Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Ketamine

Effects/Adverse effects/class

A

Dissociative Anesthetic with mild analgesia

Schedule 3 controlled drug

Beneficial Effects

Short term anesthetic procedure

Rapid Onset of action

Adverse Effects

Increase H.R.

Increase B.P.

Produce regurgitation

Mydriasis

Convulsive seizures

No reversal agent

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2
Q

Propofol

A

Not controlled

Non barbituate

Anesthetic Induction

Advantages

Ultra Fast acting onset

wild margin of safety

smooth recovery & rapid recovery

treatment of status epilepticus

Safe on liver & kidney disease

Antiemetic

Appetite stimulant

Adverse Effects

Apnea

Hypoxia

Respiratory depression

no analgesia

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3
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Valium (Diazepam) and Midazolam

Tranquillizer

Anti-convulsant

Controlled Substance - schedule IV

Beneficial Effects

Anticonvulsant

Skeletal muscle relaxation

Adverse Effects

Not effective analgesic

Not effective sedative

possible vomitting

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4
Q

Dexdomitor

A

Alpha2-Agonist

Produces sedative & analgesia

Not controlled

Reversal: Antisedan

Beneficial Effects

Muscle relaxation

fewer adverse effects than xylazine

Adverse Effects

bradycardia

hyperthermia

Hypotension

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5
Q

Butophanol

A

Synthetic Opioids

Agonist - Antagonist

Sedative with analgesia

Controlled substance - Schedule IV

Benefical effects

Mild-moderate viseral pain

ceiling effect

Adverse effecits

decrease respiratory rate

dcrease tidal volume

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6
Q

Acepromazine

A

Phenothiazines

Pre-anesthetic sedative w/o analgesic

not controlled substance

Beneficial Effects

Antiemetic

Calming

Prevents Arrhytrmias

decreases allergic effect

Adverse Effects

Decrease seizure threshold

hyperthermia

vasodilation

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7
Q

Atelectasis

A

Collapsed lung

Prevention: manual ventilation. Bagging

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8
Q

An animal that is in a Sx plane of anesthesia should not respond in any way to any procedure that is being done to it?

T/F

A

False

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9
Q

Why do we check the pulse strength during Sx

A

It is a rough indictator of B.P.

Measures the difference between systolic and diastolic B.P. & vessel diameter

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10
Q

2 ways to check for proper ET placement?

A

Palpate trachea

condensation on tube

movement of resevoir bag

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11
Q

2 signs we wait for before extubation?

A

Chewing

Swallowing

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12
Q

Acceptable places for observing MM color besides gums?

A

Vulva

Prepuce

Eye

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13
Q

2 factors contributing to poor thermoregulation

A

Open body cavity

no shiver reflex

vasodilation

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14
Q

Abnormal pulse-oximeter value?

What two things does a pulse oximeter measure

A

Measures O2 Saturation & heart rate

  • Normal: 95%+
  • Abnormal: Less than 95%
  • Hypoxemic: 90-95%
  • Therapy required: 90%
  • Medical emergency: 85% for more than 30 secs.

Types:

Transmission probes (clothes pin) on tongue, pinna, lip

Reflective probes on hollow organ - esophagus or rectum

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15
Q

Normal exhaled CO2 level on capnometer?

A

Measures CO2 in air that is inhaled and exhaled
End Tidal CO2 monitor (ETCO2)
Reflects Arterical CO2 levels

Mainstream: sensor placed b/t endotracheal tube and breathing circcuit

Sidestream: sensor located in computer monitor where air is pulled by a tube that is attached b/t endotracheal tube and breathing circuit

Inspiration: CO2 is 0mm Hg

Expiration: CO2 is 35-45mm Hg

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16
Q

Name 2 functions of an anesthesia machine?

A

Give O2

Deliver anesthesia (Sevoflurane or Isoflurane)

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17
Q

How do we determine the volume of oxygen (L) left in the tank?

A

PSI x 0.3 = liter

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18
Q

Pressure reducing valve reduces oxygen to what pressure before entering anesthetic machine?

A

40 PSI

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19
Q

What does pressure manometer do?

A

Measures gas pressure within breathing circuit

Normal value 20cm H20

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20
Q

During bagging pressure should not exceed how much?

A

do not exceed 20cm of H20

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21
Q

Function of vaporizer?

Know traits of a precision vaporizer (McKelvey)

A

Function: Turns liquid to gas

Trait: Controls the amount of anesthesia delivered

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22
Q

How do we determine proper reservoir bag size?

How full should reservoir bag be at all times?

How do you properly check for leaks ? Bag an animal? Extubate?

A

60ml~90ml / Kg

2/3 full

Close pop off valve, squeeze resevoir bag to 20cm H2O and see if manometer decreases or not

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23
Q

02 Flowmeter

A

Flowrate: 50mL / kg / min

24
Q

What’s difference between asepsis and surgical asepsis?

A

Asepsis is complete absence of microorganisms (impossible to achieve in Sx)

Sx asepsis is the body of techniques designed to maintain an object or area in a condition as free of microorganisms as possible.

25
Q

Why do we use steam under pressure when sterilizing instruments rather than boiling water or free-flowing steam?

A

sporecidal/ kills endospores

26
Q

What’s temp we need to achieve in the autoclave? Pressure?

A

121C or 250F for 20 minutes

Pressure: 15 psi

27
Q

What is the sterile area of scrubbed personnel?

A

Frong, above waist to shoulders

28
Q

What’s the contact time of chlorhexidine?

A

10-15 minutes

29
Q

What’s the contact time of povidone iodine?

A

5-10 minutes

30
Q

What’s cold sterilization and how well does it work?

A

contains Glutaldehyde

31
Q

How should a surgical area be properly sanitized and disinfected and how often?

A

it should be sanitized between each patient

32
Q

Types of disinfectants and antiseptics?

A

Alcohol

Phenol

Chloride

33
Q

• What’s a hemostat used for?

A

to clamp off vessels, tissues

34
Q

What’s the difference between Kelly & Crile hemostats?

A

Kelly has serration only half way of the jaw

Crile has serration all the way of the jaw

35
Q
  • Which is more traumatic, Ferguson angiotribe or Rochester-Carmalt?
  • Which is more traumatic, Doyen intestinal or Halsted mosquito?
A

Ferguson angiotribe

Halsted Mosquito hemostat forcep

36
Q

What is the most important difference between Senn & Weitlaner retractors?

A

Senn is hand-held

Weitlaner is self-retaining

37
Q

What’s the difference between Snook & Covault ovariectomy hooks?

A

snook is spade shape

Covault has a ball like tip

38
Q

Where will the veterinarian make her/his first incision?

A

Spay: caudal to the umbilicus

Neuter: Prepucial incision

39
Q

What does the ovarian pedicle consist of?

A

vein

artery

fat

40
Q

Name the 3 layers in the closure?

A

body wall

sub Q

skin

41
Q

• What is the main reason we do a 3-layer closure?

A

decrease dead space and fluid formation

42
Q

Name 2 types of absorbable sutures?

A

Monacril - under 21 days

PDS - 180 days

Cromica gut

Vicryle - 42 days

43
Q

Name 2 types of nonabsorbable sutures?

A

Nylon

polyester

silk

wire

44
Q

Dehiscence

A

when wound suture breaks open

45
Q

What’s first-intention wound healing?

A

healing via stitches.

46
Q

What’s second-intention wound healing

when would we choose this?

A

Natural healing

when skin cannot be pulled together

47
Q

What are 4 stages of wound healing?

A

Inflammatory (Clot)

Debridement (Clean up)

Repair Stage

Maturation phase

48
Q

Needle point

A

Tapered

Cutting needle

Inverted cutting

49
Q

• What is it called when suture is attached to needle during manufacture?

A

Prepackaged suture material

50
Q

Role of Surgical Assistant

A

Clipping

scrubbing

postioning the patient

draping

setting/handling instruments

51
Q

Lister bandage scissors

Knoles bandage scissors

A
52
Q

wire suture cutting scissors

Littauer suture removal scissors

A
53
Q

Cobalt spay hook

Snook spay hook

A
54
Q

Senn retracter

Weitlaner retracter

A
55
Q

Rochester-Ochsner Forceps

Rochester-Carmalt Forceps

A
56
Q

Doyan Intestinal Forceps

A
57
Q
A