Midterm 2

Question 1

What determines the contractility?

isotonic tension

isometric tension

maximum isometric tension, maximum contraction speed

contraction speed

Answer 1

maximum isometric tension, maximum contraction speed

Question 2

What influences the efficiency of the working fibers in the heart?

parasympathetic stimulation
sympathetic inhibition
direct electrical stimulation
sympathetic stimulation

Answer 2

Sympathetic stimulation

Question 3

How does the cardiac output change during the direct stimulation of the heart?
the C.O. doesn`t change
the C.O. decreases slightly
the C.O. increases significantly
the C.O. decreases significantly

Answer 3

The C.O. doesn’t change

Question 4

How does the cardiac output change if we stimulate the heart through its sympathetic nerve?

the C.O. decreases continuously
the C.O. increases continuously
the C.O. doesn’t change
the C.O. increases slightly

Answer 4

The C.O. increases continuously

Question 5

How does the systole/diastole rate change with direct stimulation of the heart?

systole and diastole decrease
systole increases, diastole decreases
systole doesn’t change, diastole decreases
systole decreases, diastole increases

Answer 5

systole doesn’t change, diastole decreases

Question 6

How does the systole/diastole ratio change if we stimulate the heart through its sympathetic nerve?

it increases
it decreases
it increases the muscle force only
the ratio doesn’t change too much

Answer 6

The ratio doesn’t change too much

Question 7

How can we measure the cardiac output?
on the basis of the Ficks-principle
on the basis of the Van`t Hoff law
on the basis of the Laplace law
on the basis of Henderson- Hasselbalch equation

Answer 7

On the basis of the Ficks-principle

Question 8

What formula can be used to calculate the cardiac output?
C.O.=QtO2x(CaO2- CvO2)
C.O.=QtO2/(CaO2- CvO2)
C.O.=QtO2/(CvO2- CaO2)
C.O.=QtO2/ (CaO2xCvO2)

Answer 8

C.O. = QtO2/(CaO2-CvO2)

Question 9

Can we apply the Stewart-principle for the determination of the cardiac output?
yes, because we measure the volume
yes, when we inject tritiated water
yes, but modified, instead of volume we measure volume flow
no

Answer 9

Yes, but modified, instead of volume we measure volume flow

Question 10

What efficiency does the heart have?
80 %
30-40%
4%
10-20%

Answer 10

10-20%

Question 11

What is the external work of the heart?
The product of systolic volume and the mean arterial pressure
The quotient of pulse pressure and the circulatory mid- pressure
The product of cardiac output and the arterial mid-pressure
the difference of the pressure-work and the kinetic-work

Answer 11

The product of systolic volume and the mean arterial pressure

Question 12

What can we show with the help of the Rushmer-diagram?
the ratio of external and internal work
the ratio of the active and passive component of the external work of the heart
the difference between the external and internal work of the heart
the efficiency of the work of the heart

Answer 12

The ratio of the active and passive component of the external work

Question 13

What does the passive work of the heart derive from?

from the tension during the isovolumetric contraction
from the isovolumetric relaxation
from the energy stored in the elastic components
from the tension of the aortic wall

Answer 13

From the energy stored in the elastic components

Question 14

How do the pressure and volume of the left ventricle change during the fast ejection phase of systole?

the pressure does not change, the volume decreases significantly
the pressure drops, the volume decreases
the pressure increases, the volume does not change
the pressure increases, the volume decreases

Answer 14

The pressure increases, the volume decreases

Question 15

How does the efficiency of the heart change with increasing ventricular volume?

It decreases
It increases
It does not change
It decreases, since the oxygen consumption is less

Answer 15

It decreases

Question 16

What happens when we stimulate the heart muscle to the threshold potential?
Cl and Ca influx
K outflow, Na inflow
Na influx
Ca and Na influx

Answer 16

Na influx

Question 17

What happens at a potential of +25 mV?
Na inflow stops, K inflow, Cl outflow
Ca inflow, Na outflow
Na inflow continues, K outflow stops
Na inflow stops; Cl inflow begins

Answer 17

Na inflow stops: Cl inflow begins

Question 18

What influx happens during the plateau-phase of the heart muscle's AP?
slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow
quick Ca inflow, slow K outflow
slow Ca outflow, quick K inflow
quick Na inflow, slow Ca inflow

Answer 18

Slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow

Question 19

What is going on in the phase leading to the total repolarization of the heart muscle?
slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow
rapid K outflow, Ca inflow stops
Ca inflow, slow K outflow
Na inflow, slow Ca inflow

Answer 19

rapid K outflow, Ca inflow stops

Question 20

How does the potassium conductance change during phase 3 of the AP of the working fibers of the heart?
it decreases
it does not change
it increases
its change is parallel to the sodium conductance

Answer 20

It increases

Question 21

Which ion flux causes the plateau phase in the AP of the heart muscle?
potassium
chloride
sodium
mainly calcium

Answer 21

Mainly calcium

Question 22

How does the sodium conductance change in phase 1 of the AP of the working fibers of the heart?
it ceases suddenly
it increases
it decreases continuously
it does not change

Answer 22

It ceases suddenly

Question 23

What is the most important difference between the action potential of the heart muscle and that of the skeletal muscle?

the AP of the heart muscle is shorter
the AP of the skeletal muscle has no plateau phase
the contraction of the heart muscle starts after the AP
the AP of the skeletal muscle overlaps its mechanogram

Answer 23

The AP of the skeletal muscle has no plateau phase

Question 24

What answer is produced when the stimulus is given during the absolute refractory phase?
a new AP is generated
a new AP is produced when the stimulus is strong enough
no AP can be produced
AP is generated about 300 msecs later

Answer 24

No AP can be produced

Question 25

Which statement is correct for the relative refractory period?
Only a slight stimulus may elicit a new AP
no stimulus can elicit an AP
a normal stimulus causes an AP
only a very strong stimulus can elicit an AP

Answer 25

Only a very strong stimulus can elicit an AP

Question 26

Which statement is correct for the supernormal phase?
a very slight stimulus can provoke an AP
only a strong stimulus elicits an AP
AP cannot be elicited at all in this phase
only serial stimuli elicit a new AP

Answer 26

A very slight stimulus can provoke an AB

Question 27

In which phase of the AP can a stimulus cause life threatening ventricular fibrillation?
absolute refractory period
supernormal phase
relative refractory period
immediately after the diastole

Answer 27

Supernormal phase

Question 28

What is the center of the nomotopic stimulus formation?
septum
Purkinje fibers
sinoatrial node
bundle of His

Answer 28

Sinoatrial node

Question 29

Which formation generates the pacemaker activity in the heart?
large round cells of the SA node
elongated cells of the sinoauricular node
sympathetic fibers
parasympathetic fibers

Answer 29

Large round cells of the SA node

Question 30

Which formation synchronizes and delays the pacemaker signal?
large round cells of the SA node
elongated cells of the SA node
pacemaker cells of the SA node
working muscle fibers

Answer 30

Elongated cells of the SA node

Question 31

The depolarisation of the pacemaker cells begins at what potential?
-90 mV
-35 mV
-55 mV
\+35 mV

Answer 31

-55 mV

Question 32

What kind of ion channels function in the period of spontaneous diastolic depolarisation?
Ih channels, slow Na- channels
slow Na-channels
fast Na-channels
Ih channels, T and L-type channels

Answer 32

LH channels, T and L type channels

Question 33

Which channels determine the 0 phase of the action potential of the pacemaker cells?
fast Na-channels
slow Na-channels
Ih channels
T and L-type Ca- channels

Answer 33

Fast Na-channels

Question 34

What are the characteristics of the subendocardial conduction?
the specialized fibre system projects deep into the ventricular muscle
The specialized fibre system does not project deep into the ventricular muscle
it occurs in large animals
elongates the heart cycle

Answer 34

The specialized fibre system does not project deep into the ventricular muscle

Question 35

What are the characteristics of the epicardial conduction?
it occurs in small animals
the specialized fibre system is on the surface of the ventricle
the specialized fibre system projects deep into the muscles of the ventricle
elongates the heart cycle

Answer 35

the specialized fibre system projects deep into the muscles of the ventricle

Question 36

What is the function of the sinoatrial node?
ventricular activation
synchronizes atrial and ventricular contraction
delays the conduction time
nomotopic excitation

Answer 36

nomotopic excitation

Question 37

What is the function of the atrioventricular node?
delays the excitation
synchronizing the contraction of the two ventricles
nomotopic excitation
fast ventricular activation

Answer 37

delays the excitation

Question 38

What is the function of the annulus fibrosus?
ventricular activation
synchronization
nomotopic stimulus generation
heterotopic stimulus generation

Answer 38

Synchronization

Question 39

What is the function of the His-bundle?

delays the conduction of the stimulus
nomotopic stimulus generation
fast ventricular activation
synchronization atrial and ventricular activity

Answer 39

Fast ventricular activation

Question 40

Where is the conduction the slowest in the heart?

in the ventricle
in the His-bundle and the Tawara-stalk
in the SA node
in the AV node

Answer 40

In the AV node

Question 41

Where is the conductance the fastest in the heart?

in the His and Tawara bundles
in the working muscle fibres
in the ventricles
in the atriovenrticular node

Answer 41

In the His and Tawara bundles

Question 42

How does sympathetic stimulation affect the frequency of the heart?

it decreases the frequency
it increases the frequency
there is no change
first it increases, later it decreases

Answer 42

It increases its frequency

Question 43

How does parasympathetic stimulation affect the frequency of the heart?

it increases the frequency
there is no change
it decreases the frequency
first it increases, later it decreases

Answer 43

It decreases the frequency

Question 44

What mediates the sympathetic effect in the heart?

cAMP concentration decreases
inhibiting of the beta-1 receptor
stimulating the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
stimulating the beta-1 receptor

Answer 44

Stimulating the beta-1 receptor

Question 45

How does the AP of the heart change during sympathetic stimulation?
the steepness of the SDD increases
the MDP lowers
the steepness of the SDD decreases
the MDP does not change

Answer 45

The steepness of the SDD increases

Question 46

How does the parasympathetic effect act in the heart?

via beta-1 receptor stimulation
via acetylcholine receptor stimulation
by inhibiting the beta-1 receptors
increasing the cAMP concentration

Answer 46

Via acetylcholine receptor stimulation

Question 47

What nerval effect determines the heart function at rest?

sympathetic inhibition
sympathetic stimulation
parasympathetic stimulation
parasympathetic inhibition

Answer 47

Parasympathetic inhibition

Question 48

What neural effects act on the heart in case of increased physical activity?

increased sympathetic stimulation, reduced parasympathetic activity

increased parasympathetic activity

reduced sympathetic activity

increased vagal stimulation

Answer 48

Increased sympathetic stimulation, reduced parasympathetic activity

Question 49

What is the bathmotrop effect?

an effect influencing frequency
an effect influencing threshold
an effect influencing force generation
an effect influencing contractility

Answer 49

An effect influencing treshold

Question 50

What is the dromotrop effect?

an effect influencing frequency
an effect influencing threshold
an effect influencing conductance
an effect influencing SDD

Answer 50

An effect influencing conductance

Question 51

What is the inotrop effect?
an effect influencing frequency
an effect influencing threshold
an effect influencing force generation
an effect influencing SDD

Answer 51

An effect influencing force generation

Question 52

What is the chronotrop effect?
an effect influencing frequency
an effect influencing force generation
an effect influencing conductance
an effect influencing threshold

Answer 52

An effect influencing frequency

Question 53

How does the parasympathetic nervous system alter the activity of the heart?

negative inotrop, chronotrop, positive dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

negative inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

positive inotrop, chronotrop, negative dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

Answer 53

Negative inotrop, chonotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

Question 54

How does sympathetic nervous system alter the activity of the heart?

negative inotrop, chronotrop, positive dromotrop, bathmotrop effect.

negative inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

positive inotrop, chronotrop, negative dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

Answer 54

Positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect

Question 55

What is characteristic of the electro-mechanical coupling in the heart muscle?

its main element is the voltage sensitive channel on the membrane of the SR

the process is started by the opening of the Na-dependent Ca channel

its basis is the increase of the IC potassium level

the stimulation of the DHP sensitive proteins

Answer 55

The stimulation of the DHP sensitive proteins

Question 56

What directly starts the cross bridge cycling in the heart muscle?

the calcium signal
conformation change of the voltage dependent DHP receptor and T-tubulus
opening of DHP-type Ca channels on the SP membrane
pumping of the calcium into the SR

Answer 56

The calcium signal

Question 57

What mechanisms make calcium flow out of the IC?

ATP dependent calcium pump towards the EC, Na/Ca antiporter towards SR

ATP dependent calcium pump towards the SR, Na/ Ca antiporter towards EC

Na/Ca antiporter towards EC and SR

ATP dependent Ca pump towards the SR and EC

Answer 57

ATP dependent calcium pump towards the SR, Na/Ca antiporter towards EC

Question 58

Which of the following statements is false?

regarding its function, the heart can be considered as an electric dipole

a dipole can be described by a vector

depolarization vector points from the positive to the negative direction

an electrical signal has direction, measure and polarity

Answer 58

Depolarization vector points from the positive to the negative direction

Question 59

Who constructed the first ECG equipment?
A. L. Lavoisier.
G. R. Kirchhoff.
C. Bernard.
W. Einthoven.

Answer 59

W. Einthoven

Question 60

Which of the following statements is true?

the sum of the voltage differences measured between the vertices of the equilateral triangle around the dipole is always zero.

the sum of voltage differences measured between the vertices of the triangle around the dipole equals unity

the Einthoven’s lead is a unipolar lead

the depolarization wave causes an upward defelction on the ECG

Answer 60

The sum of the voltage differences measured between the vertices of the equilateral triangle around the dipole is always zero

Question 61

What is the principle of the bipolar lead?

potential difference between two electrodes is compared to a third reference point

potential difference between two electrodes placed on the surface of a dipol is measured

potential difference between two electrodes is compared to a third neutral point

potential difference between two electrodes is compared to standard voltage value

Answer 61

Potential difference between two electrodes placed on the surface of a dipole is measured

Question 62

What can be seen in the oscilloscope during full depolarization?

an upwards deflection

a downwards deflection

an isoelectric line - no deflection

an irregular line

Answer 62

An isoelectric line - no deflection

Question 63

What is the Einthoven’s first lead?

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

Answer 63

Reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

Question 64

What is the Einthoven’s second lead?

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

Answer 64

Reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

Question 65

What is the Einthoven’s third lead?

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg

reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm

Answer 65

Reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg

Question 66

Why is the integral vector of the heart not zero?

the measurement points do not form an exact triangle

the stimulus passing between the atrium and the ventricle is slowing down

the heart is asymmetric it has altering width of wall and the SA node is not in the middle

speed of conduction is different in all directions

Answer 66

The heart is asymmetric it has altering width of wall and the SA node is not in the middle

Question 67

With which state of the atrial activity does the ventricular depolarization coincide?

depolarization
activated state
repose state
repolarization

Answer 67

Repolarization

Question 68

What does the T- wave describe on the ECG?

atrial depolarization
SA node depolarization
ventricular repolarization
atrial repolarization

Answer 68

Ventricular repolarization

Question 69

What does the PQ segment describe on the ECG?

SA node depolarization
atrio-ventricular conduction
ventricular depolarization
atrial repolarization

Answer 69

Atrio-ventricular conduction

Question 70

What does the QRS complex describe on the ECG?

full atrial depolarization
full repolarization
ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization
ventricular repolarization, atrial depolarization

Answer 70

Ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization

Question 71

What makes the Q wave point downwards?

ventricular depolarization spreads to the vertex of the heart
repolarization of the right ventricle
atrial repolarization
ventricular depolarization spreads toward the base of the heart

Answer 71

Ventricular depolarization spreads toward the base of the heart

Question 72

What does the S-T segment describe?

full ventricular depolarization
ventricle is fully repolarized
atrium is depolarized, ventricle is repolarized
full repolarization of the atria

Answer 72

Full ventricular depolarization

Question 73

What does the T wave represent?

atrial repolarization
ventricular repolarization
atrial depolarization
ventricular depolarization

Answer 73

Ventricular repolarization

Question 74

What does the T-P segment represent?

complete atrial depolarization
the beginning of ventricular repolarization
complete repolarization, state of rest
complete ventricular depolarization

Answer 74

Complete repolarization, state of rest

Question 75

What is the essence of the unipolar lead?

to measure the voltage fluctuation between a point of the chest and a limb

to connect electrodes placed on the chest, and registers the integrated voltage fluctuations

to measure the voltage of a single conduction point only

to measure the voltage fluctuation between the examining electrode and a place of 0 potential

Answer 75

To measure the voltage fluctuation between the examining electrode and a place of 0 potential

Question 76

Which type of ECG gives precise information about the heart’s anatomical position?

vector cardiography
esophageal ECG
His-Bundle ECG
unipolar ECG

Answer 76

Vector cardiography

Question 77

What causes heartsound I?

Closure of semilunar valves
Closure of cuspidal valves
Sound of sudden ventricular filling
Turbulent flow following atrial systole

Answer 77

Closure of cuspidal valves

Question 78

What causes heartsound II?
Closure of cuspidal valves
Sound of sudden ventricular filling
Closure of semilunar valves
Turbulent flow following atrial systole

Answer 78

Closure of semilunar valves

Question 79

Which wave cannot be registered on v. jugularis during the heart-cycle?
Wave V
Wave C
Wave A
Wave P

Answer 79

Wave P

Question 80

How long is a complete heart- cycle in dogs?
800 msec
270 msec
530 msec
220 msec

Answer 80

800 msec

Question 81

What percent of the ventricular volume gets to the periphery during the fast ejection phase of ventricular systole?
60 %
80 %
90 %
50 %

Answer 81

80%

Question 82

Of the following elements of the heart-cycle which is the longest in time?

isovolumetric relaxation
isovolumetric relaxation
ventricular systole
atrial systole

Answer 82

Ventricular systole

Question 83

Which is the shortest element of the heart-cycle?
isovolumetric relaxation
atrial systole
fast phase of auxotonic contraction
isovolumetric contraction

Answer 83

Isovolumetric contraction

Question 84

Where is there no valve in the blood flow?
v.cava - right atrium
right atrium - right ventricle
left atrium - left ventricle
left atrium - aorta

Answer 84

Vena cava - right atrium

Question 85

Where you could find tricuspid valves in the heart?
left atrium - left ventricle
right atrium - right ventricle
left ventricle - aorta
right ventricle - a. pulmonalis

Answer 85

Right atrium - right ventricle

Question 86

Where you could find bicuspid valves in the heart?
right atrium - right ventricle
left ventricle - aorta
left atrium - left ventricle
right ventricle - a. pulmonalis

Answer 86

Left atrium - left ventricle

Question 87

What vessel carries venous blood?

a. radialis
a. carotis communis
v. pulmonalis
a. pulmonalis

Answer 87

A. pulmonalis

Question 88

What vessel carries arterial blood?

v. pulmonalis
a. pulmonalis
v. cava cranialis
v. portae

Answer 88

V. pulmonalis

Question 89

How is the mechanical performance of the heart controlled by the nervous system tone?

parasympathethic increases
sympathethic increases
sympathethic decreases
no effect on the mechanical performance

Answer 89

Sympathetic increases

Question 90

How does the nervous system influence the heart basal activity?
sympathethic predominance
parasympathethic inhibition
parasympathethic dominance
no effect on the basal activity

Answer 90

Parasympathetic dominance

Question 91

What is typical for the serial elastic component?
inhibits overextension of muscle
it is linked parallel with the contractile elements
it is stretched in diastole
it is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole

Answer 91

It is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole

Question 92

What is typical for the parallel elastic component?
energy is stored in it due to the tension which is created by the blood flow-in

it is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole

it is linked serial to the contractile elements

inhibits over extension of muscle

Answer 92

Energy is stored in it due to the tension which is created by the blood flow-in

Question 93

What is typical for the collagen-fiber system?

it is linked serial to the contractile elements
inhibits over extension of muscle
it is stretched in diastole and relaxed in systole
it has a fiber-mass value = 1

Answer 93

Inhibits over-extension of muscle

Question 94

What is typical for the isometric phase of the heart activity?

movement at the same tension

SEC and PEC elements are tensed during this phase

there is tension but no movement

contractile elements are not contracting but are tensing

Answer 94

There is tension but no movement

Question 95

What is typical for the isotonic phase of the heart activity?

sudden tension of the collagen fibers

no change in contraction of the contracting components during this phase

there is tension but no movement

there is movement but no change in tension

Answer 95

There is movement but no change in tension

Question 96

What happens at the maximal loading of the heart?

collagen fibers extend and display maximal resistance

collagen fibers relax and reduce their resistance to minimal

tension of contractile elements increase

SEC and PEC components contract maximal

Answer 96

Collagen fibers extend and display maximal resistance

Question 97

What conditions allow isotonic contraction?

muscle can not move the load
muscle can freely move the load
muscle works against a spring
muscle is supported to a certain length

Answer 97

Muscle can freely move the load

Question 98

What condition is needed for isometric contraction?

muscle can freely move the load
muscle works against a spring
muscle can not move the load
muscle is supported to a certain length

Answer 98

Muscle can not move the load

Question 99

What condition is needed for auxotonic contraction?

muscle is supported to a certain length
muscle can not move the load
muscle can freely move the load
muscle works against a spring

Answer 99

Muscle works against a spring

Question 100

What type of muscle contraction can be demonstrated in the preload experiment?

two components: first isometric, then isotonic
two components: first isotonic, then isometric
one component: isometric
one component: isotonic

Answer 100

Two components: first isometric, then isotonic

Question 101

What do we demonstrate in the “afterload” experiment?

two different type of contractions: first isometric, then isotonic
two different type of contractions: first isotonic, then isometric
the isometric contraction
the isotonic contraction

Answer 101

Two different types of contractions: first isotonic, then isometric

Question 102

What physiological situation can we demonstrate with the preload experiment?

heart keeps the balance with the peripheral resistance at the end of the contraction

heart muscle reaches a certain length at the end of the systole, then is starts to constrict

at the end of the diastole heart starts to constrict

at the end of the diastole the heart keeps balance with the peripheral resistance

Answer 102

At the end of the diastole heart starts to constrict

Question 103

What is the difference between the mechanogram of skeletal and heart muscle?

The maximal tension in the heart muscle is at 1.9-2.6 micrometer sarcomere length

The optimal sarcomere length is optimal for actin-myosin bridging at 1.9-2.6 micrometer sarcomere length

Stretching skeletal muscle has significant energy reserves

The heart muscle shows maximal tension at long sarcomeric length (2.5 micrometer)

Answer 103

The heart muscle shows maximal tension at long sarcomeric length (2.5 micrometer)

Question 104

Why is there no maximal tension in the heart muscle at 2 micrometer sarcomere length?

calcium is only sufficient for maximal tension at 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length
calcium binding sites are 100% saturated below 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length
below 2 micrometer not all the possible bridges can be formed
there is not enough calcium due to maximal sarcomere length

Answer 104

Calcium is only sufficient for maximal tension at 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length

Question 105

Which of the below is the sarcomere length of the heart at default function?

2.2 micrometers
1.9 micrometers
2.5 micrometers
between 2-2.5 micrometers

Answer 105

1.9 micrometers

Question 106

What is the reason for the difference between the length- tension diagram of heart and skeletal muscle?

the sarcomere structure is different

there is only a small amount of calcium in the skeletal muscle after stimulation

calcium might enter the IC space in proportion to the extension of the heart muscle

2.5 micrometer sarcomere length is optimal for the heart to work

Answer 106

Calcium might enter the IC space in proportion to the extension of the heart muscle

Question 107

What does the EDV stand for?

stroke volume
cardiac output
volume at the end of systole
volume at the end of diastole

Answer 107

Volume at the end of diastole

Question 108

What does the ESV stands for?

volume at the end of systole
volume at the end of diastole
cardiac output
stroke volume

Answer 108

Volume at the end of systole

Question 109

What does the SV stands for?

volume at the end of diastole
stroke volume
volume at the end of systole
cardiac output

Answer 109

Stroke volume

Question 110

How can the stroke volume be calculated?

End systolic volume - end diastolic volume

(end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x heart frequency

end diastolic volume - end systolic volume

end diastolic volume + end systolic volume

Answer 110

End diastolic volume - end systolic volume

Question 111

Which of the parameters below describes the work of the heart?

end systolic volume
heart frequency
stroke volume
cardiac output

Answer 111

Cardiac output

Question 112

Which equation describes the Cardiac Output?

C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x frequency

C.O. = (end systolic volume - end diastolic volume) x frequency

C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) / frequency

C.O. = (end diastolic volume + end systolic volume) x frequency

Answer 112

C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x frequency

Question 113

Who formulated the "law of the heart"?
C. Bernard
H. Starling
A. L. Lavoisier
W. Einthoven

Answer 113

H. Starling

Question 114

Which are the most important components of the Starling’s preparations?

Intact systemic circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of lung circulation

Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, intact systemic circulation

Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system

Intact lung circulation, intact heard, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system

Answer 114

Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system

Question 115

What happens when you increase the venous return in the Starling’s preparation?

Stroke volume does not change, frequency increases, cardiac output increases

Stroke volume and frequency increase, cardiac output increases

End diastolic volume increases, stroke volume and frequency do not change

End diastolic volume increases immediately, then stroke volume and cardiac output increases, while frequency does not change

Answer 115

End diastolic volume increaes immediately, then stroke volume and cardiac output increases, while frequency does not change

Question 116

What happens when you increase the peripheral resistance in the Starling preparation?

End diastolic volume increases immediately, but stroke volume, frequency, and cardiac output do not change

End diastolic volume increases immediately, stroke volume and frequency do not change, cardiac output increases

Stroke volume does not change, frequency and cardiac output increases

Stroke volume, frequency and cardiac output increases

Answer 116

End diastolic volume increases immediately, but stroke volume, frequency and cardiac output do not change

Question 117

How does the Starling law apply in case of change in posture?

The peripheral resistance changes when the animal stands up, or lies down

Venous return changes when the animal stands up, or lies down

Changing posture the altered frequency provides the immediate capability to adapt

The systolic reserve provides the background of the higher heart performance

Answer 117

Venous return changes when the animal stands up or lies down

Question 118

What is the heterometric autoregulation?

During one cycle the same amount of blood is pumped out from the left and right heart

The different blood volumes entering the left and right side of the heart requires no compensation

Higher amount of blood pumped out from one side of the heart dilates the other side, as well, which makes the heart able to pump more blood

increased venous return decreases the work of the heart

Answer 118

Higher amount of blood pumped out from one side of the heart dilates the other side as well, which makes the heart able to pump more blood

Question 119

What does the Starling “heart law” tell us?

The performance of the heart is equal even in changing conditions

Increased venous return does not alter the performance of the heart

Increased expansion of the heart muscle increases the performance of the heart slightly

Increased expansion of the muscle increases the performance of the heart significantly

Answer 119

Increased expansion of the muscle increases the performance of the heart significantly

Question 120

What does the compliance of the heart depend on?

the inherent abilities of the heart muscle to dilate

the end systolic pressure

only the peripheral blood pressure

the peripheral blood pressure has no effect

Answer 120

The inherent abilities of the heart muscle to dilate

Question 121

What is the correlation between EDV and SV values?

Negative correlation
Positive correlation
Logarithmic correlation
no correlation

Answer 121

Positive correlation

Question 122

Which parameters influence the end diastolic volume?

diastolic filling time, contractility, aortic pressure
ventricular compliance, diastolic filling time, contractility
ventricular compliance, ventricular preload, diastolic filling time
ventricular compliance, aortic pressure, diastolic filling time

Answer 122

Ventricular compliance, ventricular preload, diastolic filling time

Question 123

Which parameters influence the end systolic volume?

Venous blood pressure, duration of the systole, contractility

ventricular compliance, contractility, duration of the systole

contractility, duration of the systole

contractility, aortic pressure

Answer 123

Contractility, aortic pressure

Question 124

How does age affect the compliance?

Decreases with age
Increases with age
Compliance curve is shifted to the right in old age
Ventricular compliance is not altered by age

Answer 124

Decreases with age

Question 125

What is the ratio of adult and young EVDP to reach the same EVD?
1.5 to 1
2 to 1
3 to 1
4 to 1

Answer 125

2 to 1

Question 126

Which formula can be used to derive the peripheral resistance?
Q = delta P / R
Q = C.O. / R
Q=R/C
Q = delta P x R

Answer 126

Q = delta P / R

Question 127

What is the critical closing pressure?

the pressure at which muscles of vessels relax

the pressure at which vessels collapse due to their tone

the pressure at which resistance of vessels decrease

the pressure at which the myogenic tone of vessels increase

Answer 127

The pressure at which vessels collapse due to their tone

Question 128

What does the Laplace-law state?

The pressure is a function of wall tension
The pressure is determined by the radius of the hollow organ
keeping a given pressure inside a spherical container is influenced by the radius
Q = delta P x R

Answer 128

Keeping a given pressure inside a spherical container is influenced by the radius

Question 129

How does the viscosity of the blood change with the increase of the hematocrit value?

the change is determined by the diameter of the red blood cells
it does not change
it decreases
it increases

Answer 129

It increases

Question 130

What is characteristic of laminar flow?

liquid layers slide over each other smoothly

the maximum velocity of the flow occurs close to the wall of the tube

vortex development

the flow is determined by the velocity, density and viscosity of the fluid, and the diameter of the tube

Answer 130

Liquid layers slide over each other smoothly

Question 131

Which of the following is not true for turbulent flow?

it can be described by the Reynold’s number

liquid layers slide over each other smoothly

when the Reynold’s number is over 3000 the flow is turbulent

liquid layers mix due to vortex formation

Answer 131

Liquid layers slide over each other smoothly

Question 132

What is the physiological importance of laminar flow?

while moving in the parietal stream blood cells
decrease their resistance

it stimulates heart work

the slow flow rate alongside the walls of the vessels enables material exchange

due to the faster flow rate alongside the walls of vessels the blood cells do not stick to the wall

Answer 132

The slow flow rate alongside the walls of the vessels enables material exchange

Question 133

What is the function of the arterial section of the circulation?

enhances the capacity of the circulation

acts as a reserve for blood

forms an exchange surface

builds up resistance

Answer 133

Builds up resistance

Question 134

What is the function of the capillary section of the circulation?

enhances the capacity of the circulation

acts as a reserve for blood

forms an exchange surface
builds up resistance

Answer 134

Forms an ion exchange surface

Question 135

Which units belong to the serially attached elements of the circulation?

Arteries, veins
Capillaries of separate organs
Arteries, capillaries, veins
Arteries of separate organs

Answer 135

Arteries, capillaries, veins

Question 136

With which formula can you calculate the total resistance of the serially attached elements of the circulatory bed?

sum of the reciprocal resistance of the elements

the difference of the smallest and largest resistance

resistance of the elements should be multiplied by each other

sum of elementary resistances

Answer 136

Sum of elementary resistances

Question 137

What is the role of the Windkessel function?

it insures a continuous flow of blood

it stabilizes the blood pressure in the aorta

keeps the pressure constant during systole/ diastole in the large arteries

during diastole the aorta can actively pump blood to the periphery

Answer 137

It insures a continuous flow of blood

Question 138

What determines the tone of resistance vessels?

myogenic tone

myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone

myogenic and sympathetic vasodilator tone

sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone

Answer 138

Myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone

Question 139

Where is the highest number of elastic elements?
arterial end of capillary
muscular arteries
aorta
arterioles

Answer 139

Aorta

Question 140

Which blood vessels are the most important resistance segments?
aorta
muscular arteries
capillaries
arterioles

Answer 140

Arterioles

Question 141

In which vessels can resistance be adjusted?
in muscular arteries
in capillaries
in the aorta
in veins

Answer 141

In muscular arteries

Question 142

Where can continuous capillaries be found?

in liver and hemopoietic tissues

in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs

in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands

in renal glomeruli

Answer 142

In muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs

Question 143

Where can fenestrated capillaries be found?

in liver and hemopoietic tissues
in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs
in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands
in renal glomeruli

Answer 143

In the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands

Question 144

Where can porous capillaries be found?

in liver and hemopoietic tissues
in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs
in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands
in renal glomeruli

Answer 144

In renal glomeruli

Question 145

Where can sinusoid capillaries be found?

in liver and hemopoietic tissues

in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs

in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands

in renal glomeruli

Answer 145

In the liver and hemopoietic tissues

Question 146

What characterizes the capillaries of the skin?

lamina basalis serves as a barrier for ions
single-layered, continuous endothelium
ability of contraction
lack of pore-like intracellular channels

Answer 146

Single-layered continuous endothelium

Question 147

What characterizes the capillaries of the intestinal mucosa?

thin endothel layer
free transport of substances
small and large pores
reflection of all proteins

Answer 147

Small and large pores

Question 148

What characterizes the capillaries of the kidney?

small and large pores

lamina densa has a strong positive charge

lamina basalis serves as a barrier for ions

the large round gaps in it enable free transport of substances

Answer 148

The large round gaps in it enable free transport of substances

Question 149

What characterizes the capillaries of the hemopoietic organs?

place of transport is the Disse-space

thin endothel layer

ability of contraction

lamina densa has a strong negative charge

Answer 149

Place of transport is the Disse-space

Question 150

Which type of capillary is the most common in the body?
porous
continuous
fenestrated
sinusoid

Answer 150

Continuous

Question 151

From the following, which is not a venule type?
postcapillary
collecting
elastic
muscular

Answer 151

Elastic

Question 152

What is the peculiarity of veins?

they are not all able to contract actively

veins only with a diameter larger than 5 cm can store significant amount of blood

they have an important role in maintaining blood pressure

they expand without resistance, and then suddenly they resist

Answer 152

They expand without resistance and then suddenly they resist

Question 153

What is true for the parallelly connected sections of the circulation?

the total resistance of the elements is smaller than that of the individual organs

the total resistance is equal to that of the organs

the total resistance is hardly greater than that of the organs

the total resistance is equal to 1/Rt = (1/ R1 + 1/R2 +… 1/Rn) xn

Answer 153

The total resistance of the elements is smaller than that of the individual organs

Question 154

Which units are part of the parallelly connected parts of circulation?

arteries, capillaries and veins
the circulatory bed of the individual organs
arteries, veins
capillaries of different organs

Answer 154

The circulatory bed of the individual organs

Question 155

How does the diameter of the individual vessels change in the different sections?

diameter of vessels decrease to arterioles, then radically increase to capillaries, then continuously grows up to the big veins

the diameter of vessels continuously decrease from the aorta to the capillaries, then it does not change

diameter of vessels radically decrease from the aorta to the capillaries, while from the capillaries to the vena cava the change is in the opposite direction

diameter of arteries and veins is the order of cm, while that of the capillaries is the order of mm

Answer 155

Diameter of vessels radically decrease from the aorta to the capillaries while from the capillaries to the vena cava the change is in the opposite direction

Question 156

How does the total diameter of the vessels change in the different sections?

total diameter of arteries and veins is hardly smaller than that of capillaries

total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the total diameter of large arteries

total diameter of capillaries is 100 times greater than the diameter of the aorta

total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the diameter of the aorta

Answer 156

Total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the diameter of the aorta

Question 157

In which section can the most blood be found?
in veins
in capillaries
in arteries
in arterioles

Answer 157

In veins

Question 158

What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in capacity vessels?
90 %
79 %
11 %
60 %

Answer 158

79%

Question 159

What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in resistance vessels?

2%
79 %
11 %
30 %

Answer 159

11%

Question 160

What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in the heart?
40 %
1%
22 %
10 %

Answer 160

10%

Question 161

What maintains blood pressure?

work of the heart and the resistance of peripheral system

the work of the heart solely

the Windkessel function of the aorta

the myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone of arterioles

Answer 161

Work of the heart and the resistance of peripheral system

Question 162

Which of the following factors is not significant in maintaining blood pressure?

elasticity of vessels
hemoglobin content of the blood
cardiac output
peripheral resistance

Answer 162

Hemoglobin content of the blood

Question 163

What is the value of the systolic blood pressure?
10.7 kPa
6 kPa
16 kPa
12 kPa

Answer 163

16 kPa

Question 164

How much is the value of diastolic blood pressure?
12 kPa
6 kPa
16 kPa
10.7 kPa

Answer 164

10.7 kPa

Question 165

What is pulse- pressure?

difference between diastolic and systolic pressure
simple average of systolic and diastolic pressure
quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure
static pressure on the vessels

Answer 165

Difference between diastolic and systolic pressure

Question 166

What is mid- pressure?
difference between diastolic and systolic pressure
corrected average of systolic and diastolic pressure
quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure
static pressure on the vessels

Answer 166

Corrected average of systolic and diastolic pressure

Question 167

What is ordinary respiratory pressure?

difference between diastolic and systolic pressure

simple average of systolic and diastolic pressure

static pressure on the walls of the vessels

quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure

Answer 167

Static pressure on the walls of the vessels

Question 168

What determines the value of mid- pressure the most?

static pressure of blood
circulating quantity of blood
elasticity of the vessels
cardiac output and the peripherial resistance

Answer 168

Cardiac output and peripheral resistance

Question 169

What determines most the pulse- pressure?

cardiac output and arterial compliance

total quantity of circulating blood

cardiac output

static pressure of blood

Answer 169

Cardiac output and arterial compliance

Question 170

How does the increase of heart rate influence blood pressure?

it decreases blood pressure

it has no effect on blood pressure

it increases blood pressure

it becomes fluctuating

Answer 170

It increases blood pressure

Question 171

How does the increase of peripheral resistance influence peripheral effusion?

it decreases it continuously, then effusion increases after some minutes

it has no effect on peripheral effusion

it increases peripheral effusion

it decreases peripheral effusion, then after some cycles of the heart the original cardiac output is restored

Answer 171

It decreases peripheral effusion, then after some cycles of the heart the original cardiac output is restored

Question 172

How does the increase of arterial blood volume influence blood pressure?

pulse pressure and mid-pressure increase
systolic pressure increases
diastolic pressure increases
static pressure on the vessels increases

Answer 172

Pulse pressure and mid-pressure increase

Question 173

How does expansion of blood- vessels change in the elderly?

in a healthy individual age does not influence the elasticity of the vessels

pulse-pressure increases, compliance decreases

compliance increases

elasticity decreases

Answer 173

Pulse-pressure increases, compliance decreases

Question 174

Where can the highest value of blood pressure be measured?

in the arteries
in the a. pulmonalis
in the left ventricle and in the aorta
in the right ventricle

Answer 174

In the left ventricle and in the aorta

Question 175

Where can the lowest value of blood pressure be measured?

in the right ventricle
venous side of the capillary
in the left atrium
in the right atrium

Answer 175

In the right atrium

Question 176

What causes the notch on the descending side of the arterial pulse wave?

reflection pressure

static pressure

the difference in the pressure between two points of the artery

dimmed effect of systolic pressure

Answer 176

Reflection pressure

Question 177

How much is the velocity of pulse- wave?
40 cm/sec
7 m/sec
0.3 mm/sec
1.2 m/sec

Answer 177

7 m/sec

Question 178

How does the value of pressure-pulse change towards the periphery?

it decreases
first it increases, then later it decreases
it increases
it does not change

Answer 178

It increases

Question 179

How does the value of flow-pulse change from the aorta towards the small arteries?

it does not change

first it increases, then it decreases

it increases

it decreases

Answer 179

It decreases

Question 180

On which section of the circulation does pulse-wave attenuate?

in the metarterioles
in the capillaries
in the small arteries
in the venule

Answer 180

In the metarterioles

Question 181

How does the value of mid-pressure change towards periphery?

it increases
it decreases continuously
first it decreases, then it increases
it does not change

Answer 181

It decreases continuously

Question 182

On which section of the circulation does blood flow become continuous?

in the capillaries
in the small arteries
after the metarterioles
in the venule

Answer 182

In the metarterioles

Question 183

Which process is dominant in the material exchange?

transcytosis
resorption
filtration
diffusion

Answer 183

Diffusion

Question 184

What process determines the interstitial volume?

filtration/resorption
diffusion
filtration
filtration, diffusion

Answer 184

Filtration/resorption

Question 185

On which interface do we find single muscle sphincter?

small arterioles - metarteriola

metarterioles - capillary

small arterioles - capillary

capillary - venule

Answer 185

Metarterioles - capillary

Question 186

What is the percentage of capillaries that are open during resting state?
1-2 %
10-20 %
5-10 %
50 %

Answer 186

5-10%

Question 187

How much time does the total gas exchange in capillaries during resting state take?

400-500 msec
1 sec
20-30 msec
200-300 msec

Answer 187

200-300 msec

Question 188

Which of the following factors does not influence the measurement of diffusion?

number of red blood cells
concentration gradients
permeability
surface area

Answer 188

Number of red blood cells

Question 189

How large is the water transport by diffusion?

0.6 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

300 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

0.06 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue

30 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

Answer 189

300 ml/sec/100g of tissue

Question 190

How large is the water transport with filtration and resorption?

0.6 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue

300 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

0.06 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue

30 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue

Answer 190

0.06ml/sec/100g of tissue

Question 191

Which of the following substances do not move by diffusion?

small molecular weight metabolites
the small molecular weight nutrients
gases
proteins

Answer 191

Proteins

Question 192

Which of the following substance exchange is limited by its diffusion capability?

proteins
glucose
gases
small molecular nutrients

Answer 192

Proteins

Question 193

How does the the oxygen diffusion change in the capillaries?

the partial pressure of the O2 linearly decreases as it flows towards the veins

the partial pressure of the O2 rapidly decreases as it flows towards the veins

the partial pressure of the O2 slightly decreases as it flows towards the veins

the partial pressure of the O2 increases as it flows towards the veins

Answer 193

The partial pressure of the O2 rapidly decreases as it flows towards the veins

Question 194

What is typical of the flow dependent material exchange?

the concentration increases in a small degree toward the venous side of capillaries

the concentration in the capillaries increases significantly towards the venous capillaries

it has a crucial importance in the case of easily diffusing substances

the growing flow rate reduces the substance deposition toward the tissues

Answer 194

It has crucial importance in the case of easily diffusing substances

Question 195

What is typical of the diffusion limited transport?

the concentration does not change alongside the capillaries

the concentration rapidly increases in the tissue toward the venous side of the capillaries

it is typical of the transport of the easily diffusing substances

capillary transit time influences the rate of transport of large molecules

Answer 195

Capillary transit time influences the rate of transport of large molecules

Question 196

What do we call Starling forces?

all the forces that play a role in the formation of the effective filtration pressure

all the forces that affect the oncotic pressure

all the facts that regulate the capillary permeability

all the facts that affect the effective hydrostatic pressure

Answer 196

All the forces that play a role in the formation of the effective filtration pressure

Question 197

What is typical for capillaries?

in the arterial capillaries filtration, in the venous resorption occurs

in some of the capillaries filtration, in others resorption happens

because of the loss of fluid the hydrostatic pressure decreases towards the venous side of the capillary

the effective filtration pressure is constant alongside the capillaries

Answer 197

In some of the capillaries filtration, in others resorption happens

Question 198

How can we calculate the effective filtration pressure?

on the basis of the difference between the oncotic pressure in the capillary and the blood pressure

on the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and oncotic pressure

on the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure

it is the product of the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure

Answer 198

On the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure

Question 199

What determines the filtration rate?

the oncotic pressure of the plasma
the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitium
the hydrostatic pressure of the plasma
the effective filtration pressure and the capillary permeability

Answer 199

The effective filtration pressure and the capillary permeability

Question 200

Which formula describes filtration rate?

Q= P effective x filtration coefficient of the capillary

Q= P hydrostatic x coefficient of the capillary filtration

Q= P effective / coefficient of the capillary filtration

Q= (P onc.- P hidr.) x coefficient of the capillary filtration

Answer 200

Q = P effective x filtration coefficient of the capillary

Question 201

How much surplus filtrate is produced normally?

1-2 ml / 100 kg
10-15 ml / 100 kg
3-4 ml / 100 kg
30-40 ml / 100 kg

Answer 201

3-4 ml/100kg

Question 202

What happens with the filtrate surplus at the interstitium?

the veins carry it away

it increases the oncotic pressure in the interstitium

it increases the hydrostatic pressure in the interstitium

the lymph vessels carry it away

Answer 202

The lymph vessels carry it away

Question 203

What is the most important fact which plays a role in the maintenance of the venous circulation?

the work of the heart
the presence of the valves
the peripheral resistance
the gravitation

Answer 203

The work of the heart

Question 204

How does the venous blood pressure change?

it is low in the small veins and the venules but grows toward the right atrium

it decreases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium

it increases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium

it does not change between the venules and the big veins but then it decreases suddenly

Answer 204

It decreases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium

Question 205

What is the most important factor in the extrinsic regulation of the circulation?

local autoregulation

nutritive demand of the tissues

the regulated contractile state of resistance and capacitance vessels

the effects of the parasymphatetic tone on the blood vessels

Answer 205

The regulated contractile state of resistance and capacitance vessels

Question 206

What happens when the blood pressure drops in an organ of high metabolic rate?

the tissue is damaged

nutrient supply to the cells decrease

vessel contraction compensates this change

normal perfusion is restored by adaptive vessel relaxation

Answer 206

Normal perfusion is restored by adaptive vessel relaxation

Question 207

What happens if the blood pressure increases in a given organ of steady metabolic rate?

because of the compensatory contraction of the vessels the normal perfusion is restored

because of the relaxation of the vessels the blood pressure decreases

the metabolic rate increases in the tissues

oedema evolves

Answer 207

Because of the compensatory contraction of the vessels the normal perfusion is restored

Question 208

In which range can the autoregulation restore normal perfusion?

90-110 Hgmm
40-140 Hgmm
80-120 Hgmm
20-240 Hgmm

Answer 208

40-140 Hgmm

Question 209

What is the Bayliss- effect?

the circulation is under endocrine control

the constant midpressure of the arteries ensures microcirculation

increase of heart frequency in case of atrial expansion

the vessels reply to the decrease of pressure with relaxation

Answer 209

Increase of heart frequency in case of atrial expansion

Question 210

What plays a role in the local adjustment of perfusion?

simply the laws of physics

parasymphathetic neural regulation

symphathetic neural regulation

myogenic answer

Answer 210

Myogenic answer

Question 211

What role does the endothel layer have in the regulation of perfusion?

the factors produced by it influence contraction state of the muscular layer of the vessels

the NO produced by it contracts the vessels

the EDCF produced by it increases the blood flow

ERDF production of smooth muscles is stimulated

Answer 211

The factors produced by it influence contraction state pf the muscular layer of the vessels

Question 212

How do smooth muscle elements react to acetylcholine in the walls of blood- vessels with a continuous endothel?

contraction
indirect relaxation
direct relaxation
EDCF mediated contraction

Answer 212

Indirect relaxation

Question 213

What determines the diameter of blood-vessels?

the quantity of acetylcholine and other factors in the plasma

hormone producing ability of the endothel cell

the equilibrium of the sympathetic vasomotor tone and NO production

the metabolic state of the smooth muscle of the blood vessel

Answer 213

The equilibrium of the sympathetic vasomotor tone and NO production

Question 214

What stimulates NO synthesis?

release of endothelins
decreased bradikinin, histamine levels
decreased adenosine concentration
increased adenosine concentration

Answer 214

Increased adenosine concentration

Question 215

Which substance is not part of the EDCF-family?

substance P
cyclooxigenase dependent factors
endothelins
angiotensin-II

Answer 215

Substance P

Question 216

What changes take place in the tissues when their metabolic rate increases?

partial pressure of oxygen increases in the tissue
due to the indirect effect of EC metabolites perfusion increases
concentration of EC metabolites decreases perfusion
with their humoral signals enothel cells decrease perfusion

Answer 216

Due to the indirect effect of EC metabolites perfusion increases

Question 217

What is hyperaemia?

susceptibility to bleeding
increased hematocrit value
local increase of perfusion
high blood pressure

Answer 217

Local increase of perfusion

Question 218

When can we speak of active hyperaemia?

when increased perfusion is generated locally to compensate the decrease of systemic blood pressure

when increased perfusion is due to the increase of systemic blood pressure

when increased perfusion is a secondary effect

when perfusion increases parallelly with the increase of local metabolic rate

Answer 218

When perfusion increases parallelly with the increase of local metabolic rate

Question 219

In what ways can the decreased partial pressure of O2 influence perfusion?

primarily by stimulating NO release

decreased partial pressure of O2 acts only indirectly on smooth muscle

mediated by an increased partial pressure of CO2

by increasing hydrogen concentration

Answer 219

Primarily by stimulating NO release

Question 220

Where is the pressor center located?

in the caudal region of the reticular formation

in the dorsolateral region of the reticular formation

in the caudomedial region of the reticular formation

in the lateral region of hypothalamus

Answer 220

In the dorsolateral region of the reticular formation

Question 221

Where is the depressor center located?

in the caudal region of the reticular formation

in the dorsolateral region of reticular formation

in the ventromedial region of the reticular formation

in the medial region of hypothalamus

Answer 221

In the ventromedial region of the reticular formation

Question 222

What is true for depressor effect?

it causes vasoconstiction in the periphery

has a positive chronotrop and dromotrop effect

has spontaneous activity which decreases heart rate

it is mediated by n.vagus

Answer 222

It is mediated by n.vagus

Question 223

What is true for pressor effect?

has spontaneous activity, and it is mediated by the thoracolumbar sympathetic neurons

it causes vasodilatation

has a negative chronotrop and dromotrop effect

it is mediated by n.vagus

Answer 223

Has spontaneous activity and it is mediated by the thoracolumbar sympathetic neurons

Question 224

What is the effect of sympathetic nervous system on the resistance vessels?

general vasoconstriction

vasodilatation in skeletal muscle, vasoconstriction in the splanchnic region

general vasodilatation

vasoconsriction in skeletal muscle, vasodilatation in the splanchnic region

Answer 224

Vasodilatation in skeletal muscle, vasocontriction in the splanchnic region

Question 225

What is the effect of sympathetic nervous system on the capacitance vessels?

vasodilatation

mild vasoconstriction

a little increase in sympathetic tone evokes immediate strong contraction

has little or no effect

Answer 225

A little increase in sympathetic tone evokes immediate strong contraction

Question 226

Of the following organs which is under parasympathetic control?

resistance vessels
skeletal muscle arterioles
skin vessels
heart

Answer 226

Heart

Question 227

What is the role of parasympathetic system in the adjustment of the diameter of blood vessels?

no significant effect
strong vasodilator effect
mild vasoconstrictor effect
strong vasoconstrictor effect

Answer 227

No significant effect

Question 228

In which organ can indirect parasympathetic vasodilatation be found?

corpora cavernosa
salivary gland
uterus
pancreas

Answer 228

Salivary gland

Question 229

In which organ can direct parasymathetic vasodilatation be found?

salivary gland
skin
uterus
liver

Answer 229

Uterus

Question 230

What is the effect of a small quantity of epinephrine on the blood vessels?

general constriction

coronary constriction

dilatation in skin, constriction in skeletal muscle and splanchnic regions

dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions

Answer 230

Dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions

Question 231

What is the effect of a large quantity of epinephrine on the blood vessels?

generalized vasoconstriction

dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions

dilatation in skin, constriction in skeletal muscle and splanchnic regions

coronary constriction

Answer 231

Generalized vasoconstriction

Question 232

What is the effect of norepinephrine on the blood vessels?

beta-adrenergic constriction

alpha-adrenergic constriction

alpha-adrenergic dilatation

beta-adrenergic dilatation

Answer 232

Alpha-adrenergic constriction

Question 233

What did the Heymans experiment prove?

the presence of volume receptors

the presence of osmotic receptors

the presence of baroreceptors

the presence of gas receptors

Answer 233

The presence of baroreceptors

Question 234

How does blood pressure change after the destruction of baroreceptors?

blood pressure does not change substantially

blood pressure increases beyond 180 mmHg

blood pressure decreases below 80 mmHg

blood pressure fluctuates between 40-170 mmHg

Answer 234

Blood pressure fluctuates between 40-170 mmHg

Question 235

In case of what blood pressures does baroreceptor reflex regulate?

between 50-170 mmHg
below 80 mmHg
over 120 mmHg
between 80-120 mmHg

Answer 235

Between 50-170 mmHg

Question 236

What defensive processes act below 50 mmHg blood pressure?

maximal parasympathetic effect, ceasing sympathetic activity

continuous maximal sympathetic and ceasing parasympathetic activity

in different parts of the organism simultaneously either increased parasympathetic or increased sympathetic activity can be observed

slow increase in sympathetic activity

Answer 236

Continuous maximal sympathetic and ceasing parasympathetic activity

Question 237

What kind of protecting processes begin above 17O mmHg blood pressure?

continuous maximal sympathetic and discontinued parasympathetic activity

mixed sympathetic and parasympathetic activities

maximal parasympathetic effect, discontinued sympathetic activity

slight parasympathetic increase

Answer 237

Maximal parasympathetic effect, discontinued sympathetic activity

Question 238

Where are baroreceptors located?

glomus caroticum
a. pulmonalis
glomus aorticum
arcus aortae

Answer 238

Arcus aortae

Question 239

Where are oxygen sensitive receptors located?

glomus aotricum
a. pulmonalis
sinus caroticus
arcus aortae

Answer 239

Glomus aotricum

Question 240

What kind of effects are responsible for vasodilation?
increasing parasympathetic effect
decreasing sympatethic effect
increased tissue oxygen concentration
decreased tissue CO2 level

Answer 240

Decreasing sympathetic effect

Question 241

In which animal do we find sympathetic cholinergic vasodilatation?

in birds
in ruminants
in dog and cat
in horse and pig

Answer 241

In dog and cat

Question 242

What mechanism acts against hypervolemia?

a peptide that is produced in the left ventricle

increases sodium excretion
ANP is produced and it decreases sodium excretion

ADH is produced and increases water loss

decreased ADH and increased ANP production

Answer 242

Decreased ADH and increased ANP production

Question 243

What is the Bainbridge reflex?

increasing volume of the atria increases heart frequency if it was low previously

increasing volume of the atria decreases heart frequency

it is the same as the Starling mechanism

it is a depressor reflex

Answer 243

Increasing volume of the atria increases heart frequency if it was low previously

Question 244

How is cardiovascular and respiratory interrelated?

the decrease of the pO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation

the increase of the pCO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation

the increase of the pCO2 in the glomus caroticum causes significant sympathetic activation

the decrease of the pO2 in the medulla causes significant parasympathetic activation

Answer 244

The increase of the pCO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation

Question 245

In the long run what is the most important regulator of coronary circulation?

the actual stage of the heart cycle

the aortic pressure change

the metabolic state of the heart

the arterial mean pressure

Answer 245

The metabolic state of the heart

Question 246

In which phase of heart cycle does the blood flow backward in the coronary artery?

never
slow ejection
fast ejection
fast filling

Answer 246

Fast filling

Question 247

what phase of the heart cycle gets more blood into the coronary artery?

diastole
systole
slow filling
fast ejection

Answer 247

Diastole

Question 248

What characterizes the regulation of brain circulation?

the perfusion is kept constant in different regions of the brain

the intravasal / EC volume is kept constant

mostly the sympathetic innervation regulates the ampleness of vessel

the principal local regulator is the pO2

Answer 248

The intravasal / EC volume is kept constant

Question 249

In which range of mean pressure is the brain circulation constant?

90-110 mmHg
80-120 mmHg
30-200 mmHg
60-160 mmHg

Answer 249

60-160 mmHp

Question 250

What is the most important role of the skin circulation?

supporting heat balance

blood storing function

covering the high oxygen and nutrient demand of this organ

enlarging the resistance segment of the circulation

Answer 250

Supporting heat balance

Question 251

What characterizes the splanchnic circulation?

extensive metabolic autoregulation

low capacity

double circulation, portal system

myogenic autoregulation

Answer 251

Double circulation, portal system

Question 252

Among the following statements which is true for the splanchnic circulation?

low capacity

the liver has no significant reservoir function

the autoregulation has primary role

main regulator is the vasoconstrictor tone

Answer 252

The main regulator is the vasoconstrictor tone

Question 253

What characterizes the fetal circulation?

the left ventricle pumps 20% larger volumes than the right ventricle

two-thirds of blood flows to cranial areas from the aorta

the pressure of the pulmonary artery is 5 mmHg higher than the pressure of the aorta

O2 saturation of the a. umbilica is 85%

Answer 253

The left ventricle pumps 20% larger volumes than the right ventricle

Question 254

Which are the structural proteins of the muscle?

actin and myosin

actin, myosin, micro and intermediary filaments

contractile proteins

microfilaments

Answer 254

Actin, myosin, micro and intermediary filaments

Question 255

What is the primary energy store for the muscle?

creatinphosphate
ATP
glycogen
lipids

Answer 255

Creatinphosphate

Question 256

Which muscle has the biggest quantity of creatinphosphate?

heart muscle
smooth muscle and striated muscle
skeletal muscle
smooth muscle

Answer 256

Skeletal muscle

Question 257

What are the functions of elastic elements in the muscle?

decrease heat loss

decrease resistance

they prevent excess shortening

they support the work of the muscle passively

Answer 257

They support the work of the muscle passively

Question 258

What kind of stripes and zones are in the sarcomere?

Z-stripe, H-zone, M- stripe
A-stripe, Z-stripe
H-zone, M-stripe, I- stripe
A-stripe,M-zone, Z- stripe

Answer 258

Z-stripe, H-zone, M-stripe

Question 259

What is the fibrillum?

unit part of the sarcomere
muscle fibres in a muscle
elementary contraction unit
muscle cells

Answer 259

Muscle fibres in a muscle

Question 260

In which list do you find a protein which is not a component of a sacromere?

actin, titin, nebulin

meromyosin, actinin, titin

titin, nebulin, alpha-actinin, actin, myosin, troponin, tropomyosin

alpha-actinin, nebulin, troponin, albumin

Answer 260

Alpha-actinin, nebulin, troponin, albumin

Question 261

What is the function of the tropomyosin?

stimulates the myosin ATP-ase enzyme
covers the active surface of actin
it has Ca binding capaticy
gides the actin fibre

Answer 261

Covers the active surface of actin

Question 262

What is the troponin complex?

complex protein which stimulates the myosin ATP-ase enzyme

a single protein which have Ca binding capacity

complex protein which fixes myosin

complex protein which sets the position of tropomyosin

Answer 262

Complex protein which sets the position of tropomyosin

Question 263

What do the myosin isotypes determine?

The efficiency of sarcomere
The angle of moving
The power of muscle
What thickens the muscle fibre

Answer 263

The efficiency of sarcomere

Question 264

What does the crossbridge cycle start?

The tropomyosin is slipped
The calcium signal
The activity of myosin ATPase
The magnesium

Answer 264

The calcium signal

Question 265

How many times does the intracytoplasmic calcium level grow during activation?
10 x
1000 x
200 - 600 x
50 x

Answer 265

200-600 x

Question 266

What is the calcium transient?

Ca influx

Ca outflux

Ca influx, plateau, pumping out of the intracytoplasmic space

Ca outflux induced by decreasing calcium level

Answer 266

Ca influx, plateau, pumping out of the intracytoplasmic space

Question 267

What happens if the ATP is taken away from the system?

The muscle stops in relaxed state

The head of myosin can not bind to the actin

Permanent, inactive contraction

The myosin moves and separates from actin

Answer 267

Permanent, inactive contraction

Question 268

What happens if the calcium is taken away from the intracytoplasmic space?

Muscle relaxation

The head of myosin links to the actin

Permanent, inactivate contraction happens

The myosin does not separate from actin

Answer 268

Muscle relaxation

Question 269

What occurs in the sarcomere, when the ATP-ase cleaves the bound ATP?

The head of myosin binds to the actin

Energy discharge, the head of the myosin moves

The tropomyosin is moved from activate points of actin

The myosin separates from actin

Answer 269

Energy discharge, the head of the myosin moves

Question 270

What binds to the TnC non-specific binding site?

Calcium
Tropomyosin
Magnesium
Sodium

Answer 270

Magnesium

Question 271

What links to the TnC specific binding site?

Calcium
Tropomyosin
Magnesium
Sodium

Answer 271

Calcium

Question 272

What happens if a calcium signal is present?

The myosin separates from actin

The head of myosin bends to 55 degrees

The head of myosin detaches from actin

The TnC binds calcium and the myosin binding site of the actin is exposed

Answer 272

The TnC binds calcium and the myosin binding site of the actin is exposed

Question 273

What happens when ADP and Pi is released from the acto-myosin complex?

a two-step bending of the myosin head (40 plus 5 degrees)

a three-step bending of the myosin head (40 plus 5 plus 15 degrees)

a one-step bending of the myosin head (55 degrees)

a two-step bending of the myosin head ensuring altogether a 15 nm sliding

Answer 273

A two-step bending of the myosin head (40 plus 5 degrees)

Question 274

What’s the physiological background of rigor mortis?

there is too much ATP present

ATP is not available

there is too much calcium present

calcium is missing

Answer 274

ATP is not available

Question 275

What is true for cross bridge cycling?

a lot of heads are moving in synchronized form

repetitive pendular movement is present for all myosin heads

an asynchronous movement of thousands of myosin heads occur

synchronous ATP cleavage is present in all light chains of myosins

Answer 275

An asynchronous movement of thousands of myosin heads occur

Question 276

What is true for electromechanic coupling?

it lasts from the arrival of muscle AP to the development of a twitch

it is the generation AP in the myoneural junction

it is the calcium release through effect of the AP

it is the depolarization of the myolemma

Answer 276

It lasts from the arrival of muscle AP to the development of a twitch

Question 277

What happens with the intracytoplasmic calcium level when a twitch occurs?

the calcium level is increased continuously

the calcium level is constantly high

the calcium level increases, reaches a plateau and then decreases

the calcium level is increased and then stays constant until the next AP

Answer 277

The calcium level increases, reaches a plateau and then decreases

Question 278

What is the connection between the AP and the calcium maximum?

The maximum of calcium level coincides with AP

The maximum of calcium level preceeds the AP

The calcium level is not influenced by AP

The maximum of calcium level is reached after AP

Answer 278

The maximum of calcium level is reached after AP

Question 279

In which muscle type can we find a “diad”?

In the heart muscle
In the skeletal muscle
In the smooth muscle
in all types of muscles

Answer 279

In the heart muscle

Question 280

What happens in the triads?

Chemical signal is transformed to electrical signal

Electrical signal is transformed to chemical signal

Ca efflux from the cell

Release of ryanodin as a transmitter

Answer 280

Electrical signal is transformed to chemical signal

Question 281

What type of channel can we find on the membrane of the terminal cysternae?

Voltage dependent calcium channel

L-type calcium channel

Ryanodine sensitive calcium channel

There is no channel, but a voltage dependent membrane protein on this membrane

Answer 281

Ryanodin sensitive calcium channel

Question 282

What happens if the ryanodine sensitive calcium canal is opened?

Ca influx from EC to cells
Ca influx into the SR
Ca influx from EC to IC
Ca influx from SR to IC

Answer 282

Ca influx from the SR to IC

Question 283

How can the calcium signal attenuate its own effect?

positive feedback: it opens the calcium pumps to EC and SR

negative feedback: it opens more sodium channels

it stimulates the Ca-Na symporter

it inhibits the ATPase depedent pumps

Answer 283

Positive feedback: it opens the calcium pumps to EC and SR

Question 284

What is aequorin?

Reaction of this material with calcium forms a visible precipitate

Reaction of this material with a calcium channel emmits a light signal

a ryanodine receptor blocking agent

a protein channel for calcium

Answer 284

Reaction of this material with a calcium channel emmits a light signal

Question 285

What are “sequesters”?

Cell organelles that pump calcium into the EC

Transport proteins

Intracellular calcium storing sites

Voltage dependent channels

Answer 285

Intracellular calcium storing sites

Question 286

What pumps calcium back into the SR?

Ryanodin sensitive calcium channels

Carrier proteins

Voltage dependent calcium channels

ATP dependent calcium channels

Answer 286

ATP dependent calcium channels

Question 287

What pumps calcium into the EC?

Ryanodin sensitive calcium channels

Na-Ca symporter

Voltage dependent calcium channels

Sodium/calcium antiporter proteins

Answer 287

Sodium/calcium antiporter proteins

Question 288

During long-term muscle work energy for the muscle is provided by:

anaerobic glycolysis or aerobic glycose oxidation

anaerobic glycolysis and aerobic glycose oxidation

fat oxidation

protein decomposition

Answer 288

Anaerobic glycolysis or aerobic glycose oxidation

Question 289

How long is sufficient for the energy to be stored in form of ATP?

for 2-3 hours
for 2-3 seconds
for 2-3 minutes
for 20-30 seconds

Answer 289

For 2-3 seconds

Question 290

How long is sufficient the energy stored as creatinine-phosphate?

for 2-3 hours
for 2-3 seconds
for 20-30 seconds
for 2-3 minutes

Answer 290

20-30 sec

Question 291

Why does anaerobic glycolysis have to cover the sudden, intensive energy requirement?

because enzymes of aerobic glucose oxidation are not present

because aerobic glucose oxidation produces less energy

because aerobic glucose oxidation is initially inhibited

because aerobic glucose oxidation is a very slow process

Answer 291

Because aerobic glucose oxidation is a very slow process

Question 292

What is the source of anaerobic glycolysis in case of excessive stress?

glycogen
fat
glucose and later fats
lactic acid

Answer 292

Glucose and later fats

Question 293

What will be the fate of lactic acid produced during glycolysis?

it will be burnt in aerobic processes

it will be excreted through liver

it will be stored in the muscle

it will be entering the Cori-cycle in the liver

Answer 293

It will be entering the Con-cycle in the liver

Question 294

What is the disadvantage of oxidative processes?

the rate of ATP production is very low

too much CO2 is produced

toxic materials are released

insufficient amount of ATP is produced

Answer 294

The rate of ATP production is very low

Question 295

What kind of muscle tissue is especially suitable for FFA burning?

skeletal-muscle

heart muscle

smooth muscle and skeletal-muscle

skeletal-muscle and heart muscle

Answer 295

Heart muscle

Question 296

What is meant by paying back the oxygen debt?

muscle consumes less oxygen in resting state

fast twitch muscles consume more energy after external work stops

oxygen consumption of all muscle types is in direct proportion to their working intensity

fast twitch muscle fibres do not utilize oxygen at all and so they accumulate oxygen

Answer 296

Fast twitch muscles consume more energy after external work stops

Question 297

What kind of muscle accumulates a great oxygen debt?

red muscle
smooth muscle
white muscle
heart muscle

Answer 297

White muscle

Question 298

What is the effect of lactic acid in the muscle?

it is an energy storing compound

it is the final product of aerobic glucose oxidation

it is that final product of anaerobic glycolysis which stimulates sarcomeric activity

it is that final product of anaerobic glycolysis which has a direct inhibiting effect on sarcomeric activity

Answer 298

It is that final product of anaerobic glycolysis which has a direct inhibiting effect on sarcomeric activity

Question 299

What are the characteristic properties of white fibres?

quick, powerful contraction, anaerobic glycolysis

slow, permanent contraction, anaerobic glycolysis

quick, powerful contraction, aerobic oxidation processes

slow, permanent contraction, aerobic oxidation processes

Answer 299

Quick, powerful contraction, anaerobic glycolysis

Question 300

What are the characteristic properties of red fibres?

quick, powerful contraction, anaerobic glycolysis

quick, powerful contraction, aerobic oxidation processes

slow, permanent contraction, anaerobic glycolysis

slow, permanent contraction, aerobic oxidation processes

Answer 300

Slow, permanent contraction, aerobic oxidation processes

Question 301

How can you tell whether a whole muscle fibre belongs to the white or red group?

by measuring the strength of the muscle

by counting the ratio of white and red filaments in muscle

by measuring the length of the whole muscle

by counting the number of sympathetic fibers innervating the whole muscle

Answer 301

By counting the ratio of white and red filaments in the muscle

Question 302

What types of fibers exist in skeletal muscle?

pink and red
red
pink and white
red and white

Answer 302

Pink and white

Question 303

What is the color of slow twitch fibers?

pink and red
pink and white
red
red and white

Answer 303

Red

Question 304

What is the ratio between myoneural junction/filaments in fast twitch fibers?

many filaments one nerve

some filaments(2-3) one nerve

grape like

near to one filament/one nerve ratio

Answer 304

Near to one filament/one nerve ratio

Question 305

What is the ratio between myoneural junction/filaments of red fibers?

many filaments, one nerve

some filaments(2-3), one nerve

many filaments, one nerve with grape-bunch like innervation

one filament, one nerve

Answer 305

Many filaments, one nerve with grape-bunch like innervation

Question 306

What is the contraction time of red fibers?
2 ms
20 ms
10 ms
200 ms

Answer 306

200 ms

Question 307

What is the contraction time of pink fast fibers?

20 ms
2 ms
200 ms
10 ms

Answer 307

20 ms

Question 308

what is the contraction time of the quickest white fibers?

2-3 ms
10 ms
20 ms
200 ms

Answer 308

2-3 ms

Question 309

What is true for the fatigue of fast twitch fibers?

slow
there is no fatigue
quick
medium

Answer 309

Quick

Question 310

What is true for the fatigue of slow twitch fibers?

there is almost no fatigue
quick
medium
slow

Answer 310

There is almost no fatigue

Question 311

What type of metabolism do you find in red muscles?

anaerobic
oxidative
mixed
only fat burning exists

Answer 311

Oxidative

Question 312

What do we mean by “quantal summation”?

the increase of tension is given by the intracytoplasmic calcium level increase

the increase of tension is given by the sum of the contractions of many fibres

the increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions

the maximal contraction and the summation which caused this contraction

Answer 312

The increase of tension is given by the sum of the contractions of many fibres

Question 313

What do we mean by “contraction summation”?

the increase of tension is given by the sum of the contraction of many fibres

the increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions

the increase of tension is determined by the increased calcium level

the maximal contraction and the summation forms which caused this contraction

Answer 313

The increase of tension is determined by the increased calcium level

Question 314

What do we mean by “Treppe”?

the increase of tension is given by the sum of the contraction of many fibres

the increase of tension is given by the intracytoplasmic calcium level decrease

the maximal contraction and the summation forms which caused this contraction

the increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions

Answer 314

The increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions

Question 315

What can we learn from the the speed-tension diagram?

the working power of the muscle

the measure of the stretch of the muscle

the output of the muscle

the length of the maximal stretch of the muscle

Answer 315

The output of the muscle

Question 316

What can we learn from the length-tension diagram?

the working power of the muscle

the measure of the stretch of the muscle

the output of the muscle

the length of the maximal stretch of the muscle

Answer 316

The working power of the muscle

Question 317

What is the physiological role of the heat production of the muscle?

it has no significant role, it mainly means a loss

it has significant role in maintaining the coat temperature

only heat production through shivering has a significant role

it has a physiological role in maintaining core temperature

Answer 317

It has a physiological role in maintaining core temperature

Question 318

How many main components make up the total work of the muscle?
3
1
4
2

Answer 318

2

Question 319

What is the contraction/length domain of the optimal muscle workload?

medium tension/rest length
medium tension/ minimal length
maximal tension/rest length
minimal length/ maximal tension

Answer 319

Medium tension/rest length

Question 320

When do phasic fast fibres produce a great quantity of heat?

under restitution
under active contraction
under passive tension
only under “Treppe”

Answer 320

Under restitution

Question 321

When do red slow tonic fibres produce a great quantity of heat?

under restitution
under passive tension
under active contraction
only in relation with the initial heat production

Answer 321

Under active contraction

Question 322

What type of metabolism is there in white phasic fibres?

oxidative
mixed
anaerobic
there is only fat oxidation

Answer 322

Anaerobic

Question 323

What type of metabolism is there in pink phasic fibres?

oxidative
anaerobic
there is only fat oxidation
mixed

Answer 323

Mixed

Question 324

How long is a fibre in pink phasis fibres?

very long
middle sized
very short
short

Answer 324

Middle sized

Question 325

What is the length of a fibre in white phasic fibres?
middle sized
very short
very long
short

Answer 325

Very long

Question 326

What is the fibre-length in red tonic fibre?

very long
middle sized
short
varying

Answer 326

shorty

Question 327

Which muscle type contains the most collagen fibres?

the heart muscle
the skeletal muscle
the plain muscle
the skeletal and the heart muscle

Answer 327

The heart muscle

Question 328

What is a “twitch”?

muscle relaxation
muscle tremor
continuous muscle contraction
the refractory state of the muscle

Answer 328

Muscle tremor

Question 329

Which statements below is correct?

the calcium transient occurs concurrently with AP, there is no biological delay

the calcium transient follows an AP, the biological delay does not occur here

the calcium transient does not directly follow AP, there is biological delay

AP is followed by calcium transient with no delay

Answer 329

The calcium transient follows an AP, the biological delay does not occur here

Question 330

What is isometric contraction?

only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not

both the length and tension change

the muscle overstretches

only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not

Answer 330

Only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not

Question 331

What is isotonic contraction?

only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not
only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not
both the length and tension change
the muscle overstretches

Answer 331

Only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not

Question 332

What is auxotonic contraction?

only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not

both the length and tension change

only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not

the muscle overstretches

Answer 332

Both the length and tension change

Question 333

What arrangement suits the “preload” circumstances?

a load is put on the muscle

a load is put on the muscle and free movement of muscle is restricted with the use of a frame

a load is put on the muscle, passive flexing is allowed to a certain degree, then the load is proped up

free movement of muscle is hindered with a load

Answer 333

A load is put on the muscle, passive flexing is allowed to a certain degree, then the load is proped up

Question 334

Which arrangement suits the “afterload” circumstances?

A load is put on the muscle

a load is put on the muscle and we the passive stretching is hindered with a support

free movement of muscle hindered with a load

a load is put on the muscle and free contraction is hindered with a buffer

Answer 334

A load is put on the muscle and free contraction is hindered with a buffer

Question 335

What do we mean by “all-or-none” law?

in a single fiber maximal contraction is caused by an adequate stimulus, a smaller stimulus does not produce contraction

all muscle fibre contractions are caused by one single stimulus

the stimulus does not produce answer in all cases

the total muscle either contracts maximally or does not respond at all

Answer 335

In a single fiber maximal contraction is caused by an adequate stimulus, a smaller stimulus does not produce contraction

Question 336

Does the muscle produce heat in rest?

Not at all

Yes, this heat is a small contribution to the total heat production

Yes, this is the BMR

Yes, this heat production makes most of the BMR

Answer 336

Yes, this heat production makes most of the BMR

Question 337

BMR

Answer 337

Basic metabolic rate

• the rate of energy expenditure per unit time by endothermic animals at rest

Question 338

the activation heat belongs to which stage of heat production?

to the initial heat production
to the resting heat production
to the delayed heat production
to the BMR of muscle

Answer 338

To the initial heat production

Question 339

Where does the activating heat production originate from?

calcium pump and cross bridge cycling

electromechanical coupling

onset of stimulus

replenishment of used up energy

Answer 339

Electromechanical coupling

Question 340

Which is larger in the fast glycolytic fiber?

The initial heat production is larger than activating heat production

The delayed heat production is larger than activating heat production

The initial heat production is larger than delayed heat production

Contraction heat production is larger than activating heat production

Answer 340

The initial heat production is larger than delayed heat production

Question 341

What is the efficiency of the skeletal muscle?
30 %
15 %
7%
20 %

Answer 341

20%

Question 342

What is the maximal speed of frame muscle?
7 m/sec
30 m/sec
15 m/sec
20 m/sec

Answer 342

7 m/sec

Question 343

Why do the muscles get tired in physiological circumstances?

Result of transmitter deficiency

Metabolic by-products accumulate

The oxygen supply is not adequate

Capacity of oxidative enzymes is not enough

Answer 343

Metabolic by-products accumulate

Question 344

What is the first sign of fatigue on the mechanogram?

The muscle does not relax

Reduced amplitude of contractions

The muscle only react on bigger stimulus

The muscle does not react on any stimulus

Answer 344

Reduced amplitude of contractions

Question 345

What is happening when the muscle is working in an oxygenated atmosphere in vitro?

After the muscle gets tired, it needs a long time to recover

The muscle does not recover from exhaustion

restitution is quick after the muscle gets tired

The muscle can not be exhausted

Answer 345

Restitution is quick after the muscle gets tired

Question 346

What is happening when the muscle is working in a nitrogen atmosphere in vitro?

After the muscle gets tired, it needs a long time to recover

Restitution is quick after the muscle gets tired

The muscle gets never tired

The muscle cannot recover after fatigue

Answer 346

The muscle cannot recover after fatigue

Question 347

Which type of muscles get tired the most easily?

White muscle
Whole muscle
Smooth muscle
Red muscle

Answer 347

White muscle

Question 348

Which type of muscles get tired least easily?

White muscle
Red muscle
Whole muscle
Smooth muscle

Answer 348

Red muscle

Question 349

What mediates the effect of acetylcholine on the muscle membrane?

Muscarinic receptor
G-protein receptor
Nicotinic receptor
Transmembrane enzyme

Answer 349

Nicotinic receptor

Question 350

what occurs when acetylcholine binds?

sodium-channel closes
Ligand-dependent cation channel closes
sodium-channel opens
Ligand-dependent cation channel opens

Answer 350

Ligand-dependent cation channel opens

Question 351

What does opening of cation channel cause after the binding of acetylcholine?

It induces the generation of End Plate Potential
Hyperpolarization
Cation outflow
Closure of thesodium-channel

Answer 351

It induced the generation of End Plate Potential

Question 352

What does the rate of muscle fiber and nerve fiber depend on?
Length of muscle
Exercise of muscle
Number of muscle fibres
The working ability of muscle fiber

Answer 352

Exercise of muscle

Question 353

What is happening right after the nervous AP arrives at the myoneural junction?

acetylcholine is filling the synaptic junction

The muscle fiber is contracting

Calcium enters the synaptic knob from the EC

The ligand- dependent cation channel is opening on the muscle fiber’s membrane

Answer 353

Calcium enters the synaptic know from the EC

Question 354

Where is acetylcholine produced?

On the post synaptic membrane
In the axon
In nerve cell body
In the synaptic junction

Answer 354

In the synaptic junction

Question 355

How many subunits does the ligand-dependent acetylcholine receptor make in the muscle?

5
4
3
2

Answer 355

5

Question 356

What kind of subunits does the acetylcholine-dependent receptor have in the muscle?

2 alpha, 3 beta
2 alpha, 2 beta, 1 delta
5 alpha
4 beta, 1 alpha

Answer 356

2 alpha, 2 beta, 1 delta

Question 357

What kind of subunits does the acetylcholine-dependent receptor have in the CNS?

2 alpha, 3 delta
2 alpha, 3 beta
5 alpha
4 beta, 1 alpha

Answer 357

2 alpha, 3 beta

Question 358

What is the difference between the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor of muscle and central nervous system?

There is no difference

The muscle has got 4 and the nerve has got 5 subunits

The nerve has no delta subunit

Only the nerve receptor is sensitive to the curare

Answer 358

The nerve has no delta subunit

Question 359

What is happening right after the calcium enters the synaptic knob?

Calcium causes IP3 increase

The acetylcholine is released to the synaptic split

Calcium activates the vesicles

Calcium activates the protein system which binds the vesicula to the presynaptic membranes binding sites

Answer 359

Calcium activates the protein system which binds the vesicula to the presynaptic membranes binding sites

Question 360

What is the MEPP?

One quantum of acetylcholine induces 1 mV End Plate Potential

One type of AP

Voltage dependent channel’s opening induces the potential changing

Maximal End Plate Potential

Answer 360

One quantum of acetylcholine induces 1mV End Plate Potential

Question 361

What kind of AP is generated, when the muscle fiber membrane’s voltage dependent sodium channels is open?

Amplitude fluctuates, frequency is equal to growing amount of acetylcholine

Amplitude is permanent, frequency is proportional to the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic knob

Amplitude is uniformly decreasing

Amplitude is uniformly increasing

Answer 361

Amplitude is permanent, frequency is proportional to the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic knob

Question 362

What degrades acetylcholine?

acetylcholine- hydrolase
acetylcholine-lyase
acetylcholine-esterase
acetylcholine- hydroxylase

Answer 362

Acetylcholine-esterase

Question 363

What happens to choline after acetylcholine release?

It is used up by the nerve cell during its energy producing processes

it is eliminated from the organism

it is further metabolized

after presynaptic reuptake it is used for acetylcholine synthesis

Answer 363

After presynaptic reuptake it is used for acetylcholine synthesis

Question 364

What inhibits the binding of acetylcholine?

the high extracellular magnesium level
the low extracellular magnesium level
the high intracellular calcium level
the low intracellular calcium level

Answer 364

The high extracellular magnesium level

Question 365

How can you inhibit acetylcholine- esterase activity?

curare
eserine
bungarotoxin
magnesium

Answer 365

Eserine

Question 366

What does curare inhibit?

the acetycholine- esterase

the excretion of acetylcholine

the generation of the end plate potential

the binding of acetylcholine to the receptor

Answer 366

The generation of the end plate potential

Question 367

What has an effect similar to curare?

eserine
the high EC magnesium level
the high intracytoplasmic calcium level
botuline and bungarotoxin

Answer 367

Botuline and bungarotoxin

Question 368

What causes myasthenia gravis?

there aren’t or there are only a few acetylcholine receptors, or they don’t work because of autoimmune processes

too many acetylcholine receptors

too much acetylcholine- release

the function of voltage-dependent sodium channels is defective

Answer 368

there aren’t or there are only a few acetylcholine receptors or they don’t work because of autoimmune processes

Question 369

How can you cure myasthaenia gravis?

with curare
with acetylcholine- esterase inhibitors
with infusion of magnesium
with bungarotoxin

Answer 369

with acetylcholine-esterase inhibitors

Question 370

What composes the motor unit?

motor unit = myoneural junction

the axon ending on the muscle fibre’s membrane

the nerves supplying the muscle and the muscle itself

the nerves supplying the muscle

Answer 370

The nerves supplying the muscle and the muscle itself

Question 371

What belongs to the large motor unit?

tonic fibres
tonic fibres and nerves
the red muscle
fast fibers

Answer 371

fast fibres

Question 372

What belongs to the small motor unit?

slow twitch fibres
fast fibres
fast and slow twitch fibres
the white muscle fibres

Answer 372

slow twitch fibres

Question 373

How can you describe the conductivity of the small motor unit’s nerves?

slow
fast
very fast
average

Answer 373

fast

Question 374

How can you describe the conductivity of the large motor unit’s nerves?

slow
fast
very fast
average

Answer 374

very fast

Question 375

How can you describe the excitability of the large motor unit’s nerves?

very difficult to stimulate
average
easy to stimulate
difficult to stimulate

Answer 375

Difficult to stimulate

Question 376

How can you describe the excitability of the small motor unit’s nerves?

easy to stimulate
very difficult to stimulate
average
difficult to stimulate

Answer 376

Easy to stimulate

Question 377

What is not true regarding the small motor unit’s muscles?

their metabolism is oxidative
their stretchability is good
they are slow
they don’t get tired

Answer 377

Their stretchability is good

Question 378

What is not true regarding the large motor unit’s muscles?

their metabolism is anaerobic

they are quick

their fibre length is small

they get tired easily

Answer 378

Their fibre length is small

Question 379

On what level do the small and the large motor unit differ?

They already differ at the level of the truncus cerebri

they don’t differ

only at the level of the fibres

both at the level of the spinal alfa motor neurons and at the level of the fibres

Answer 379

Both at the level of the spinal alfa motor neurons and at the level of the fibres

Question 380

What is true for the intrafusal fibre?

It is a specialized, stretch sensitive, and to some extent, contractile fibre

it accounts for the main mass of the skeletal muscle

it is tendon receptor

it is a pain sensitive fibre

Answer 380

It is a specialized, stretch sensitive, and to some extent, contractile fibre

Question 381

What is true regarding extrafusal fibres?

They exist as a few, muscle-stretch sensitive fibres

working muscle fibres, which give the main mass of skeletal muscle

they are tendon receptors

they are pain sensitive fibre-types

Answer 381

working muscle fibres, which give the main mass of skeletal muscle

Question 382

What kind of receptor is found in the tendon?

extrafusal fibre
intrafusal fibre
Golgi-receptor
Meissner-receptor

Answer 382

Golgi receptor

Question 383

What kind of afferents start from the nuclear chain receptor?

dynamic
dynamic and static
special
static

Answer 383

Static

Question 384

Where are the nuclear bag and nuclear chain receptors?

in the intrafusal fibres
in the extrafusal fibres
in the tendon
in the axon endings

Answer 384

In the intrafusal fibres

Question 385

What is the servo- mechanism of the muscle?

it is a spinal feedback mechanism, which prevents contraction

it is a reflex ensuring smooth muscle movement at the spinal level

it is a reflex of the extrafusal fibres

it is a cerebellar reflex

Answer 385

It is a reflex ensuring smooth muscle movement at the spinal level

Question 386

What is coactivation?

it is a reflex exclusively governed by the spinal cord

it is a reflex exclusively governed by the sensory cortex

the concurrent activation of alpha and gamma motoneurons

it is a reflex exclusively governed by the alpha motoneurons

Answer 386

The concurrent activation of alpha and gamma motoneurons

Question 387

Which receptor discharges more frequent afferent AP when the muscle is overstretched?

Intrafusal fiber
Extrafusal fiber
Nuclear chain receptor
Golgi receptor

Answer 387

Golgi receptor

Question 388

What discharges more frequent afferent AP with increasing load of the muscle?

Intrafusal fibres
Only the Golgi receptor
Extrafusal fibres
None of them

Answer 388

Intrafusal fibres

Question 389

What happens when the contraction exactly follows the motor command?

Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with the same strength but not the same speed

Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with same speed and same strength

Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with the same speed but not with the same strength

Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with differing speed and strength

Answer 389

Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with same speed and same strength

Question 390

What’s the main function served by the smooth muscle?

Moving the skeleton

Moving the skeleton and setting the volume of hollow organs

Moving inner organs and setting the volume of hollow organs

they can be found in sphincters only

Answer 390

Moving inner organs and setting the volume of hollow organs

Question 391

What is not typical of single-unit smooth muscles?

There are no gap junctions connecting the fibres to each other

Each fibre or small group of fibres has its direct innervation

Fast and exact movements

They form a functional syncytium

Answer 391

They form a functional syncytium

Question 392

What is not typical of multiple - unit smooth muscle?

There are no gap junctions connecting the fibres to each other

Just a very few nerves are going to the functional syncytium

It is present in m. Ciliaris

they form a functional syncytium

Answer 392

There are no gap junctions connecting the fibres to each other

Question 393

What is MLCK (myosin light chain kinase) enzyme responsible for in smooth muscle?

For relaxation

For starting the cross - bridge cycle and for sustained contraction

For energy supply of the muscle

For mobilization of energy stored in glycogen

Answer 393

For starting the cross-bridge cycle and for sustained contraction

Question 394

What is myosin phosphatase enzyme responsible for in smooth muscle?

For starting the cross - bridge cycle and for contraction

For contraction

For producing relaxation

For binding ATP to myosin

Answer 394

For producing relaxation

Question 395

What happens in smooth muscle when myosin phosphatase is inhibited?

Muscle relaxes immediately

Muscle contracts maximally

Muscle relaxes after a short contraction

Muscle remains in a contracted state

Answer 395

Muscle remains in a contracted state

Question 396

What does “latch” mechanism mean in connection with the function of smooth muscle?

Immediate relaxation of the muscle in case of overstraining

Muscle’s reaction to a strong stimulus is not relaxation but contraction

Muscle relaxes after a short contraction

Muscle contracts without energy investment because of the MLCK mechanism

Answer 396

Muscle contracts without energy investment because of the MLCK mechanism

Question 397

What is the function of myosin phosphatase in smooth muscle?

It expels calcium from the IC compartment and causes relaxation this way

Dissociates the phosphoryl group from actomyosin thereby producing relaxation

It activates the sliding filament mechanism
sustains continuous cross bridge cycling

Answer 397

Dissociates the phosphoryl group from actomyosin thereby producing relaxation

Question 398

Is the “all-or-none” law true for smooth muscle?

No, because smooth muscle functions as a syncytium

Yes

No, because smooth muscle is in a continuous, slight contraction

Yes, just like skeletal muscle

Answer 398

No, because smooth muscle is in a continuous, slight contraction

Question 399

What adjusts the ratio of active MLCK/MP?

EC calcium level
IC magnesium level
Energy-supply of the muscle
IC calcium level

Answer 399

IC calcium level

Question 400

What increases the MLCK enzyme activity in smooth muscle?

Saturation of calmodulin by the rising calcium level

Calcium concentration of EC

Calcium concentration of IC

Increasing irritability of the muscle

Answer 400

Saturation of calmodulin by the rising calcium level

Question 401

What does a myogenic answer mean?

Stretching of an extensor causes relaxation of a flexor muscle

Straining of the smooth muscle causes automatic contraction in some of the organs

Relatively slight stimulus can cause contraction

it is the same as the reflex relaxation

Answer 401

Straining of the smooth muscle causes automatic contraction in some of the organs

Question 402

What is reflex relaxation?

Stretching of the smooth muscle is followed by decreased tension in some of the organs

Relatively slight stimulus can cause contraction

Straining the smooth muscle causes visceral pain

Straining causes a gradually rising contraction

Answer 402

Stretching of the smooth muscle is followed by decreased tension in some of the organs

Question 403

What does not elicit contraction in smooth muscle?

Effect of a neural AP

Chemical ligands

Beta-2 receptor stimulation and NO release

Calcium release from sequesters

Answer 403

Beta-2 receptor stimulation and NO release

Question 404

What doesn’t induce relaxation in smooth muscle?

Phosphorylation by MLCK

Chemical ligand binding to ligand- dependent calcium channel

Beta-2 receptor stimulation and NO release

Increasing MP (Myosin Phosphatase) activity

Answer 404

Chemical ligand binding to ligand dependent calcium channel

Question 405

What kind of receptor is not present in the single-unit smooth muscle?

Muscarinic ACh- receptor
Nicotinic ACh- receptor
Beta-2 receptor
Beta-1 receptor

Answer 405

Nicotinic ACh-receptor

Question 406

Which one of these muscles is not a single-unit smooth muscle?

Bronchial muscles
m. ciliaris
Gastrointestinal muscles
Muscles of the blood vessels

Answer 406

M.ciliaris

Question 407

Which ligand causes smooth muscle contraction?

Acetylcholine
NO
Adenosine
ATP

Answer 407

Acetylcholine