliance on heuristics; used under time pressure or being distracted

103
Q

type 2

A

slower, effortful thinking; used only if it is triggered by certain cues and only if the circumstances are right

104
Q

use of type 1 or type 2 thinking usually depends on…

A

the context of the decision

105
Q

trigger for skilled intuition in type 1 thinking

A

emphasizing the role of random chance cues more accurate type 1 judgements

106
Q

education can influence the likelihood of reasoning with this type of thinking

A

Type 2

107
Q

the cognitive reflection test

A

measures individuals’ ability to suppress an intuitive and spontaneous wrong answer in favor of a reflective and deliberative right answer; consists of three questions and there is an obvious but incorrect answer for each one that subjects have to resist; people who score high tend to have better scientific reasoning

108
Q

induction

A

process through which you forecast about new cases based on observed cases

109
Q

deduction

A

process through which you start with “givens” and ask what follows from these premises

110
Q

confirmation bias

A

tendency to be more alert to evidence that confirms one’s beliefs than to evidence that challenges them

111
Q

classic case of myside bias

A

had participants in favor and against capital punishment; both groups read the same article; those in favor found the article in favor while those against found the article to be against

112
Q

myside bias

A

tendency of people to generate and evaluate evidence and test their hypotheses in a way that is biased toward their own opinions and attitudes; focus on information that agrees with beliefs and disregard the rest

113
Q

belief perseverance

A

a tendency to continue endorsing a belief even when disconfirming evidence is undeniable

114
Q

confirmation bias represents…

A

a failure of logic

115
Q

deductive reasoning

A

determining whether a conclusion logically follows from premises

116
Q

syllogism

A

basic form of deductive reasoning; two statements called premises, third statement called conclusion

117
Q

categorical syllogism

A

describe relation between two categories using all, no, or some

118
Q

when a syllogism is valid

A

if the conclusion follows logically from its two premises

119
Q

if two premises of a valid syllogism are true…

A

the conclusion must be true

120
Q

conditional syllogism

A

have two premises and a conclusion with the first premise being in the form of “if, then”

121
Q

mental model approach

A

a specific situation represented in a person’s mind that can be used to help determine the validity of syllogisms in deductive reasoning; create a model of a situation, generate tentative conclusions about model, look for exceptions to falsify model, determine validity of syllogism, conclusion is valid only if it cannot be refuted by any model of the premises

122
Q

falsification principle

A

to test a rule, you must look for situations that falsify the rule

123
Q

permission schema

A

if A is satisfied, B can be carried out

124
Q

Wason four-card problem

A

determine minimum number of cards to turn over to test conditional-reasoning in the real world; if there is a vowel on one side, then there is an even number on the other side

125
Q

decision making

A

making judgements that involve choices between different courses of action

126
Q

utility

A

outcomes that are desirable because they are in the person’s best interest

127
Q

expected utility theory

A

if people have all relevant information, they will make a decision that results in the maximum expected utility; principle of utility maximization –> choosing the option with the greatest expected value

128
Q

problem with expected utility theory

A

decisions are often guided by factors that have little to do with utility maximization; people find value in other things besides money; many decisions do not maximize the probability of the best outcome

129
Q

decisions depend on how…

A

choices are presented

130
Q

status quo bias

A

tendency to do nothing when faced with making a decision

131
Q

opt-in vs. opt-out decisions

A
  • opt-in: fewer people choose to opt-in to a program
  • opt-out: more people choose not to opt-out and stay in the program
132
Q

endowment effect

A

the tendency to put a higher value on your current status and possessions simply because they are currently your own

133
Q

framing effect

A

decisions are influenced by how a decision is stated

134
Q

endowment effect in mug experiment

A

one group given a coffee mug and the opportunity to sell it; another group given cash and the opportunity to buy a coffee mug; first group set a value on the mug that was twice as high as the value set by the second group because the simple fact of already possessing the mug doubled its value to them

135
Q

when situations are framed in terms of gain…

A

people tend toward a risk-aversion strategy

136
Q

when situations are framed in terms of losses…

A

people tend toward a risk-taking strategy

137
Q

reason-based choice

A

goal is simply to make a decision that we feel good about because we feel they are reasonable and justified

138
Q

emotions and decisions

A

people want to avoid the negative feeling of being a loser (by making the “wrong” decision”)

139
Q

decisions are powerfully influenced by…

A

emotion

140
Q

somatic markers

A

body states

141
Q

somatic markers and decisions

A

may be a way of evaluating options

142
Q

“gut feeling” and decisions

A

may favor options that trigger positive feelings

143
Q

somatic markers experiment

A

participants had to choose cards from one of two decks; better to choose from the second deck in the long run; healthy control participants quickly learned about the decks and were soon making most of their choices from the advantageous deck; participants with damage to the orbitofrontal cortex continued to favor the risky deck because they were unable to use the somatic markers normally associated with risk

144
Q

anxious people and decision making

A

tend to avoid making decisions that could potentially lead to large negative consequences; risk avoidance

145
Q

optimistic people and decision making

A

more likely to ignore negative information and focus on positive information

146
Q

expected emotions

A

emotions that people predict that they will feel concerning an outcome; one of the determinants of risk aversion

147
Q

people inaccurately predict their emotions

A
  • consistently overestimate how long these feelings will last
  • underestimating their ability to adjust to change
  • avoid things that they’d soon get used to anyhow and spend money for things that provide only short-term pleasure
  • do not consider coping mechanisms that get activated
148
Q

incidental emotions

A

emotions that are not specifically related to decision making

149
Q

problem

A

an obstacle between a present state and a goal; solution not immediately obvious

150
Q

problem solving

A

a process by which one determines the steps needed to reach a goal

151
Q

problem space

A

the set of all states that can be reached in solving the problem

152
Q

tower of hanoi

A

initial state and goal state given; rules specify which moves are allowed and which are not

153
Q

hill-climbing strategy

A

at each step in solving a problem, choose the option that moves you in the direction of your goal

154
Q

limited use

A

many problems require briefly moving away from the goal

155
Q

means-end analysis

A

compare the current state and the goal state and ask, “What means do I have to make these more alike?”

156
Q

people tend to abandon strategies when…

A

they think they are moving away from their goal

157
Q

pictures/diagrams and problem solving

A

often helpful to translate a problem into concrete terms, relying on a mental image or a picture

158
Q

how a problem is state can affect…

A

its difficulty

159
Q

analogical transfer

A

the transfer from one problem to another; using experience with past problems that have similarities with the present problem to solve it

160
Q

surface features

A

specific elements of a given problem

161
Q

high surface similarities and making structural features more obvious aid…

A

analogical problem solving

162
Q

structural features

A

the underlying principle(s) that govern the solution to a problem

163
Q

analogical encoding

A

the process by which two problems are compared and similarities between them are determined; effective way to get people to pay attention to structural features that aid problem solving

164
Q

experts and problem solving

A

solve problems in their field faster and with a higher success rate than beginners; less likely to be open to new ways of looking at problems; may be a disadvantage when confronting a problem that requires flexible thinking

165
Q

experts and defining the problem

A

focus on the underlying structures, break it down into meaningful parts, more likely to realize what other problems are analogous to the current problem; more likely to benefit from analogies

166
Q

ill-defined problem

A

the goal state and the available operators for reaching the goal are not clearly specified

167
Q

ill-defined problems solved best by

A

creating well-defined subgoals and adding extra constraints or assumptions

168
Q

functional fixedness

A

the tendency to be rigid in thinking about an object’s function

169
Q

problem-solving set

A

collection of beliefs and assumptions a person makes about a problem; could result in rigidity

170
Q

einstellung

A

problem solver’s beliefs, habits, and preferred strategies

171
Q

early steps and rigidity

A

people start working on a problem and, because of their early steps, get locked into a particular line of thinking

172
Q

problem-solving sets can…

A

narrow your options for approaching the problem

173
Q

divergent thinking

A

open-ended, large number of potential solutions; an ability to move one’s thoughts in novel, unanticipated directions

174
Q

highly creative people have shared “prerequisites” for creativity

A

great knowledge and skill in the domain; certain personality traits; motivated by the pleasure of the work and not external rewards

175
Q

Wallas’s argument of creative thought’s four stages

A

preparation, incubation, illumination, verification

176
Q

preparation

A

information gathering

177
Q

incubation

A

conscious break; unconscious work on the problem that leads to considerable progress

178
Q

illumination

A

insight emerges; “Aha!” moment

179
Q

verification

A

confirmation that the new idea leads to a solution

180
Q

many creative discoveries…

A

do not include Wallas’s steps or happen in a back-and-forth sequence

181
Q

studies of the incubation effect

A

many find no effect for time away from a problem; some argue a benefit from incubation is more likely if the circumstances allow your thoughts to “wander”

182
Q

“mind wandering”

A

spreading activation could be the process involved

183
Q

convergent thinking

A

an ability to spot ways in which seemingly distinct ideas might be interconnected

184
Q

creative people

A

differ in how or how well they search through memory; seem to have an advantage in divergent thinking

185
Q

forward flow

A

how much one’s current thinking breaks away from past thoughts

186
Q

blind-sight patients

A

cannot see but can nevertheless sometimes perceive visual targets; demonstrates consciousness is not required for visual perception

187
Q

consciousness

A

a state of awareness of sensations or ideas

188
Q

cognitive unconscious

A

the broad set of mental activities outside of your awareness that make your ordinary interactions with the world possible

189
Q

unconscious reasoning

A

people often do not recall the reasoning behind certain decisions; part of the reason behind memory errors

190
Q

videotape unconscious reasoning study

A

participants viewed a videotaped crime then attempted to pick the perpetrator’s picture out of a lineup; received confirming, disconfirming, or no feedback after selection; feedback altered memory for earlier events; subjects who received confirming feedback now recalled that they’d gotten a better view of the crime; participants not aware of making the adjustment

191
Q

electric shock and unconscious causal reasoning study

A

participants asked to undergo a series of electric shocks, with each shock slightly more severe than the one before; placebo participants given a placebo pill to “diminish the pain” with side effects and a control group; participants in placebo group withstood four times the shock amperage that participants in the control group withstood; placebo participants unconsciously attributed physical symptoms of the shock to “side effects”

192
Q

after-the-fact reconstructions

A

introspective explanations for our thoughts and behaviors are often after-the-fact; people tend to hypothesize why they did or thought something; often based on generic knowledge

193
Q

in some settings, you are aware of your own thoughts

A

often make well-articulated “inner dialogues” with ourselves; still influenced by the cognitive unconscious

194
Q

language understanding and unconscious processes

A

can choose one interpretation of a phrase or word so rapidly that you’re generally unaware that another interpretation is even possible

195
Q

blind sight experiment

A

two conditions: hold the card at an angle that matches the orientation of the slot in front of them; imagine “mailing” the care, placing it into a “mail slot”; patient made lots of mistakes with the first condition but performed the second perfectly

196
Q

subliminal perception

A

people can be influenced by visual inputs that they did not consciously perceive

197
Q

evidence for subliminal perception

A

studies of the N400 brain wave; participants were unconsciously primed with items consistent or inconsistent with expectations associated with consciously presented items; larger N400 waves followed unconscious but unexpected items

198
Q

huge range of activities that can be done without awareness

A

see, remember, interpret, infer

199
Q

unconscious processing is out of your control

A

governed by habit or by setting; not by current plans or desires

200
Q

action slips

A

cases in which you do something differently than you intended due to the unconscious; when trying to do something different, you often end up doing what is normal or habitual

201
Q

how unconscious processes run without supervision

A
  • biology: built into the nervous system
  • practice: processes become more automated
202
Q

metacognitive skills

A

skills in monitoring and controlling one’s own mental processes

203
Q

metamemory

A

knowledge and beliefs about, awareness of, and control over one’s own memory

204
Q

link between claims about metacognition and claims about executive control

A

in both cases, there’s a need for self-monitoring, self-control, and self-direction and are guided by a sense of goals

205
Q

neural correlations of consciousness/neural signatures of consciousness

A

events in the nervous system that occur at the same time as, and may be the biological basis of, a specific mental event or state

206
Q

two broad categories of sites in the brain used for consciousness

A

1) overall alertness or sensitivity: range from being sleep and dimly aware to fully awake, highly alert, and totally focused; thalamus and reticular activating system
2) content of consciousness: various contents rely on different brain regions

207
Q

consciousness has two separate aspects

A

1) level of arousal or overall alertness
2) clarity or specificity of its content

208
Q

neuronal workspace hypothesis

A

a claim about how the brain makes conscious experience possible; “workspace neurons” link the activity of various specialized brain areas to lead to consciousness; links stimuli into a dynamic, coherent representation

209
Q

the neuronal workspace and executive control

A

workspace provides a plausible neural basis for executive functioning and goal-directed behavior

210
Q

multiple parallels between the functioning of the neuronal workspace and the executive control as well as the capacities of consciousness

A
  • allows comparisons across processing streams –> enabling the executive to ensure there are no conflicts
  • supports sustained neural activity –> enabling the executive to keep its goals and plans in view
  • can amplify certain types of activity –> allowing executive to take control of mental events
211
Q

workspace proposal does not answer this question

A

how subjective experience arises from the physical activity of the brain

212
Q

access consciousness

A

one’s sensitivity and access to certain types of information

213
Q

phenomenal conciousness

A

what it feels like to have a certain exprience

214
Q

qualia

A

one’s subjective experiences that cannot be conveyed as a first-person experience to someone else

215
Q

inverted spectrum problem

A

the possibility that individual may perceive colors differently despite using the same labels and having learned the same associations

216
Q

processing fluency

A

the steps in a cognitive process might sometimes proceed swiftly and with little effort, but at other times more slowly and with more effort; makes a stimulus seem special; often interpreted as familiarity or accuracy of memories

217
Q

consciousness may promote

A

spontaneous and intentional behavior

218
Q

mind-body problem

A

the mind is a different sort of entity from the physical body, yet each can influence the other