Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What determines the contractility?

isotonic tension

isometric tension

maximum isometric tension, maximum contraction speed

contraction speed

A

maximum isometric tension, maximum contraction speed

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2
Q

What influences the efficiency of the working fibers in the heart?

parasympathetic stimulation
sympathetic inhibition
direct electrical stimulation
sympathetic stimulation

A

Sympathetic stimulation

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3
Q
How does the cardiac output change during the direct stimulation of the heart?
the C.O. doesn`t change
the C.O. decreases slightly
the C.O. increases significantly
the C.O. decreases significantly
A

The C.O. doesn’t change

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4
Q

How does the cardiac output change if we stimulate the heart through its sympathetic nerve?

the C.O. decreases continuously
the C.O. increases continuously
the C.O. doesn’t change
the C.O. increases slightly

A

The C.O. increases continuously

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5
Q

How does the systole/diastole rate change with direct stimulation of the heart?

systole and diastole decrease
systole increases, diastole decreases
systole doesn’t change, diastole decreases
systole decreases, diastole increases

A

systole doesn’t change, diastole decreases

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6
Q

How does the systole/diastole ratio change if we stimulate the heart through its sympathetic nerve?

it increases
it decreases
it increases the muscle force only
the ratio doesn’t change too much

A

The ratio doesn’t change too much

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7
Q
How can we measure the cardiac output?
on the basis of the Ficks-principle
on the basis of the Van`t Hoff law
on the basis of the Laplace law
on the basis of Henderson- Hasselbalch equation
A

On the basis of the Ficks-principle

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8
Q
What formula can be used to calculate the cardiac output?
C.O.=QtO2x(CaO2- CvO2)
C.O.=QtO2/(CaO2- CvO2)
C.O.=QtO2/(CvO2- CaO2)
C.O.=QtO2/ (CaO2xCvO2)
A

C.O. = QtO2/(CaO2-CvO2)

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9
Q

Can we apply the Stewart-principle for the determination of the cardiac output?
yes, because we measure the volume
yes, when we inject tritiated water
yes, but modified, instead of volume we measure volume flow
no

A

Yes, but modified, instead of volume we measure volume flow

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10
Q
What efficiency does the heart have?
80 %
30-40%
4%
10-20%
A

10-20%

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11
Q

What is the external work of the heart?
The product of systolic volume and the mean arterial pressure
The quotient of pulse pressure and the circulatory mid- pressure
The product of cardiac output and the arterial mid-pressure
the difference of the pressure-work and the kinetic-work

A

The product of systolic volume and the mean arterial pressure

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12
Q

What can we show with the help of the Rushmer-diagram?
the ratio of external and internal work
the ratio of the active and passive component of the external work of the heart
the difference between the external and internal work of the heart
the efficiency of the work of the heart

A

The ratio of the active and passive component of the external work

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13
Q

What does the passive work of the heart derive from?

from the tension during the isovolumetric contraction
from the isovolumetric relaxation
from the energy stored in the elastic components
from the tension of the aortic wall

A

From the energy stored in the elastic components

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14
Q

How do the pressure and volume of the left ventricle change during the fast ejection phase of systole?

the pressure does not change, the volume decreases significantly
the pressure drops, the volume decreases
the pressure increases, the volume does not change
the pressure increases, the volume decreases

A

The pressure increases, the volume decreases

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15
Q

How does the efficiency of the heart change with increasing ventricular volume?

It decreases
It increases
It does not change
It decreases, since the oxygen consumption is less

A

It decreases

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16
Q
What happens when we stimulate the heart muscle to the threshold potential?
Cl and Ca influx
K outflow, Na inflow
Na influx
Ca and Na influx
A

Na influx

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17
Q
What happens at a potential of +25 mV?
Na inflow stops, K inflow, Cl outflow
Ca inflow, Na outflow
Na inflow continues, K outflow stops
Na inflow stops; Cl inflow begins
A

Na inflow stops: Cl inflow begins

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18
Q
What influx happens during the plateau-phase of the heart muscle's AP?
slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow
quick Ca inflow, slow K outflow
slow Ca outflow, quick K inflow
quick Na inflow, slow Ca inflow
A

Slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow

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19
Q
What is going on in the phase leading to the total repolarization of the heart muscle?
slow Ca inflow, slow K outflow
rapid K outflow, Ca inflow stops
Ca inflow, slow K outflow
Na inflow, slow Ca inflow
A

rapid K outflow, Ca inflow stops

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20
Q

How does the potassium conductance change during phase 3 of the AP of the working fibers of the heart?
it decreases
it does not change
it increases
its change is parallel to the sodium conductance

A

It increases

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21
Q
Which ion flux causes the plateau phase in the AP of the heart muscle?
potassium
chloride
sodium
mainly calcium
A

Mainly calcium

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22
Q
How does the sodium conductance change in phase 1 of the AP of the working fibers of the heart?
it ceases suddenly
it increases
it decreases continuously
it does not change
A

It ceases suddenly

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23
Q

What is the most important difference between the action potential of the heart muscle and that of the skeletal muscle?

the AP of the heart muscle is shorter
the AP of the skeletal muscle has no plateau phase
the contraction of the heart muscle starts after the AP
the AP of the skeletal muscle overlaps its mechanogram

A

The AP of the skeletal muscle has no plateau phase

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24
Q

What answer is produced when the stimulus is given during the absolute refractory phase?
a new AP is generated
a new AP is produced when the stimulus is strong enough
no AP can be produced
AP is generated about 300 msecs later

A

No AP can be produced

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25
Which statement is correct for the relative refractory period? Only a slight stimulus may elicit a new AP no stimulus can elicit an AP a normal stimulus causes an AP only a very strong stimulus can elicit an AP
Only a very strong stimulus can elicit an AP
26
Which statement is correct for the supernormal phase? a very slight stimulus can provoke an AP only a strong stimulus elicits an AP AP cannot be elicited at all in this phase only serial stimuli elicit a new AP
A very slight stimulus can provoke an AB
27
``` In which phase of the AP can a stimulus cause life threatening ventricular fibrillation? absolute refractory period supernormal phase relative refractory period immediately after the diastole ```
Supernormal phase
28
``` What is the center of the nomotopic stimulus formation? septum Purkinje fibers sinoatrial node bundle of His ```
Sinoatrial node
29
Which formation generates the pacemaker activity in the heart? large round cells of the SA node elongated cells of the sinoauricular node sympathetic fibers parasympathetic fibers
Large round cells of the SA node
30
``` Which formation synchronizes and delays the pacemaker signal? large round cells of the SA node elongated cells of the SA node pacemaker cells of the SA node working muscle fibers ```
Elongated cells of the SA node
31
``` The depolarisation of the pacemaker cells begins at what potential? -90 mV -35 mV -55 mV +35 mV ```
-55 mV
32
``` What kind of ion channels function in the period of spontaneous diastolic depolarisation? Ih channels, slow Na- channels slow Na-channels fast Na-channels Ih channels, T and L-type channels ```
LH channels, T and L type channels
33
``` Which channels determine the 0 phase of the action potential of the pacemaker cells? fast Na-channels slow Na-channels Ih channels T and L-type Ca- channels ```
Fast Na-channels
34
What are the characteristics of the subendocardial conduction? the specialized fibre system projects deep into the ventricular muscle The specialized fibre system does not project deep into the ventricular muscle it occurs in large animals elongates the heart cycle
The specialized fibre system does not project deep into the ventricular muscle
35
What are the characteristics of the epicardial conduction? it occurs in small animals the specialized fibre system is on the surface of the ventricle the specialized fibre system projects deep into the muscles of the ventricle elongates the heart cycle
the specialized fibre system projects deep into the muscles of the ventricle
36
What is the function of the sinoatrial node? ventricular activation synchronizes atrial and ventricular contraction delays the conduction time nomotopic excitation
nomotopic excitation
37
What is the function of the atrioventricular node? delays the excitation synchronizing the contraction of the two ventricles nomotopic excitation fast ventricular activation
delays the excitation
38
``` What is the function of the annulus fibrosus? ventricular activation synchronization nomotopic stimulus generation heterotopic stimulus generation ```
Synchronization
39
What is the function of the His-bundle? delays the conduction of the stimulus nomotopic stimulus generation fast ventricular activation synchronization atrial and ventricular activity
Fast ventricular activation
40
Where is the conduction the slowest in the heart? in the ventricle in the His-bundle and the Tawara-stalk in the SA node in the AV node
In the AV node
41
Where is the conductance the fastest in the heart? in the His and Tawara bundles in the working muscle fibres in the ventricles in the atriovenrticular node
In the His and Tawara bundles
42
How does sympathetic stimulation affect the frequency of the heart? it decreases the frequency it increases the frequency there is no change first it increases, later it decreases
It increases its frequency
43
How does parasympathetic stimulation affect the frequency of the heart? it increases the frequency there is no change it decreases the frequency first it increases, later it decreases
It decreases the frequency
44
What mediates the sympathetic effect in the heart? cAMP concentration decreases inhibiting of the beta-1 receptor stimulating the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor stimulating the beta-1 receptor
Stimulating the beta-1 receptor
45
``` How does the AP of the heart change during sympathetic stimulation? the steepness of the SDD increases the MDP lowers the steepness of the SDD decreases the MDP does not change ```
The steepness of the SDD increases
46
How does the parasympathetic effect act in the heart? via beta-1 receptor stimulation via acetylcholine receptor stimulation by inhibiting the beta-1 receptors increasing the cAMP concentration
Via acetylcholine receptor stimulation
47
What nerval effect determines the heart function at rest? sympathetic inhibition sympathetic stimulation parasympathetic stimulation parasympathetic inhibition
Parasympathetic inhibition
48
What neural effects act on the heart in case of increased physical activity? increased sympathetic stimulation, reduced parasympathetic activity increased parasympathetic activity reduced sympathetic activity increased vagal stimulation
Increased sympathetic stimulation, reduced parasympathetic activity
49
What is the bathmotrop effect? an effect influencing frequency an effect influencing threshold an effect influencing force generation an effect influencing contractility
An effect influencing treshold
50
What is the dromotrop effect? an effect influencing frequency an effect influencing threshold an effect influencing conductance an effect influencing SDD
An effect influencing conductance
51
``` What is the inotrop effect? an effect influencing frequency an effect influencing threshold an effect influencing force generation an effect influencing SDD ```
An effect influencing force generation
52
``` What is the chronotrop effect? an effect influencing frequency an effect influencing force generation an effect influencing conductance an effect influencing threshold ```
An effect influencing frequency
53
How does the parasympathetic nervous system alter the activity of the heart? negative inotrop, chronotrop, positive dromotrop, bathmotrop effect negative inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect positive inotrop, chronotrop, negative dromotrop, bathmotrop effect
Negative inotrop, chonotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect
54
How does sympathetic nervous system alter the activity of the heart? negative inotrop, chronotrop, positive dromotrop, bathmotrop effect. negative inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect positive inotrop, chronotrop, negative dromotrop, bathmotrop effect
Positive inotrop, chronotrop, dromotrop, bathmotrop effect
55
What is characteristic of the electro-mechanical coupling in the heart muscle? its main element is the voltage sensitive channel on the membrane of the SR the process is started by the opening of the Na-dependent Ca channel its basis is the increase of the IC potassium level the stimulation of the DHP sensitive proteins
The stimulation of the DHP sensitive proteins
56
What directly starts the cross bridge cycling in the heart muscle? the calcium signal conformation change of the voltage dependent DHP receptor and T-tubulus opening of DHP-type Ca channels on the SP membrane pumping of the calcium into the SR
The calcium signal
57
What mechanisms make calcium flow out of the IC? ATP dependent calcium pump towards the EC, Na/Ca antiporter towards SR ATP dependent calcium pump towards the SR, Na/ Ca antiporter towards EC Na/Ca antiporter towards EC and SR ATP dependent Ca pump towards the SR and EC
ATP dependent calcium pump towards the SR, Na/Ca antiporter towards EC
58
Which of the following statements is false? regarding its function, the heart can be considered as an electric dipole a dipole can be described by a vector depolarization vector points from the positive to the negative direction an electrical signal has direction, measure and polarity
Depolarization vector points from the positive to the negative direction
59
``` Who constructed the first ECG equipment? A. L. Lavoisier. G. R. Kirchhoff. C. Bernard. W. Einthoven. ```
W. Einthoven
60
Which of the following statements is true? the sum of the voltage differences measured between the vertices of the equilateral triangle around the dipole is always zero. the sum of voltage differences measured between the vertices of the triangle around the dipole equals unity the Einthoven's lead is a unipolar lead the depolarization wave causes an upward defelction on the ECG
The sum of the voltage differences measured between the vertices of the equilateral triangle around the dipole is always zero
61
What is the principle of the bipolar lead? potential difference between two electrodes is compared to a third reference point potential difference between two electrodes placed on the surface of a dipol is measured potential difference between two electrodes is compared to a third neutral point potential difference between two electrodes is compared to standard voltage value
Potential difference between two electrodes placed on the surface of a dipole is measured
62
What can be seen in the oscilloscope during full depolarization? an upwards deflection a downwards deflection an isoelectric line - no deflection an irregular line
An isoelectric line - no deflection
63
What is the Einthoven's first lead? reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm
Reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm
64
What is the Einthoven's second lead? reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm
Reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg
65
What is the Einthoven's third lead? reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left leg reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on right leg reference electrode on right arm, measuring electrode on left arm
Reference electrode on left arm, measuring electrode on left leg
66
Why is the integral vector of the heart not zero? the measurement points do not form an exact triangle the stimulus passing between the atrium and the ventricle is slowing down the heart is asymmetric it has altering width of wall and the SA node is not in the middle speed of conduction is different in all directions
The heart is asymmetric it has altering width of wall and the SA node is not in the middle
67
With which state of the atrial activity does the ventricular depolarization coincide? depolarization activated state repose state repolarization
Repolarization
68
What does the T- wave describe on the ECG? atrial depolarization SA node depolarization ventricular repolarization atrial repolarization
Ventricular repolarization
69
What does the PQ segment describe on the ECG? SA node depolarization atrio-ventricular conduction ventricular depolarization atrial repolarization
Atrio-ventricular conduction
70
What does the QRS complex describe on the ECG? full atrial depolarization full repolarization ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization ventricular repolarization, atrial depolarization
Ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization
71
What makes the Q wave point downwards? ventricular depolarization spreads to the vertex of the heart repolarization of the right ventricle atrial repolarization ventricular depolarization spreads toward the base of the heart
Ventricular depolarization spreads toward the base of the heart
72
What does the S-T segment describe? full ventricular depolarization ventricle is fully repolarized atrium is depolarized, ventricle is repolarized full repolarization of the atria
Full ventricular depolarization
73
What does the T wave represent? atrial repolarization ventricular repolarization atrial depolarization ventricular depolarization
Ventricular repolarization
74
What does the T-P segment represent? complete atrial depolarization the beginning of ventricular repolarization complete repolarization, state of rest complete ventricular depolarization
Complete repolarization, state of rest
75
What is the essence of the unipolar lead? to measure the voltage fluctuation between a point of the chest and a limb to connect electrodes placed on the chest, and registers the integrated voltage fluctuations to measure the voltage of a single conduction point only to measure the voltage fluctuation between the examining electrode and a place of 0 potential
To measure the voltage fluctuation between the examining electrode and a place of 0 potential
76
Which type of ECG gives precise information about the heart's anatomical position? vector cardiography esophageal ECG His-Bundle ECG unipolar ECG
Vector cardiography
77
What causes heartsound I? Closure of semilunar valves Closure of cuspidal valves Sound of sudden ventricular filling Turbulent flow following atrial systole
Closure of cuspidal valves
78
``` What causes heartsound II? Closure of cuspidal valves Sound of sudden ventricular filling Closure of semilunar valves Turbulent flow following atrial systole ```
Closure of semilunar valves
79
``` Which wave cannot be registered on v. jugularis during the heart-cycle? Wave V Wave C Wave A Wave P ```
Wave P
80
``` How long is a complete heart- cycle in dogs? 800 msec 270 msec 530 msec 220 msec ```
800 msec
81
``` What percent of the ventricular volume gets to the periphery during the fast ejection phase of ventricular systole? 60 % 80 % 90 % 50 % ```
80%
82
Of the following elements of the heart-cycle which is the longest in time? isovolumetric relaxation isovolumetric relaxation ventricular systole atrial systole
Ventricular systole
83
``` Which is the shortest element of the heart-cycle? isovolumetric relaxation atrial systole fast phase of auxotonic contraction isovolumetric contraction ```
Isovolumetric contraction
84
``` Where is there no valve in the blood flow? v.cava - right atrium right atrium - right ventricle left atrium - left ventricle left atrium - aorta ```
Vena cava - right atrium
85
``` Where you could find tricuspid valves in the heart? left atrium - left ventricle right atrium - right ventricle left ventricle - aorta right ventricle - a. pulmonalis ```
Right atrium - right ventricle
86
``` Where you could find bicuspid valves in the heart? right atrium - right ventricle left ventricle - aorta left atrium - left ventricle right ventricle - a. pulmonalis ```
Left atrium - left ventricle
87
What vessel carries venous blood? a. radialis a. carotis communis v. pulmonalis a. pulmonalis
A. pulmonalis
88
What vessel carries arterial blood? v. pulmonalis a. pulmonalis v. cava cranialis v. portae
V. pulmonalis
89
How is the mechanical performance of the heart controlled by the nervous system tone? parasympathethic increases sympathethic increases sympathethic decreases no effect on the mechanical performance
Sympathetic increases
90
``` How does the nervous system influence the heart basal activity? sympathethic predominance parasympathethic inhibition parasympathethic dominance no effect on the basal activity ```
Parasympathetic dominance
91
What is typical for the serial elastic component? inhibits overextension of muscle it is linked parallel with the contractile elements it is stretched in diastole it is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole
It is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole
92
What is typical for the parallel elastic component? energy is stored in it due to the tension which is created by the blood flow-in it is relaxed in diastole and stretched in systole it is linked serial to the contractile elements inhibits over extension of muscle
Energy is stored in it due to the tension which is created by the blood flow-in
93
What is typical for the collagen-fiber system? it is linked serial to the contractile elements inhibits over extension of muscle it is stretched in diastole and relaxed in systole it has a fiber-mass value = 1
Inhibits over-extension of muscle
94
What is typical for the isometric phase of the heart activity? movement at the same tension SEC and PEC elements are tensed during this phase there is tension but no movement contractile elements are not contracting but are tensing
There is tension but no movement
95
What is typical for the isotonic phase of the heart activity? sudden tension of the collagen fibers no change in contraction of the contracting components during this phase there is tension but no movement there is movement but no change in tension
There is movement but no change in tension
96
What happens at the maximal loading of the heart? collagen fibers extend and display maximal resistance collagen fibers relax and reduce their resistance to minimal tension of contractile elements increase SEC and PEC components contract maximal
Collagen fibers extend and display maximal resistance
97
What conditions allow isotonic contraction? muscle can not move the load muscle can freely move the load muscle works against a spring muscle is supported to a certain length
Muscle can freely move the load
98
What condition is needed for isometric contraction? muscle can freely move the load muscle works against a spring muscle can not move the load muscle is supported to a certain length
Muscle can not move the load
99
What condition is needed for auxotonic contraction? muscle is supported to a certain length muscle can not move the load muscle can freely move the load muscle works against a spring
Muscle works against a spring
100
What type of muscle contraction can be demonstrated in the preload experiment? two components: first isometric, then isotonic two components: first isotonic, then isometric one component: isometric one component: isotonic
Two components: first isometric, then isotonic
101
What do we demonstrate in the "afterload" experiment? two different type of contractions: first isometric, then isotonic two different type of contractions: first isotonic, then isometric the isometric contraction the isotonic contraction
Two different types of contractions: first isotonic, then isometric
102
What physiological situation can we demonstrate with the preload experiment? heart keeps the balance with the peripheral resistance at the end of the contraction heart muscle reaches a certain length at the end of the systole, then is starts to constrict at the end of the diastole heart starts to constrict at the end of the diastole the heart keeps balance with the peripheral resistance
At the end of the diastole heart starts to constrict
103
What is the difference between the mechanogram of skeletal and heart muscle? The maximal tension in the heart muscle is at 1.9-2.6 micrometer sarcomere length The optimal sarcomere length is optimal for actin-myosin bridging at 1.9-2.6 micrometer sarcomere length Stretching skeletal muscle has significant energy reserves The heart muscle shows maximal tension at long sarcomeric length (2.5 micrometer)
The heart muscle shows maximal tension at long sarcomeric length (2.5 micrometer)
104
Why is there no maximal tension in the heart muscle at 2 micrometer sarcomere length? calcium is only sufficient for maximal tension at 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length calcium binding sites are 100% saturated below 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length below 2 micrometer not all the possible bridges can be formed there is not enough calcium due to maximal sarcomere length
Calcium is only sufficient for maximal tension at 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length
105
Which of the below is the sarcomere length of the heart at default function? 2.2 micrometers 1.9 micrometers 2.5 micrometers between 2-2.5 micrometers
1.9 micrometers
106
What is the reason for the difference between the length- tension diagram of heart and skeletal muscle? the sarcomere structure is different there is only a small amount of calcium in the skeletal muscle after stimulation calcium might enter the IC space in proportion to the extension of the heart muscle 2.5 micrometer sarcomere length is optimal for the heart to work
Calcium might enter the IC space in proportion to the extension of the heart muscle
107
What does the EDV stand for? stroke volume cardiac output volume at the end of systole volume at the end of diastole
Volume at the end of diastole
108
What does the ESV stands for? volume at the end of systole volume at the end of diastole cardiac output stroke volume
Volume at the end of systole
109
What does the SV stands for? volume at the end of diastole stroke volume volume at the end of systole cardiac output
Stroke volume
110
How can the stroke volume be calculated? End systolic volume - end diastolic volume (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x heart frequency end diastolic volume - end systolic volume end diastolic volume + end systolic volume
End diastolic volume - end systolic volume
111
Which of the parameters below describes the work of the heart? end systolic volume heart frequency stroke volume cardiac output
Cardiac output
112
Which equation describes the Cardiac Output? C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x frequency C.O. = (end systolic volume - end diastolic volume) x frequency C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) / frequency C.O. = (end diastolic volume + end systolic volume) x frequency
C.O. = (end diastolic volume - end systolic volume) x frequency
113
``` Who formulated the "law of the heart"? C. Bernard H. Starling A. L. Lavoisier W. Einthoven ```
H. Starling
114
Which are the most important components of the Starling's preparations? Intact systemic circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of lung circulation Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, intact systemic circulation Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system Intact lung circulation, intact heard, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system
Intact lung circulation, denervated heart, peripheral resistance instead of systemic circulation, reservoir instead of venous system
115
What happens when you increase the venous return in the Starling's preparation? Stroke volume does not change, frequency increases, cardiac output increases Stroke volume and frequency increase, cardiac output increases End diastolic volume increases, stroke volume and frequency do not change End diastolic volume increases immediately, then stroke volume and cardiac output increases, while frequency does not change
End diastolic volume increaes immediately, then stroke volume and cardiac output increases, while frequency does not change
116
What happens when you increase the peripheral resistance in the Starling preparation? End diastolic volume increases immediately, but stroke volume, frequency, and cardiac output do not change End diastolic volume increases immediately, stroke volume and frequency do not change, cardiac output increases Stroke volume does not change, frequency and cardiac output increases Stroke volume, frequency and cardiac output increases
End diastolic volume increases immediately, but stroke volume, frequency and cardiac output do not change
117
How does the Starling law apply in case of change in posture? The peripheral resistance changes when the animal stands up, or lies down Venous return changes when the animal stands up, or lies down Changing posture the altered frequency provides the immediate capability to adapt The systolic reserve provides the background of the higher heart performance
Venous return changes when the animal stands up or lies down
118
What is the heterometric autoregulation? During one cycle the same amount of blood is pumped out from the left and right heart The different blood volumes entering the left and right side of the heart requires no compensation Higher amount of blood pumped out from one side of the heart dilates the other side, as well, which makes the heart able to pump more blood increased venous return decreases the work of the heart
Higher amount of blood pumped out from one side of the heart dilates the other side as well, which makes the heart able to pump more blood
119
What does the Starling "heart law" tell us? The performance of the heart is equal even in changing conditions Increased venous return does not alter the performance of the heart Increased expansion of the heart muscle increases the performance of the heart slightly Increased expansion of the muscle increases the performance of the heart significantly
Increased expansion of the muscle increases the performance of the heart significantly
120
What does the compliance of the heart depend on? the inherent abilities of the heart muscle to dilate the end systolic pressure only the peripheral blood pressure the peripheral blood pressure has no effect
The inherent abilities of the heart muscle to dilate
121
What is the correlation between EDV and SV values? Negative correlation Positive correlation Logarithmic correlation no correlation
Positive correlation
122
Which parameters influence the end diastolic volume? diastolic filling time, contractility, aortic pressure ventricular compliance, diastolic filling time, contractility ventricular compliance, ventricular preload, diastolic filling time ventricular compliance, aortic pressure, diastolic filling time
Ventricular compliance, ventricular preload, diastolic filling time
123
Which parameters influence the end systolic volume? Venous blood pressure, duration of the systole, contractility ventricular compliance, contractility, duration of the systole contractility, duration of the systole contractility, aortic pressure
Contractility, aortic pressure
124
How does age affect the compliance? Decreases with age Increases with age Compliance curve is shifted to the right in old age Ventricular compliance is not altered by age
Decreases with age
125
``` What is the ratio of adult and young EVDP to reach the same EVD? 1.5 to 1 2 to 1 3 to 1 4 to 1 ```
2 to 1
126
``` Which formula can be used to derive the peripheral resistance? Q = delta P / R Q = C.O. / R Q=R/C Q = delta P x R ```
Q = delta P / R
127
What is the critical closing pressure? the pressure at which muscles of vessels relax the pressure at which vessels collapse due to their tone the pressure at which resistance of vessels decrease the pressure at which the myogenic tone of vessels increase
The pressure at which vessels collapse due to their tone
128
What does the Laplace-law state? The pressure is a function of wall tension The pressure is determined by the radius of the hollow organ keeping a given pressure inside a spherical container is influenced by the radius Q = delta P x R
Keeping a given pressure inside a spherical container is influenced by the radius
129
How does the viscosity of the blood change with the increase of the hematocrit value? the change is determined by the diameter of the red blood cells it does not change it decreases it increases
It increases
130
What is characteristic of laminar flow? liquid layers slide over each other smoothly the maximum velocity of the flow occurs close to the wall of the tube vortex development the flow is determined by the velocity, density and viscosity of the fluid, and the diameter of the tube
Liquid layers slide over each other smoothly
131
Which of the following is not true for turbulent flow? it can be described by the Reynold's number liquid layers slide over each other smoothly when the Reynold's number is over 3000 the flow is turbulent liquid layers mix due to vortex formation
Liquid layers slide over each other smoothly
132
What is the physiological importance of laminar flow? while moving in the parietal stream blood cells decrease their resistance it stimulates heart work the slow flow rate alongside the walls of the vessels enables material exchange due to the faster flow rate alongside the walls of vessels the blood cells do not stick to the wall
The slow flow rate alongside the walls of the vessels enables material exchange
133
What is the function of the arterial section of the circulation? enhances the capacity of the circulation acts as a reserve for blood forms an exchange surface builds up resistance
Builds up resistance
134
What is the function of the capillary section of the circulation? enhances the capacity of the circulation acts as a reserve for blood forms an exchange surface builds up resistance
Forms an ion exchange surface
135
Which units belong to the serially attached elements of the circulation? Arteries, veins Capillaries of separate organs Arteries, capillaries, veins Arteries of separate organs
Arteries, capillaries, veins
136
With which formula can you calculate the total resistance of the serially attached elements of the circulatory bed? sum of the reciprocal resistance of the elements the difference of the smallest and largest resistance resistance of the elements should be multiplied by each other sum of elementary resistances
Sum of elementary resistances
137
What is the role of the Windkessel function? it insures a continuous flow of blood it stabilizes the blood pressure in the aorta keeps the pressure constant during systole/ diastole in the large arteries during diastole the aorta can actively pump blood to the periphery
It insures a continuous flow of blood
138
What determines the tone of resistance vessels? myogenic tone myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone myogenic and sympathetic vasodilator tone sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone
Myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone
139
``` Where is the highest number of elastic elements? arterial end of capillary muscular arteries aorta arterioles ```
Aorta
140
``` Which blood vessels are the most important resistance segments? aorta muscular arteries capillaries arterioles ```
Arterioles
141
``` In which vessels can resistance be adjusted? in muscular arteries in capillaries in the aorta in veins ```
In muscular arteries
142
Where can continuous capillaries be found? in liver and hemopoietic tissues in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands in renal glomeruli
In muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs
143
Where can fenestrated capillaries be found? in liver and hemopoietic tissues in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands in renal glomeruli
In the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands
144
Where can porous capillaries be found? in liver and hemopoietic tissues in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands in renal glomeruli
In renal glomeruli
145
Where can sinusoid capillaries be found? in liver and hemopoietic tissues in muscle, skin, central nervous system and the lungs in the mucosa of intestines and endocrine glands in renal glomeruli
In the liver and hemopoietic tissues
146
What characterizes the capillaries of the skin? lamina basalis serves as a barrier for ions single-layered, continuous endothelium ability of contraction lack of pore-like intracellular channels
Single-layered continuous endothelium
147
What characterizes the capillaries of the intestinal mucosa? thin endothel layer free transport of substances small and large pores reflection of all proteins
Small and large pores
148
What characterizes the capillaries of the kidney? small and large pores lamina densa has a strong positive charge lamina basalis serves as a barrier for ions the large round gaps in it enable free transport of substances
The large round gaps in it enable free transport of substances
149
What characterizes the capillaries of the hemopoietic organs? place of transport is the Disse-space thin endothel layer ability of contraction lamina densa has a strong negative charge
Place of transport is the Disse-space
150
``` Which type of capillary is the most common in the body? porous continuous fenestrated sinusoid ```
Continuous
151
``` From the following, which is not a venule type? postcapillary collecting elastic muscular ```
Elastic
152
What is the peculiarity of veins? they are not all able to contract actively veins only with a diameter larger than 5 cm can store significant amount of blood they have an important role in maintaining blood pressure they expand without resistance, and then suddenly they resist
They expand without resistance and then suddenly they resist
153
What is true for the parallelly connected sections of the circulation? the total resistance of the elements is smaller than that of the individual organs the total resistance is equal to that of the organs the total resistance is hardly greater than that of the organs the total resistance is equal to 1/Rt = (1/ R1 + 1/R2 +... 1/Rn) xn
The total resistance of the elements is smaller than that of the individual organs
154
Which units are part of the parallelly connected parts of circulation? arteries, capillaries and veins the circulatory bed of the individual organs arteries, veins capillaries of different organs
The circulatory bed of the individual organs
155
How does the diameter of the individual vessels change in the different sections? diameter of vessels decrease to arterioles, then radically increase to capillaries, then continuously grows up to the big veins the diameter of vessels continuously decrease from the aorta to the capillaries, then it does not change diameter of vessels radically decrease from the aorta to the capillaries, while from the capillaries to the vena cava the change is in the opposite direction diameter of arteries and veins is the order of cm, while that of the capillaries is the order of mm
Diameter of vessels radically decrease from the aorta to the capillaries while from the capillaries to the vena cava the change is in the opposite direction
156
How does the total diameter of the vessels change in the different sections? total diameter of arteries and veins is hardly smaller than that of capillaries total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the total diameter of large arteries total diameter of capillaries is 100 times greater than the diameter of the aorta total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the diameter of the aorta
Total diameter of capillaries is 600-1000 times greater than the diameter of the aorta
157
``` In which section can the most blood be found? in veins in capillaries in arteries in arterioles ```
In veins
158
``` What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in capacity vessels? 90 % 79 % 11 % 60 % ```
79%
159
What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in resistance vessels? 2% 79 % 11 % 30 %
11%
160
``` What percentage of the circulating blood can be found in the heart? 40 % 1% 22 % 10 % ```
10%
161
What maintains blood pressure? work of the heart and the resistance of peripheral system the work of the heart solely the Windkessel function of the aorta the myogenic and sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone of arterioles
Work of the heart and the resistance of peripheral system
162
Which of the following factors is not significant in maintaining blood pressure? elasticity of vessels hemoglobin content of the blood cardiac output peripheral resistance
Hemoglobin content of the blood
163
``` What is the value of the systolic blood pressure? 10.7 kPa 6 kPa 16 kPa 12 kPa ```
16 kPa
164
``` How much is the value of diastolic blood pressure? 12 kPa 6 kPa 16 kPa 10.7 kPa ```
10.7 kPa
165
What is pulse- pressure? difference between diastolic and systolic pressure simple average of systolic and diastolic pressure quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure static pressure on the vessels
Difference between diastolic and systolic pressure
166
What is mid- pressure? difference between diastolic and systolic pressure corrected average of systolic and diastolic pressure quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure static pressure on the vessels
Corrected average of systolic and diastolic pressure
167
What is ordinary respiratory pressure? difference between diastolic and systolic pressure simple average of systolic and diastolic pressure static pressure on the walls of the vessels quotient of systolic and diastolic pressure
Static pressure on the walls of the vessels
168
What determines the value of mid- pressure the most? static pressure of blood circulating quantity of blood elasticity of the vessels cardiac output and the peripherial resistance
Cardiac output and peripheral resistance
169
What determines most the pulse- pressure? cardiac output and arterial compliance total quantity of circulating blood cardiac output static pressure of blood
Cardiac output and arterial compliance
170
How does the increase of heart rate influence blood pressure? it decreases blood pressure it has no effect on blood pressure it increases blood pressure it becomes fluctuating
It increases blood pressure
171
How does the increase of peripheral resistance influence peripheral effusion? it decreases it continuously, then effusion increases after some minutes it has no effect on peripheral effusion it increases peripheral effusion it decreases peripheral effusion, then after some cycles of the heart the original cardiac output is restored
It decreases peripheral effusion, then after some cycles of the heart the original cardiac output is restored
172
How does the increase of arterial blood volume influence blood pressure? pulse pressure and mid-pressure increase systolic pressure increases diastolic pressure increases static pressure on the vessels increases
Pulse pressure and mid-pressure increase
173
How does expansion of blood- vessels change in the elderly? in a healthy individual age does not influence the elasticity of the vessels pulse-pressure increases, compliance decreases compliance increases elasticity decreases
Pulse-pressure increases, compliance decreases
174
Where can the highest value of blood pressure be measured? in the arteries in the a. pulmonalis in the left ventricle and in the aorta in the right ventricle
In the left ventricle and in the aorta
175
Where can the lowest value of blood pressure be measured? in the right ventricle venous side of the capillary in the left atrium in the right atrium
In the right atrium
176
What causes the notch on the descending side of the arterial pulse wave? reflection pressure static pressure the difference in the pressure between two points of the artery dimmed effect of systolic pressure
Reflection pressure
177
``` How much is the velocity of pulse- wave? 40 cm/sec 7 m/sec 0.3 mm/sec 1.2 m/sec ```
7 m/sec
178
How does the value of pressure-pulse change towards the periphery? it decreases first it increases, then later it decreases it increases it does not change
It increases
179
How does the value of flow-pulse change from the aorta towards the small arteries? it does not change first it increases, then it decreases it increases it decreases
It decreases
180
On which section of the circulation does pulse-wave attenuate? in the metarterioles in the capillaries in the small arteries in the venule
In the metarterioles
181
How does the value of mid-pressure change towards periphery? it increases it decreases continuously first it decreases, then it increases it does not change
It decreases continuously
182
On which section of the circulation does blood flow become continuous? in the capillaries in the small arteries after the metarterioles in the venule
In the metarterioles
183
Which process is dominant in the material exchange? transcytosis resorption filtration diffusion
Diffusion
184
What process determines the interstitial volume? filtration/resorption diffusion filtration filtration, diffusion
Filtration/resorption
185
On which interface do we find single muscle sphincter? small arterioles - metarteriola metarterioles - capillary small arterioles - capillary capillary - venule
Metarterioles - capillary
186
``` What is the percentage of capillaries that are open during resting state? 1-2 % 10-20 % 5-10 % 50 % ```
5-10%
187
How much time does the total gas exchange in capillaries during resting state take? 400-500 msec 1 sec 20-30 msec 200-300 msec
200-300 msec
188
Which of the following factors does not influence the measurement of diffusion? number of red blood cells concentration gradients permeability surface area
Number of red blood cells
189
How large is the water transport by diffusion? 0.6 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue 300 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue 0.06 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue 30 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue
300 ml/sec/100g of tissue
190
How large is the water transport with filtration and resorption? 0.6 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue 300 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue 0.06 ml/ sec/ 100 g of tissue 30 ml/ sec/ 1 g of tissue
0.06ml/sec/100g of tissue
191
Which of the following substances do not move by diffusion? small molecular weight metabolites the small molecular weight nutrients gases proteins
Proteins
192
Which of the following substance exchange is limited by its diffusion capability? proteins glucose gases small molecular nutrients
Proteins
193
How does the the oxygen diffusion change in the capillaries? the partial pressure of the O2 linearly decreases as it flows towards the veins the partial pressure of the O2 rapidly decreases as it flows towards the veins the partial pressure of the O2 slightly decreases as it flows towards the veins the partial pressure of the O2 increases as it flows towards the veins
The partial pressure of the O2 rapidly decreases as it flows towards the veins
194
What is typical of the flow dependent material exchange? the concentration increases in a small degree toward the venous side of capillaries the concentration in the capillaries increases significantly towards the venous capillaries it has a crucial importance in the case of easily diffusing substances the growing flow rate reduces the substance deposition toward the tissues
It has crucial importance in the case of easily diffusing substances
195
What is typical of the diffusion limited transport? the concentration does not change alongside the capillaries the concentration rapidly increases in the tissue toward the venous side of the capillaries it is typical of the transport of the easily diffusing substances capillary transit time influences the rate of transport of large molecules
Capillary transit time influences the rate of transport of large molecules
196
What do we call Starling forces? all the forces that play a role in the formation of the effective filtration pressure all the forces that affect the oncotic pressure all the facts that regulate the capillary permeability all the facts that affect the effective hydrostatic pressure
All the forces that play a role in the formation of the effective filtration pressure
197
What is typical for capillaries? in the arterial capillaries filtration, in the venous resorption occurs in some of the capillaries filtration, in others resorption happens because of the loss of fluid the hydrostatic pressure decreases towards the venous side of the capillary the effective filtration pressure is constant alongside the capillaries
In some of the capillaries filtration, in others resorption happens
198
How can we calculate the effective filtration pressure? on the basis of the difference between the oncotic pressure in the capillary and the blood pressure on the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and oncotic pressure on the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure it is the product of the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure
On the basis of the difference between the effective hydrostatic pressure and the effective oncotic pressure
199
What determines the filtration rate? the oncotic pressure of the plasma the hydrostatic pressure of the interstitium the hydrostatic pressure of the plasma the effective filtration pressure and the capillary permeability
The effective filtration pressure and the capillary permeability
200
Which formula describes filtration rate? Q= P effective x filtration coefficient of the capillary Q= P hydrostatic x coefficient of the capillary filtration Q= P effective / coefficient of the capillary filtration Q= (P onc.- P hidr.) x coefficient of the capillary filtration
Q = P effective x filtration coefficient of the capillary
201
How much surplus filtrate is produced normally? 1-2 ml / 100 kg 10-15 ml / 100 kg 3-4 ml / 100 kg 30-40 ml / 100 kg
3-4 ml/100kg
202
What happens with the filtrate surplus at the interstitium? the veins carry it away it increases the oncotic pressure in the interstitium it increases the hydrostatic pressure in the interstitium the lymph vessels carry it away
The lymph vessels carry it away
203
What is the most important fact which plays a role in the maintenance of the venous circulation? the work of the heart the presence of the valves the peripheral resistance the gravitation
The work of the heart
204
How does the venous blood pressure change? it is low in the small veins and the venules but grows toward the right atrium it decreases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium it increases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium it does not change between the venules and the big veins but then it decreases suddenly
It decreases constantly from the venules toward the right atrium
205
What is the most important factor in the extrinsic regulation of the circulation? local autoregulation nutritive demand of the tissues the regulated contractile state of resistance and capacitance vessels the effects of the parasymphatetic tone on the blood vessels
The regulated contractile state of resistance and capacitance vessels
206
What happens when the blood pressure drops in an organ of high metabolic rate? the tissue is damaged nutrient supply to the cells decrease vessel contraction compensates this change normal perfusion is restored by adaptive vessel relaxation
Normal perfusion is restored by adaptive vessel relaxation
207
What happens if the blood pressure increases in a given organ of steady metabolic rate? because of the compensatory contraction of the vessels the normal perfusion is restored because of the relaxation of the vessels the blood pressure decreases the metabolic rate increases in the tissues oedema evolves
Because of the compensatory contraction of the vessels the normal perfusion is restored
208
In which range can the autoregulation restore normal perfusion? 90-110 Hgmm 40-140 Hgmm 80-120 Hgmm 20-240 Hgmm
40-140 Hgmm
209
What is the Bayliss- effect? the circulation is under endocrine control the constant midpressure of the arteries ensures microcirculation increase of heart frequency in case of atrial expansion the vessels reply to the decrease of pressure with relaxation
Increase of heart frequency in case of atrial expansion
210
What plays a role in the local adjustment of perfusion? simply the laws of physics parasymphathetic neural regulation symphathetic neural regulation myogenic answer
Myogenic answer
211
What role does the endothel layer have in the regulation of perfusion? the factors produced by it influence contraction state of the muscular layer of the vessels the NO produced by it contracts the vessels the EDCF produced by it increases the blood flow ERDF production of smooth muscles is stimulated
The factors produced by it influence contraction state pf the muscular layer of the vessels
212
How do smooth muscle elements react to acetylcholine in the walls of blood- vessels with a continuous endothel? contraction indirect relaxation direct relaxation EDCF mediated contraction
Indirect relaxation
213
What determines the diameter of blood-vessels? the quantity of acetylcholine and other factors in the plasma hormone producing ability of the endothel cell the equilibrium of the sympathetic vasomotor tone and NO production the metabolic state of the smooth muscle of the blood vessel
The equilibrium of the sympathetic vasomotor tone and NO production
214
What stimulates NO synthesis? release of endothelins decreased bradikinin, histamine levels decreased adenosine concentration increased adenosine concentration
Increased adenosine concentration
215
Which substance is not part of the EDCF-family? substance P cyclooxigenase dependent factors endothelins angiotensin-II
Substance P
216
What changes take place in the tissues when their metabolic rate increases? partial pressure of oxygen increases in the tissue due to the indirect effect of EC metabolites perfusion increases concentration of EC metabolites decreases perfusion with their humoral signals enothel cells decrease perfusion
Due to the indirect effect of EC metabolites perfusion increases
217
What is hyperaemia? susceptibility to bleeding increased hematocrit value local increase of perfusion high blood pressure
Local increase of perfusion
218
When can we speak of active hyperaemia? when increased perfusion is generated locally to compensate the decrease of systemic blood pressure when increased perfusion is due to the increase of systemic blood pressure when increased perfusion is a secondary effect when perfusion increases parallelly with the increase of local metabolic rate
When perfusion increases parallelly with the increase of local metabolic rate
219
In what ways can the decreased partial pressure of O2 influence perfusion? primarily by stimulating NO release decreased partial pressure of O2 acts only indirectly on smooth muscle mediated by an increased partial pressure of CO2 by increasing hydrogen concentration
Primarily by stimulating NO release
220
Where is the pressor center located? in the caudal region of the reticular formation in the dorsolateral region of the reticular formation in the caudomedial region of the reticular formation in the lateral region of hypothalamus
In the dorsolateral region of the reticular formation
221
Where is the depressor center located? in the caudal region of the reticular formation in the dorsolateral region of reticular formation in the ventromedial region of the reticular formation in the medial region of hypothalamus
In the ventromedial region of the reticular formation
222
What is true for depressor effect? it causes vasoconstiction in the periphery has a positive chronotrop and dromotrop effect has spontaneous activity which decreases heart rate it is mediated by n.vagus
It is mediated by n.vagus
223
What is true for pressor effect? has spontaneous activity, and it is mediated by the thoracolumbar sympathetic neurons it causes vasodilatation has a negative chronotrop and dromotrop effect it is mediated by n.vagus
Has spontaneous activity and it is mediated by the thoracolumbar sympathetic neurons
224
What is the effect of sympathetic nervous system on the resistance vessels? general vasoconstriction vasodilatation in skeletal muscle, vasoconstriction in the splanchnic region general vasodilatation vasoconsriction in skeletal muscle, vasodilatation in the splanchnic region
Vasodilatation in skeletal muscle, vasocontriction in the splanchnic region
225
What is the effect of sympathetic nervous system on the capacitance vessels? vasodilatation mild vasoconstriction a little increase in sympathetic tone evokes immediate strong contraction has little or no effect
A little increase in sympathetic tone evokes immediate strong contraction
226
Of the following organs which is under parasympathetic control? resistance vessels skeletal muscle arterioles skin vessels heart
Heart
227
What is the role of parasympathetic system in the adjustment of the diameter of blood vessels? no significant effect strong vasodilator effect mild vasoconstrictor effect strong vasoconstrictor effect
No significant effect
228
In which organ can indirect parasympathetic vasodilatation be found? corpora cavernosa salivary gland uterus pancreas
Salivary gland
229
In which organ can direct parasymathetic vasodilatation be found? salivary gland skin uterus liver
Uterus
230
What is the effect of a small quantity of epinephrine on the blood vessels? general constriction coronary constriction dilatation in skin, constriction in skeletal muscle and splanchnic regions dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions
Dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions
231
What is the effect of a large quantity of epinephrine on the blood vessels? generalized vasoconstriction dilatation in skeletal muscle, constriction in skin and splanchnic regions dilatation in skin, constriction in skeletal muscle and splanchnic regions coronary constriction
Generalized vasoconstriction
232
What is the effect of norepinephrine on the blood vessels? beta-adrenergic constriction alpha-adrenergic constriction alpha-adrenergic dilatation beta-adrenergic dilatation
Alpha-adrenergic constriction
233
What did the Heymans experiment prove? the presence of volume receptors the presence of osmotic receptors the presence of baroreceptors the presence of gas receptors
The presence of baroreceptors
234
How does blood pressure change after the destruction of baroreceptors? blood pressure does not change substantially blood pressure increases beyond 180 mmHg blood pressure decreases below 80 mmHg blood pressure fluctuates between 40-170 mmHg
Blood pressure fluctuates between 40-170 mmHg
235
In case of what blood pressures does baroreceptor reflex regulate? between 50-170 mmHg below 80 mmHg over 120 mmHg between 80-120 mmHg
Between 50-170 mmHg
236
What defensive processes act below 50 mmHg blood pressure? maximal parasympathetic effect, ceasing sympathetic activity continuous maximal sympathetic and ceasing parasympathetic activity in different parts of the organism simultaneously either increased parasympathetic or increased sympathetic activity can be observed slow increase in sympathetic activity
Continuous maximal sympathetic and ceasing parasympathetic activity
237
What kind of protecting processes begin above 17O mmHg blood pressure? continuous maximal sympathetic and discontinued parasympathetic activity mixed sympathetic and parasympathetic activities maximal parasympathetic effect, discontinued sympathetic activity slight parasympathetic increase
Maximal parasympathetic effect, discontinued sympathetic activity
238
Where are baroreceptors located? glomus caroticum a. pulmonalis glomus aorticum arcus aortae
Arcus aortae
239
Where are oxygen sensitive receptors located? glomus aotricum a. pulmonalis sinus caroticus arcus aortae
Glomus aotricum
240
``` What kind of effects are responsible for vasodilation? increasing parasympathetic effect decreasing sympatethic effect increased tissue oxygen concentration decreased tissue CO2 level ```
Decreasing sympathetic effect
241
In which animal do we find sympathetic cholinergic vasodilatation? in birds in ruminants in dog and cat in horse and pig
In dog and cat
242
What mechanism acts against hypervolemia? a peptide that is produced in the left ventricle increases sodium excretion ANP is produced and it decreases sodium excretion ADH is produced and increases water loss decreased ADH and increased ANP production
Decreased ADH and increased ANP production
243
What is the Bainbridge reflex? increasing volume of the atria increases heart frequency if it was low previously increasing volume of the atria decreases heart frequency it is the same as the Starling mechanism it is a depressor reflex
Increasing volume of the atria increases heart frequency if it was low previously
244
How is cardiovascular and respiratory interrelated? the decrease of the pO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation the increase of the pCO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation the increase of the pCO2 in the glomus caroticum causes significant sympathetic activation the decrease of the pO2 in the medulla causes significant parasympathetic activation
The increase of the pCO2 in the medulla causes significant sympathetic activation
245
In the long run what is the most important regulator of coronary circulation? the actual stage of the heart cycle the aortic pressure change the metabolic state of the heart the arterial mean pressure
The metabolic state of the heart
246
In which phase of heart cycle does the blood flow backward in the coronary artery? never slow ejection fast ejection fast filling
Fast filling
247
what phase of the heart cycle gets more blood into the coronary artery? diastole systole slow filling fast ejection
Diastole
248
What characterizes the regulation of brain circulation? the perfusion is kept constant in different regions of the brain the intravasal / EC volume is kept constant mostly the sympathetic innervation regulates the ampleness of vessel the principal local regulator is the pO2
The intravasal / EC volume is kept constant
249
In which range of mean pressure is the brain circulation constant? 90-110 mmHg 80-120 mmHg 30-200 mmHg 60-160 mmHg
60-160 mmHp
250
What is the most important role of the skin circulation? supporting heat balance blood storing function covering the high oxygen and nutrient demand of this organ enlarging the resistance segment of the circulation
Supporting heat balance
251
What characterizes the splanchnic circulation? extensive metabolic autoregulation low capacity double circulation, portal system myogenic autoregulation
Double circulation, portal system
252
Among the following statements which is true for the splanchnic circulation? low capacity the liver has no significant reservoir function the autoregulation has primary role main regulator is the vasoconstrictor tone
The main regulator is the vasoconstrictor tone
253
What characterizes the fetal circulation? the left ventricle pumps 20% larger volumes than the right ventricle two-thirds of blood flows to cranial areas from the aorta the pressure of the pulmonary artery is 5 mmHg higher than the pressure of the aorta O2 saturation of the a. umbilica is 85%
The left ventricle pumps 20% larger volumes than the right ventricle
254
Which are the structural proteins of the muscle? actin and myosin actin, myosin, micro and intermediary filaments contractile proteins microfilaments
Actin, myosin, micro and intermediary filaments
255
What is the primary energy store for the muscle? creatinphosphate ATP glycogen lipids
Creatinphosphate
256
Which muscle has the biggest quantity of creatinphosphate? heart muscle smooth muscle and striated muscle skeletal muscle smooth muscle
Skeletal muscle
257
What are the functions of elastic elements in the muscle? decrease heat loss decrease resistance they prevent excess shortening they support the work of the muscle passively
They support the work of the muscle passively
258
What kind of stripes and zones are in the sarcomere? Z-stripe, H-zone, M- stripe A-stripe, Z-stripe H-zone, M-stripe, I- stripe A-stripe,M-zone, Z- stripe
Z-stripe, H-zone, M-stripe
259
What is the fibrillum? unit part of the sarcomere muscle fibres in a muscle elementary contraction unit muscle cells
Muscle fibres in a muscle
260
In which list do you find a protein which is not a component of a sacromere? actin, titin, nebulin meromyosin, actinin, titin titin, nebulin, alpha-actinin, actin, myosin, troponin, tropomyosin alpha-actinin, nebulin, troponin, albumin
Alpha-actinin, nebulin, troponin, albumin
261
What is the function of the tropomyosin? stimulates the myosin ATP-ase enzyme covers the active surface of actin it has Ca binding capaticy gides the actin fibre
Covers the active surface of actin
262
What is the troponin complex? complex protein which stimulates the myosin ATP-ase enzyme a single protein which have Ca binding capacity complex protein which fixes myosin complex protein which sets the position of tropomyosin
Complex protein which sets the position of tropomyosin
263
What do the myosin isotypes determine? The efficiency of sarcomere The angle of moving The power of muscle What thickens the muscle fibre
The efficiency of sarcomere
264
What does the crossbridge cycle start? The tropomyosin is slipped The calcium signal The activity of myosin ATPase The magnesium
The calcium signal
265
``` How many times does the intracytoplasmic calcium level grow during activation? 10 x 1000 x 200 - 600 x 50 x ```
200-600 x
266
What is the calcium transient? Ca influx Ca outflux Ca influx, plateau, pumping out of the intracytoplasmic space Ca outflux induced by decreasing calcium level
Ca influx, plateau, pumping out of the intracytoplasmic space
267
What happens if the ATP is taken away from the system? The muscle stops in relaxed state The head of myosin can not bind to the actin Permanent, inactive contraction The myosin moves and separates from actin
Permanent, inactive contraction
268
What happens if the calcium is taken away from the intracytoplasmic space? Muscle relaxation The head of myosin links to the actin Permanent, inactivate contraction happens The myosin does not separate from actin
Muscle relaxation
269
What occurs in the sarcomere, when the ATP-ase cleaves the bound ATP? The head of myosin binds to the actin Energy discharge, the head of the myosin moves The tropomyosin is moved from activate points of actin The myosin separates from actin
Energy discharge, the head of the myosin moves
270
What binds to the TnC non-specific binding site? Calcium Tropomyosin Magnesium Sodium
Magnesium
271
What links to the TnC specific binding site? Calcium Tropomyosin Magnesium Sodium
Calcium
272
What happens if a calcium signal is present? The myosin separates from actin The head of myosin bends to 55 degrees The head of myosin detaches from actin The TnC binds calcium and the myosin binding site of the actin is exposed
The TnC binds calcium and the myosin binding site of the actin is exposed
273
What happens when ADP and Pi is released from the acto-myosin complex? a two-step bending of the myosin head (40 plus 5 degrees) a three-step bending of the myosin head (40 plus 5 plus 15 degrees) a one-step bending of the myosin head (55 degrees) a two-step bending of the myosin head ensuring altogether a 15 nm sliding
A two-step bending of the myosin head (40 plus 5 degrees)
274
What's the physiological background of rigor mortis? there is too much ATP present ATP is not available there is too much calcium present calcium is missing
ATP is not available
275
What is true for cross bridge cycling? a lot of heads are moving in synchronized form repetitive pendular movement is present for all myosin heads an asynchronous movement of thousands of myosin heads occur synchronous ATP cleavage is present in all light chains of myosins
An asynchronous movement of thousands of myosin heads occur
276
What is true for electromechanic coupling? it lasts from the arrival of muscle AP to the development of a twitch it is the generation AP in the myoneural junction it is the calcium release through effect of the AP it is the depolarization of the myolemma
It lasts from the arrival of muscle AP to the development of a twitch
277
What happens with the intracytoplasmic calcium level when a twitch occurs? the calcium level is increased continuously the calcium level is constantly high the calcium level increases, reaches a plateau and then decreases the calcium level is increased and then stays constant until the next AP
The calcium level increases, reaches a plateau and then decreases
278
What is the connection between the AP and the calcium maximum? The maximum of calcium level coincides with AP The maximum of calcium level preceeds the AP The calcium level is not influenced by AP The maximum of calcium level is reached after AP
The maximum of calcium level is reached after AP
279
In which muscle type can we find a "diad"? In the heart muscle In the skeletal muscle In the smooth muscle in all types of muscles
In the heart muscle
280
What happens in the triads? Chemical signal is transformed to electrical signal Electrical signal is transformed to chemical signal Ca efflux from the cell Release of ryanodin as a transmitter
Electrical signal is transformed to chemical signal
281
What type of channel can we find on the membrane of the terminal cysternae? Voltage dependent calcium channel L-type calcium channel Ryanodine sensitive calcium channel There is no channel, but a voltage dependent membrane protein on this membrane
Ryanodin sensitive calcium channel
282
What happens if the ryanodine sensitive calcium canal is opened? Ca influx from EC to cells Ca influx into the SR Ca influx from EC to IC Ca influx from SR to IC
Ca influx from the SR to IC
283
How can the calcium signal attenuate its own effect? positive feedback: it opens the calcium pumps to EC and SR negative feedback: it opens more sodium channels it stimulates the Ca-Na symporter it inhibits the ATPase depedent pumps
Positive feedback: it opens the calcium pumps to EC and SR
284
What is aequorin? Reaction of this material with calcium forms a visible precipitate Reaction of this material with a calcium channel emmits a light signal a ryanodine receptor blocking agent a protein channel for calcium
Reaction of this material with a calcium channel emmits a light signal
285
What are "sequesters"? Cell organelles that pump calcium into the EC Transport proteins Intracellular calcium storing sites Voltage dependent channels
Intracellular calcium storing sites
286
What pumps calcium back into the SR? Ryanodin sensitive calcium channels Carrier proteins Voltage dependent calcium channels ATP dependent calcium channels
ATP dependent calcium channels
287
What pumps calcium into the EC? Ryanodin sensitive calcium channels Na-Ca symporter Voltage dependent calcium channels Sodium/calcium antiporter proteins
Sodium/calcium antiporter proteins
288
During long-term muscle work energy for the muscle is provided by: anaerobic glycolysis or aerobic glycose oxidation anaerobic glycolysis and aerobic glycose oxidation fat oxidation protein decomposition
Anaerobic glycolysis or aerobic glycose oxidation
289
How long is sufficient for the energy to be stored in form of ATP? for 2-3 hours for 2-3 seconds for 2-3 minutes for 20-30 seconds
For 2-3 seconds
290
How long is sufficient the energy stored as creatinine-phosphate? for 2-3 hours for 2-3 seconds for 20-30 seconds for 2-3 minutes
20-30 sec
291
Why does anaerobic glycolysis have to cover the sudden, intensive energy requirement? because enzymes of aerobic glucose oxidation are not present because aerobic glucose oxidation produces less energy because aerobic glucose oxidation is initially inhibited because aerobic glucose oxidation is a very slow process
Because aerobic glucose oxidation is a very slow process
292
What is the source of anaerobic glycolysis in case of excessive stress? glycogen fat glucose and later fats lactic acid
Glucose and later fats
293
What will be the fate of lactic acid produced during glycolysis? it will be burnt in aerobic processes it will be excreted through liver it will be stored in the muscle it will be entering the Cori-cycle in the liver
It will be entering the Con-cycle in the liver
294
What is the disadvantage of oxidative processes? the rate of ATP production is very low too much CO2 is produced toxic materials are released insufficient amount of ATP is produced
The rate of ATP production is very low
295
What kind of muscle tissue is especially suitable for FFA burning? skeletal-muscle heart muscle smooth muscle and skeletal-muscle skeletal-muscle and heart muscle
Heart muscle
296
What is meant by paying back the oxygen debt? muscle consumes less oxygen in resting state fast twitch muscles consume more energy after external work stops oxygen consumption of all muscle types is in direct proportion to their working intensity fast twitch muscle fibres do not utilize oxygen at all and so they accumulate oxygen
Fast twitch muscles consume more energy after external work stops
297
What kind of muscle accumulates a great oxygen debt? red muscle smooth muscle white muscle heart muscle
White muscle
298
What is the effect of lactic acid in the muscle? it is an energy storing compound it is the final product of aerobic glucose oxidation it is that final product of anaerobic glycolysis which stimulates sarcomeric activity it is that final product of anaerobic glycolysis which has a direct inhibiting effect on sarcomeric activity
It is that final product of anaerobic glycolysis which has a direct inhibiting effect on sarcomeric activity
299
What are the characteristic properties of white fibres? quick, powerful contraction, anaerobic glycolysis slow, permanent contraction, anaerobic glycolysis quick, powerful contraction, aerobic oxidation processes slow, permanent contraction, aerobic oxidation processes
Quick, powerful contraction, anaerobic glycolysis
300
What are the characteristic properties of red fibres? quick, powerful contraction, anaerobic glycolysis quick, powerful contraction, aerobic oxidation processes slow, permanent contraction, anaerobic glycolysis slow, permanent contraction, aerobic oxidation processes
Slow, permanent contraction, aerobic oxidation processes
301
How can you tell whether a whole muscle fibre belongs to the white or red group? by measuring the strength of the muscle by counting the ratio of white and red filaments in muscle by measuring the length of the whole muscle by counting the number of sympathetic fibers innervating the whole muscle
By counting the ratio of white and red filaments in the muscle
302
What types of fibers exist in skeletal muscle? pink and red red pink and white red and white
Pink and white
303
What is the color of slow twitch fibers? pink and red pink and white red red and white
Red
304
What is the ratio between myoneural junction/filaments in fast twitch fibers? many filaments one nerve some filaments(2-3) one nerve grape like near to one filament/one nerve ratio
Near to one filament/one nerve ratio
305
What is the ratio between myoneural junction/filaments of red fibers? many filaments, one nerve some filaments(2-3), one nerve many filaments, one nerve with grape-bunch like innervation one filament, one nerve
Many filaments, one nerve with grape-bunch like innervation
306
``` What is the contraction time of red fibers? 2 ms 20 ms 10 ms 200 ms ```
200 ms
307
What is the contraction time of pink fast fibers? 20 ms 2 ms 200 ms 10 ms
20 ms
308
what is the contraction time of the quickest white fibers? 2-3 ms 10 ms 20 ms 200 ms
2-3 ms
309
What is true for the fatigue of fast twitch fibers? slow there is no fatigue quick medium
Quick
310
What is true for the fatigue of slow twitch fibers? there is almost no fatigue quick medium slow
There is almost no fatigue
311
What type of metabolism do you find in red muscles? anaerobic oxidative mixed only fat burning exists
Oxidative
312
What do we mean by "quantal summation"? the increase of tension is given by the intracytoplasmic calcium level increase the increase of tension is given by the sum of the contractions of many fibres the increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions the maximal contraction and the summation which caused this contraction
The increase of tension is given by the sum of the contractions of many fibres
313
What do we mean by "contraction summation"? the increase of tension is given by the sum of the contraction of many fibres the increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions the increase of tension is determined by the increased calcium level the maximal contraction and the summation forms which caused this contraction
The increase of tension is determined by the increased calcium level
314
What do we mean by "Treppe"? the increase of tension is given by the sum of the contraction of many fibres the increase of tension is given by the intracytoplasmic calcium level decrease the maximal contraction and the summation forms which caused this contraction the increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions
The increase in the power of contraction is the consequence of the fact that the calcium has no time to leave the cytoplasm after the previous contractions
315
What can we learn from the the speed-tension diagram? the working power of the muscle the measure of the stretch of the muscle the output of the muscle the length of the maximal stretch of the muscle
The output of the muscle
316
What can we learn from the length-tension diagram? the working power of the muscle the measure of the stretch of the muscle the output of the muscle the length of the maximal stretch of the muscle
The working power of the muscle
317
What is the physiological role of the heat production of the muscle? it has no significant role, it mainly means a loss it has significant role in maintaining the coat temperature only heat production through shivering has a significant role it has a physiological role in maintaining core temperature
It has a physiological role in maintaining core temperature
318
``` How many main components make up the total work of the muscle? 3 1 4 2 ```
2
319
What is the contraction/length domain of the optimal muscle workload? medium tension/rest length medium tension/ minimal length maximal tension/rest length minimal length/ maximal tension
Medium tension/rest length
320
When do phasic fast fibres produce a great quantity of heat? under restitution under active contraction under passive tension only under "Treppe"
Under restitution
321
When do red slow tonic fibres produce a great quantity of heat? under restitution under passive tension under active contraction only in relation with the initial heat production
Under active contraction
322
What type of metabolism is there in white phasic fibres? oxidative mixed anaerobic there is only fat oxidation
Anaerobic
323
What type of metabolism is there in pink phasic fibres? oxidative anaerobic there is only fat oxidation mixed
Mixed
324
How long is a fibre in pink phasis fibres? very long middle sized very short short
Middle sized
325
``` What is the length of a fibre in white phasic fibres? middle sized very short very long short ```
Very long
326
What is the fibre-length in red tonic fibre? very long middle sized short varying
shorty
327
Which muscle type contains the most collagen fibres? the heart muscle the skeletal muscle the plain muscle the skeletal and the heart muscle
The heart muscle
328
What is a "twitch"? muscle relaxation muscle tremor continuous muscle contraction the refractory state of the muscle
Muscle tremor
329
Which statements below is correct? the calcium transient occurs concurrently with AP, there is no biological delay the calcium transient follows an AP, the biological delay does not occur here the calcium transient does not directly follow AP, there is biological delay AP is followed by calcium transient with no delay
The calcium transient follows an AP, the biological delay does not occur here
330
What is isometric contraction? only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not both the length and tension change the muscle overstretches only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not
Only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not
331
What is isotonic contraction? only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not both the length and tension change the muscle overstretches
Only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not
332
What is auxotonic contraction? only the length of the muscle changes, but the tension does not both the length and tension change only the tension changes, the length of the muscle does not the muscle overstretches
Both the length and tension change
333
What arrangement suits the "preload" circumstances? a load is put on the muscle a load is put on the muscle and free movement of muscle is restricted with the use of a frame a load is put on the muscle, passive flexing is allowed to a certain degree, then the load is proped up free movement of muscle is hindered with a load
A load is put on the muscle, passive flexing is allowed to a certain degree, then the load is proped up
334
Which arrangement suits the "afterload" circumstances? A load is put on the muscle a load is put on the muscle and we the passive stretching is hindered with a support free movement of muscle hindered with a load a load is put on the muscle and free contraction is hindered with a buffer
A load is put on the muscle and free contraction is hindered with a buffer
335
What do we mean by "all-or-none" law? in a single fiber maximal contraction is caused by an adequate stimulus, a smaller stimulus does not produce contraction all muscle fibre contractions are caused by one single stimulus the stimulus does not produce answer in all cases the total muscle either contracts maximally or does not respond at all
In a single fiber maximal contraction is caused by an adequate stimulus, a smaller stimulus does not produce contraction
336
Does the muscle produce heat in rest? Not at all Yes, this heat is a small contribution to the total heat production Yes, this is the BMR Yes, this heat production makes most of the BMR
Yes, this heat production makes most of the BMR
337
BMR
Basic metabolic rate - the rate of energy expenditure per unit time by endothermic animals at rest
338
the activation heat belongs to which stage of heat production? to the initial heat production to the resting heat production to the delayed heat production to the BMR of muscle
To the initial heat production
339
Where does the activating heat production originate from? calcium pump and cross bridge cycling electromechanical coupling onset of stimulus replenishment of used up energy
Electromechanical coupling
340
Which is larger in the fast glycolytic fiber? The initial heat production is larger than activating heat production The delayed heat production is larger than activating heat production The initial heat production is larger than delayed heat production Contraction heat production is larger than activating heat production
The initial heat production is larger than delayed heat production
341
``` What is the efficiency of the skeletal muscle? 30 % 15 % 7% 20 % ```
20%
342
``` What is the maximal speed of frame muscle? 7 m/sec 30 m/sec 15 m/sec 20 m/sec ```
7 m/sec
343
Why do the muscles get tired in physiological circumstances? Result of transmitter deficiency Metabolic by-products accumulate The oxygen supply is not adequate Capacity of oxidative enzymes is not enough
Metabolic by-products accumulate
344
What is the first sign of fatigue on the mechanogram? The muscle does not relax Reduced amplitude of contractions The muscle only react on bigger stimulus The muscle does not react on any stimulus
Reduced amplitude of contractions
345
What is happening when the muscle is working in an oxygenated atmosphere in vitro? After the muscle gets tired, it needs a long time to recover The muscle does not recover from exhaustion restitution is quick after the muscle gets tired The muscle can not be exhausted
Restitution is quick after the muscle gets tired
346
What is happening when the muscle is working in a nitrogen atmosphere in vitro? After the muscle gets tired, it needs a long time to recover Restitution is quick after the muscle gets tired The muscle gets never tired The muscle cannot recover after fatigue
The muscle cannot recover after fatigue
347
Which type of muscles get tired the most easily? White muscle Whole muscle Smooth muscle Red muscle
White muscle
348
Which type of muscles get tired least easily? White muscle Red muscle Whole muscle Smooth muscle
Red muscle
349
What mediates the effect of acetylcholine on the muscle membrane? Muscarinic receptor G-protein receptor Nicotinic receptor Transmembrane enzyme
Nicotinic receptor
350
what occurs when acetylcholine binds? sodium-channel closes Ligand-dependent cation channel closes sodium-channel opens Ligand-dependent cation channel opens
Ligand-dependent cation channel opens
351
What does opening of cation channel cause after the binding of acetylcholine? It induces the generation of End Plate Potential Hyperpolarization Cation outflow Closure of thesodium-channel
It induced the generation of End Plate Potential
352
``` What does the rate of muscle fiber and nerve fiber depend on? Length of muscle Exercise of muscle Number of muscle fibres The working ability of muscle fiber ```
Exercise of muscle
353
What is happening right after the nervous AP arrives at the myoneural junction? acetylcholine is filling the synaptic junction The muscle fiber is contracting Calcium enters the synaptic knob from the EC The ligand- dependent cation channel is opening on the muscle fiber's membrane
Calcium enters the synaptic know from the EC
354
Where is acetylcholine produced? On the post synaptic membrane In the axon In nerve cell body In the synaptic junction
In the synaptic junction
355
How many subunits does the ligand-dependent acetylcholine receptor make in the muscle? 5 4 3 2
5
356
What kind of subunits does the acetylcholine-dependent receptor have in the muscle? 2 alpha, 3 beta 2 alpha, 2 beta, 1 delta 5 alpha 4 beta, 1 alpha
2 alpha, 2 beta, 1 delta
357
What kind of subunits does the acetylcholine-dependent receptor have in the CNS? 2 alpha, 3 delta 2 alpha, 3 beta 5 alpha 4 beta, 1 alpha
2 alpha, 3 beta
358
What is the difference between the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor of muscle and central nervous system? There is no difference The muscle has got 4 and the nerve has got 5 subunits The nerve has no delta subunit Only the nerve receptor is sensitive to the curare
The nerve has no delta subunit
359
What is happening right after the calcium enters the synaptic knob? Calcium causes IP3 increase The acetylcholine is released to the synaptic split Calcium activates the vesicles Calcium activates the protein system which binds the vesicula to the presynaptic membranes binding sites
Calcium activates the protein system which binds the vesicula to the presynaptic membranes binding sites
360
What is the MEPP? One quantum of acetylcholine induces 1 mV End Plate Potential One type of AP Voltage dependent channel's opening induces the potential changing Maximal End Plate Potential
One quantum of acetylcholine induces 1mV End Plate Potential
361
What kind of AP is generated, when the muscle fiber membrane's voltage dependent sodium channels is open? Amplitude fluctuates, frequency is equal to growing amount of acetylcholine Amplitude is permanent, frequency is proportional to the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic knob Amplitude is uniformly decreasing Amplitude is uniformly increasing
Amplitude is permanent, frequency is proportional to the amount of acetylcholine released from the presynaptic knob
362
What degrades acetylcholine? acetylcholine- hydrolase acetylcholine-lyase acetylcholine-esterase acetylcholine- hydroxylase
Acetylcholine-esterase
363
What happens to choline after acetylcholine release? It is used up by the nerve cell during its energy producing processes it is eliminated from the organism it is further metabolized after presynaptic reuptake it is used for acetylcholine synthesis
After presynaptic reuptake it is used for acetylcholine synthesis
364
What inhibits the binding of acetylcholine? the high extracellular magnesium level the low extracellular magnesium level the high intracellular calcium level the low intracellular calcium level
The high extracellular magnesium level
365
How can you inhibit acetylcholine- esterase activity? curare eserine bungarotoxin magnesium
Eserine
366
What does curare inhibit? the acetycholine- esterase the excretion of acetylcholine the generation of the end plate potential the binding of acetylcholine to the receptor
The generation of the end plate potential
367
What has an effect similar to curare? eserine the high EC magnesium level the high intracytoplasmic calcium level botuline and bungarotoxin
Botuline and bungarotoxin
368
What causes myasthenia gravis? there aren't or there are only a few acetylcholine receptors, or they don't work because of autoimmune processes too many acetylcholine receptors too much acetylcholine- release the function of voltage-dependent sodium channels is defective
there aren't or there are only a few acetylcholine receptors or they don't work because of autoimmune processes
369
How can you cure myasthaenia gravis? with curare with acetylcholine- esterase inhibitors with infusion of magnesium with bungarotoxin
with acetylcholine-esterase inhibitors
370
What composes the motor unit? motor unit = myoneural junction the axon ending on the muscle fibre's membrane the nerves supplying the muscle and the muscle itself the nerves supplying the muscle
The nerves supplying the muscle and the muscle itself
371
What belongs to the large motor unit? tonic fibres tonic fibres and nerves the red muscle fast fibers
fast fibres
372
What belongs to the small motor unit? slow twitch fibres fast fibres fast and slow twitch fibres the white muscle fibres
slow twitch fibres
373
How can you describe the conductivity of the small motor unit's nerves? slow fast very fast average
fast
374
How can you describe the conductivity of the large motor unit's nerves? slow fast very fast average
very fast
375
How can you describe the excitability of the large motor unit's nerves? very difficult to stimulate average easy to stimulate difficult to stimulate
Difficult to stimulate
376
How can you describe the excitability of the small motor unit's nerves? easy to stimulate very difficult to stimulate average difficult to stimulate
Easy to stimulate
377
What is not true regarding the small motor unit's muscles? their metabolism is oxidative their stretchability is good they are slow they don't get tired
Their stretchability is good
378
What is not true regarding the large motor unit's muscles? their metabolism is anaerobic they are quick their fibre length is small they get tired easily
Their fibre length is small
379
On what level do the small and the large motor unit differ? They already differ at the level of the truncus cerebri they don't differ only at the level of the fibres both at the level of the spinal alfa motor neurons and at the level of the fibres
Both at the level of the spinal alfa motor neurons and at the level of the fibres
380
What is true for the intrafusal fibre? It is a specialized, stretch sensitive, and to some extent, contractile fibre it accounts for the main mass of the skeletal muscle it is tendon receptor it is a pain sensitive fibre
It is a specialized, stretch sensitive, and to some extent, contractile fibre
381
What is true regarding extrafusal fibres? They exist as a few, muscle-stretch sensitive fibres working muscle fibres, which give the main mass of skeletal muscle they are tendon receptors they are pain sensitive fibre-types
working muscle fibres, which give the main mass of skeletal muscle
382
What kind of receptor is found in the tendon? extrafusal fibre intrafusal fibre Golgi-receptor Meissner-receptor
Golgi receptor
383
What kind of afferents start from the nuclear chain receptor? dynamic dynamic and static special static
Static
384
Where are the nuclear bag and nuclear chain receptors? in the intrafusal fibres in the extrafusal fibres in the tendon in the axon endings
In the intrafusal fibres
385
What is the servo- mechanism of the muscle? it is a spinal feedback mechanism, which prevents contraction it is a reflex ensuring smooth muscle movement at the spinal level it is a reflex of the extrafusal fibres it is a cerebellar reflex
It is a reflex ensuring smooth muscle movement at the spinal level
386
What is coactivation? it is a reflex exclusively governed by the spinal cord it is a reflex exclusively governed by the sensory cortex the concurrent activation of alpha and gamma motoneurons it is a reflex exclusively governed by the alpha motoneurons
The concurrent activation of alpha and gamma motoneurons
387
Which receptor discharges more frequent afferent AP when the muscle is overstretched? Intrafusal fiber Extrafusal fiber Nuclear chain receptor Golgi receptor
Golgi receptor
388
What discharges more frequent afferent AP with increasing load of the muscle? Intrafusal fibres Only the Golgi receptor Extrafusal fibres None of them
Intrafusal fibres
389
What happens when the contraction exactly follows the motor command? Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with the same strength but not the same speed Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with same speed and same strength Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with the same speed but not with the same strength Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with differing speed and strength
Intrafusal and extrafusal fibres contract with same speed and same strength
390
What's the main function served by the smooth muscle? Moving the skeleton Moving the skeleton and setting the volume of hollow organs Moving inner organs and setting the volume of hollow organs they can be found in sphincters only
Moving inner organs and setting the volume of hollow organs
391
What is not typical of single-unit smooth muscles? There are no gap junctions connecting the fibres to each other Each fibre or small group of fibres has its direct innervation Fast and exact movements They form a functional syncytium
They form a functional syncytium
392
What is not typical of multiple - unit smooth muscle? There are no gap junctions connecting the fibres to each other Just a very few nerves are going to the functional syncytium It is present in m. Ciliaris they form a functional syncytium
There are no gap junctions connecting the fibres to each other
393
What is MLCK (myosin light chain kinase) enzyme responsible for in smooth muscle? For relaxation For starting the cross - bridge cycle and for sustained contraction For energy supply of the muscle For mobilization of energy stored in glycogen
For starting the cross-bridge cycle and for sustained contraction
394
What is myosin phosphatase enzyme responsible for in smooth muscle? For starting the cross - bridge cycle and for contraction For contraction For producing relaxation For binding ATP to myosin
For producing relaxation
395
What happens in smooth muscle when myosin phosphatase is inhibited? Muscle relaxes immediately Muscle contracts maximally Muscle relaxes after a short contraction Muscle remains in a contracted state
Muscle remains in a contracted state
396
What does "latch" mechanism mean in connection with the function of smooth muscle? Immediate relaxation of the muscle in case of overstraining Muscle's reaction to a strong stimulus is not relaxation but contraction Muscle relaxes after a short contraction Muscle contracts without energy investment because of the MLCK mechanism
Muscle contracts without energy investment because of the MLCK mechanism
397
What is the function of myosin phosphatase in smooth muscle? It expels calcium from the IC compartment and causes relaxation this way Dissociates the phosphoryl group from actomyosin thereby producing relaxation It activates the sliding filament mechanism sustains continuous cross bridge cycling
Dissociates the phosphoryl group from actomyosin thereby producing relaxation
398
Is the "all-or-none" law true for smooth muscle? No, because smooth muscle functions as a syncytium Yes No, because smooth muscle is in a continuous, slight contraction Yes, just like skeletal muscle
No, because smooth muscle is in a continuous, slight contraction
399
What adjusts the ratio of active MLCK/MP? EC calcium level IC magnesium level Energy-supply of the muscle IC calcium level
IC calcium level
400
What increases the MLCK enzyme activity in smooth muscle? Saturation of calmodulin by the rising calcium level Calcium concentration of EC Calcium concentration of IC Increasing irritability of the muscle
Saturation of calmodulin by the rising calcium level
401
What does a myogenic answer mean? Stretching of an extensor causes relaxation of a flexor muscle Straining of the smooth muscle causes automatic contraction in some of the organs Relatively slight stimulus can cause contraction it is the same as the reflex relaxation
Straining of the smooth muscle causes automatic contraction in some of the organs
402
What is reflex relaxation? Stretching of the smooth muscle is followed by decreased tension in some of the organs Relatively slight stimulus can cause contraction Straining the smooth muscle causes visceral pain Straining causes a gradually rising contraction
Stretching of the smooth muscle is followed by decreased tension in some of the organs
403
What does not elicit contraction in smooth muscle? Effect of a neural AP Chemical ligands Beta-2 receptor stimulation and NO release Calcium release from sequesters
Beta-2 receptor stimulation and NO release
404
What doesn't induce relaxation in smooth muscle? Phosphorylation by MLCK Chemical ligand binding to ligand- dependent calcium channel Beta-2 receptor stimulation and NO release Increasing MP (Myosin Phosphatase) activity
Chemical ligand binding to ligand dependent calcium channel
405
What kind of receptor is not present in the single-unit smooth muscle? Muscarinic ACh- receptor Nicotinic ACh- receptor Beta-2 receptor Beta-1 receptor
Nicotinic ACh-receptor
406
Which one of these muscles is not a single-unit smooth muscle? Bronchial muscles m. ciliaris Gastrointestinal muscles Muscles of the blood vessels
M.ciliaris
407
Which ligand causes smooth muscle contraction? Acetylcholine NO Adenosine ATP
Acetylcholine