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Physiology MCQ > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements belong to Claude Bernard?
pricking of the third ventricle can increase the blood sugar
the liver and the muscle contain glycogen
pancreatic juice contains carbohydrate- splitting enzymes
the heart is the center of circulation

A

The liver and the muscle contain glycogen

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2
Q

What are the characteristics of environmental stability?
isovolaemia, isothermia, isohydria, isoionia

isoionia, isovolaemia, isometria, isotonia

isotonia, isohydria, isovolaemia, isoionia

isohydria, isothermia, isotonia, isoionia

A

Isotonia, isohydria, isovolaemia, isoionia

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3
Q

What does isotonia mean?
constant ionic composition

constant pH

constant water content of the blood plasma

constant osmotic pressure

A

Constant osmotic pressure

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4
Q 
Who created the idea of "milieu interieur" ?
Cl. Bernard
A. L. Lavoisier
W. Harvey
K. Landsteiner
A

Cl. Bernard

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5
Q

What does isohydria mean?

constant osmotic pressure

constant pH

constant water content of the blood plasma

constant ionic combination

A

constant pH

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6
Q

What does isovolaemia mean?

constant osmotic pressure

constant ionic composition

constant volume

constant pH

A

constant volume

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7
Q

What does isoionia mean?
constant ionic combination

constant osmotic pressure

constant pH

constant water content of the blood plasma

A

constant ionic combination

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8
Q

How do water molecules occur in the cells?

in four molecular clusters

bound to proteins

entirely dissociated

forming irregular clusters

A

in four molecular clusters

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9
Q

Which pair below represents the two most important types of barriers?

plasma membrane, nuclear membrane

cell membrane, capillary wall

blood-brain barrier, epithelial membrane

cell membrane, epithelial membrane

A

cell membrane, capillary wall

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10
Q

What is typical of the cell membrane in terms of permeability?

it is a non-selective membrane

it works as a dialysing membrane

it is only permeable for water and selective for many other materials

it is not permeable to water

A

it is only permeable for water and selective for many other materials

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11
Q

What is a compartment?

anatomical space

part of the anatomical space

the fluid volume of an organ

a complex term is not identical with the anatomical space

A

a complex term is not identical with the anatomical space

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12
Q 
What percentage of the body's mass is water?
60-65%
30-40%
80-90%
10-20%
A

60-65%

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13
Q 
What percent of the blood is water?
75 %
90 %
22 %
10 %
A

90%

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14
Q

What is typical of the capillary wall in terms of permeability?

it withholds all material except colloids

it is only permeable to water

it is permeable to colloids

it only keeps out the colloids and is permeable all other material

A

it only keeps out the colloids and is permeable to all other materials

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15
Q

What kind of materials make up those parts of the membrane which determine the transport?

mostly carbohydrates

steroid compounds

lipids and complex proteins

heavy metals and calcium

A

lipids and complex proteins

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16
Q

What is typical of the facilitated diffusion?

it is a type of passive transport

it is a type of active transport

it belongs neither to the active nor the passive transport group

it can be regarded as active and passive transport

A

it is a type of passive transport

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17
Q

Which statement is true concerning material transport across membranes?

receptors are not involved

membrane channels are involved in this process

it runs exclusively with the help of carrier proteins

complex proteins are not involved

A

membrane channels are involved in this process

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18
Q

What is typical of active transport?

its biological importance is negligible

it can work only by using indirect energy sources

it can work only by using direct energy sources

facilitated diffusion is a major representative of this type of transport

A

it can work only by using a direct energy source

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19
Q

Which statement is true for extracellular space?

it is uniformly distributed between the EC and the IC space

it is not part of the total water space

it is about 65% of the total water space

it is about 35% of the total water space

A

it is about 35% of the total water space

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20
Q

What is true for the volume of interstitial space of soft tissues?

it is 120-150 ml/kg bwt

it is less than the fibrotic tissue space

its value is it is 250 ml/ kg bwt

it is less than the volume of the plasm

A

it is 120-150 ml/kg bwt

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21
Q

Which statement concerning the total water space is correct?

it is about 60 ml/kg bwt

most of it is plasma water

its major part is the intracellular space

it is uniformly distributed between the EC and the IC space

A

its major part is the intracellular space

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22
Q

How can you calculate the volume of the intravascular space?

plasma volume + transcellular space

interstitial space - transcellular space

extracellular space - (interstitial space + transcellular space)

plasma volume - red blood cell volume

A

extracellular space - (interstitial space - transcellular space)

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23
Q

What is typical for intracellular space?

it is a uniform space

it consists of one compartment

it contains two spaces

it can be regarded as uniform, though it consists of many smaller compartments

A

it can be regarded as uniform, though it consists of many smaller compartments

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24
Q

What is typical for the extracellular space?

it does not involve the interstitial space

it is not a uniform space

it is the biggest part of the transcellular space

substracting from it the transcellular space results in the interstitial space

A

it is not a uniform space

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25
Q

Which one of the following statements is valid for the Stewart dilution principle?

during the application of the principle there is no need to make any difference between living organisms and inorganic systems

it is the general method of the determination of fluid compartments

with the help of this method, the velocity of the moving fluid in biological systems can be determined

when using this method an indicator of unknown amount is carried in the investigated system

A

it is the general method of the determination of fluid compartments

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26
Q

What kind of factors should be investigated during the use of Stewart dilution principle in living organisms?

in practice non metabolisable, non extractable substances are used which do not cross the barriers

there is no need to take the extracted amount of substance into account

no such substance is known which could comply with all of the requirements

the sample is taken immediately after the administration of the indicator

A

no such substance is known which could comply with all the requirements

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27
Q

What is typical of the transcellular space?

it is isolated from the other compartments of the EC space by an epithelial membrane

its volume is 150 ml/kg bwt

it is a single anatomical space

it is the volume of the gastrointestinal tract

A

it is isolated from the other compartments of the EC space by an epithelial membrane

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28
Q

What method can be used for quantifying the total body water?

tritiated water or antipirin

only with quantifying density

inulin

exsiccation at 50(C

A

tritiated water or antipirin

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29
Q

What kind of operation is made during calculation based on the Stewart dilution principle?

Co is determined by measurement

S is determined by extrapolation

the outflown amount of S gives the actual concentration of the given substance

V = (S given in- S flowed out) / Co

A

V = (S given in - S flowed out) / Co

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30
Q

How can the volume of the interstitial compartment be determined?

by the injection of a substance which leaves the blood stream completely, but unable to cross cell membranes

with the help of Na, Cl, Br isotopes

in an indirect way (EC- intravasal volume)

by the injection of Evans-blue

A

in an indirect way (EC - intravasal volume)

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31
Q

What is the meaning of LBM (lean body mass)?

the amount of the fat in the body

total body water

total body mass

fat free body mass

A

fat free body mass

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32
Q

Which one of the following can be a possible method of the determination of total body water?

Evans-blue injecting based on the dilution principle

dehydration of the organism until it is a constant mass at a temperature of 105 C

it can be calculated after the estimation of fat content of the body

quantifying the density of the tissue in vitro

A

dehydration of the organism until it is a constant mass at a temperature of 105 C

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33
Q

How can the volume of the extracellular compartment be determined?

it can not be quantified based on the dilution principle

with the help of Na, Cl, Br isotopes

with antipirin

with mannitol, inulin and tritiated water

A

with the help of Na+, Cl-, Br+ isotopes

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34
Q

Which one of the following statements is valid for the fat free body mass?

its water content is 73 % of the body mass

its water content is varying significantly

its density is varying

fat free body mass= TBW x 0.73

A

its water content is 73% of the body mass

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35
Q

What kind of properties should an appropriate indicator of the extracellular compartment own?

it can permeate the cell membrane, but can not permeate the capillary wall

it can not permeate the cell membrane and the capillary wall

it can permeate the capillary wall, but can not permeate the cell membrane

it can permeate the cell membrane and the capillary wall as well

A

it can permeate the capillary wall, but cannot permeate the cell membrane

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36
Q

What kind of substance is suitable for the determination of the intravascular compartment?

131-I albumin

a substance which permeates the capillary wall

inulin

no such substance exists

A

131-I albumin

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37
Q

What kind of distribution occurs during determination of the extracellular compartment?

the slow period of distribution is followed by a rapid one

it consists of 5 well distinguished periods

monophasic

it consists of more phases

A

it consists of more phases

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38
Q

How can the intracellular compartment be determined?

it can be measured only directly

IC = TBW / EC

it can be measured only by calculation

IC = TBM - EC

A

it can be measured only by calculation

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39
Q

What method can the intracellular compartment be measured with?

inulin is used for its determination

Evans-blue is used for its determination

in practice for its determination a substance is used which exits in total amount in the interstitium

no such substance exists, by which it can be measured

A

no such substance exists, by which it can be measured

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40
Q

Which one of the following statements is valid for the blood cell compartment?

it is part of the transcellular compartment

Evans-blue is not suitable for its determination

its determination is possible only from the value of the plasma compartment

its determination is not possible with marked red blood cells

A

Evans-blue is not suitable for its determination

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41
Q

Which one of the following statements is true?

the maintainance of isovolaemia of the EC compartment is primary

the primary task is the originating of isosmosis between EC and IC

the composition of ions between EC and IC compartments are balanced in a few minutes

the movement of water is promoted by active transport

A

the primary task is the originating of isosmosis between EC and IC

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42
Q

Which one of the following statements is true?

water is made to move by osmotic and hydrostatic forces

the maintainance of isosmosis of the intracellular compartment is secondary towards the maintainance of isovolaemia

the osmolality of the IC and EC is equalized in a few hours

capillary wall is the main barrier in the movement of water

A

water is made to move by osmotic and hydrostatic forces

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43
Q

When can hypovolaemia develop?

its hyperosmotic form develops in hemorrhage

endocrine dysfunction can not play a role in its development

its hyperosmotic form develops in case of decreased evaporation

its isosmotic form does not develop in case of changes in salt intake

A

its isosmotic form does not develop in case of changes in salt intake

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44
Q

In what kind of form can hypervolaemia develop?

its hypoosmotic form can develop because of ADH overproduction

its hyperosmotic form can not develop because of fluid intake

its hypoosmotic form is oedema

its hyperosmotic form is charasteristic of diabetes insipidus

A

its hypoosmotic form can develop because of ADH overproduction

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45
Q

When can hypovolaemia develop?

its hyperosmotic form develops when burning occurs

its isosmotic form develops in hypoadrenocorticalism

its isosmotic form develops in diarrhoea

in diabetes insipidus none of its forms develop

A

its isosmotic form develops in diarrhoea

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46
Q

Which statement is characteristic of the regulating process of the fluid compartments?

the movement of substances starts in a few hours after the changes

it is more difficult for the organism to tolerate the volume shifts than to tolerate the shifts in isosmolality

the balance between the osmolality of EC and IC is a result of the “shift”

the development of isovolaemia can last for 1-2 weeks

A

the balance between the osmolality of EC and IC is a result of the shift

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47
Q

When can hypervolaemia develop?

its isosmotic form can develop because of ADH overproduction

its hypoosmotic form can develop because of exaggerated water uptake as well

its hyperosmotic form is oedema

its hypoosmotic form is charasteristic of diabetes insipidus

A

its hypoosmotic form can develop because of exaggerated water uptake as well

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48
Q 
How much is the concentration of urea in the blood plasma?
4-5 mmol/l
3-15 mmol/l
15-30 mmol/l
3-10 mmol/l
A

3-10 mmol/l

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49
Q

What is characteristic of “shift”?

its result is that isovolaemia will be originated first

it can influence the balance of the osmolality of EC and IC only very slowly

it does not influence the balance of the osmolality of EC and IC

it means the circulation of the osmotically active substance

A

it means the circulation of the osmotically active substance

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50
Q 
How much is the concentration of Na-ions in the plasma?
144 mmol/l
140 mmol/l
110 mmol/l
95 mmol/l
A

140 mmol/l

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51
Q 
How much is the concentration of glucose in mammals (except ruminants)?
4-5 mmol/l
2-3 mmol/l
3-10 mmol/l
4-5 g/l
A

4-5 mmol/l

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52
Q

How much is the value of the oncotic pressure?

kb. 1.6 kPa
4. 3-5.7 kPa
1. 2-1.5 kPa
2. 7-3.4 kPa

A

2.7-3.4 kPa

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53
Q

How can the proteins get across the wall of the capillary?

by transcellular way, with cytosis

through the interendothelial channels and with diffusion

only through diffusion

they can not get through at all

A

by trancellular way, with cytosis

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54
Q 
How much is the concentration of Cl- ions in the plasma?
27 mmol/l
150 mmol/l
110 mmol/l
5 mmol/l
A

110 mmol/l

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55
Q 
What is HPLC?
ion exchange chromatography
affinity chromatography
a type of liquid chromatography
a type of electrophoresis
A

a type of liquid chromatography

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56
Q 
Which one is the most important process of material exchange?
pino- or exocytosis
diffusion
transcellular processes
receptor mediated uptake
A

diffusion

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57
Q

Which components of blood plasma can be separated by paper- electrophoresis?

all proteins of plasma

albumin and subclasses of globulins

alpha-, beta- and gammaglobulins

albumin and fibrinogen

A

albumin and fibrinogen

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58
Q

What is the reflection coefficient?

the ratio of particles passing across the membrane

it is the measure of permeability

it gives the pressure, which is needed by the particle to cross the membrane

it is the concentration of permeable substances

A

it is the measure of permeability

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59
Q 
Where are betaglobulins produced?
in the epithelium
in the liver
in the plasma cells
in the bone marrow
A

in the plasma cells

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60
Q 
Which formula describes osmotic pressure?
P=r x C x R x T
P=r x C x T
P = C/V
P = (C/R) x T
A

P=r x C x R x T

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61
Q 
In which cases can hypoproteinaemia develop?
during inflammation
as a result of genetic defect
in case of malignant tumours
hunger, disease of kidney
A

hunger, disease of kidney

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62
Q

What is true for the volume and osmolarity of the intracellular fluid?

high fluctuations can be tolerated

the slightest change threatens life

small fluctuations can be tolerated

it is independent from the EC volume and osmolarity

A

small fluctuations can be tolerated

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63
Q

What is paraproteinaemia?

appearance of abnormal new proteins in the plasma

lack of a protein fraction

a change of the ratio of protein fractions

the increase of the proportion of one protein fractions

A

appearance of abnormal new proteins in the plasma

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64
Q

What does “molarity” mean?

the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 litre of solution

the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 kg of solution

the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 litre of solution

the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 kg of solvent

A

the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 litre of solution

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65
Q

What does “molality” express?

the amount of the dissolved substance in mols in 1 litre of solution

the amount of the dissolved substance in mol in 1 kg of solution

the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 litre of solution

the amount of dissolved substance in grams in 1 kg of solvent

A

the amount of the dissolved substance in mol in 1 kg of solution

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66
Q

What is the freezing point depression of 1 mol of NaCl solution?

only electrolytes can decrease the freezing point depression of water

the freezing point depression is related to the molar concentration

  • 1.86 C
  • 3.72 C
A

-3.72 C

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67
Q

How much is the freezing point depression of blood plasma?

  • 0.56 C
  • 1.86 C
  • 3.72 C
  • 0.3 C
A

-0.56 C

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68
Q

What is the osmolality of blood that can be deduced from its freezing point depression?

150 mosmol/kg
300 mosmol/kg
400 mosmol/kg
30 mosmol/kg

A

300 mosmol/kg

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69
Q

What does the principle of electroneutrality say?

the product of the concentration of diffusible ions is equal on both sides of the membrane

the concentration of anions and cations must be the same in each space

the pH is equal on both sides of the membrane

no chemical reactions occur on either sides of the membrane

A

the concentration of anions and cations must be the same in each space

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70
Q

What is the freezing point depression of 1 mol of urea solution?
-3.72 C
the freezing point depression is related to the molar concentration

-1.86 C

only electrolytes can decrease the freezing point depression of water

A
  • 1.86 C
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71
Q

Which one of the components mentioned below maintains the oncotic pressure of body fluids?

Electrolytes
NaCl
urea
proteins

A

proteins

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72
Q

How much is the osmotic pressure of a solution with a concentration of 1 mol/liter?

  1. 27 kPa
  2. 52 MPa
  3. 27 MPa
  4. 6 MPa
A

2.27 MPa

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73
Q

What percentage do the ions represent of the total dissolved substances in the body fluids?

More than 90%
around 50%
around 30%
there are no free ions in the blood plasma

A

more than 90%

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74
Q 
How much is the remnant nitrogen concentration in blood plasma?
50-100 mmol/liter
15-20 gram/liter
15-25 mmol/liter
30-35 gram/liter
A

15-25 mmol/l

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75
Q

What is the protein concentration of blood plasma?

30-40 gram/liter
60-80 gram/liter
15-20 gram/liter
3-5 mmol/liter

A

60-80 g/l

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76
Q

Which one of the below mentioned substances is a remnant nitrogen?

creatinine
globulin
transferrin
hemoglobin

A

creatinine

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77
Q

Which of the below describes the different protein fractions of the blood properly?

40% albumin, 60% globulin
60% albumin, 40% globulin
90% albumin, 10% globulin
20% albumin, 80% globulin

A

60% albumin, 40% globulin

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78
Q 
Give the molecular weight range of the gamma globulin?
50-800 kDa
45-200 kDa
60-70 kDa
150-1000 kDa
A

150-1000 kDa

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79
Q

Which globulin fractions can be separated from blood by electrophoresis?

alpha, beta, gamma
alpha, beta, gamma, delta
alpha1, alpha2, beta, gamma
globulin fractions can not be separated further

A

alpha1, alpha2, beta, gamma

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80
Q

Pick the substance which is not considered to be remnant nitrogen

creatine
urea
amino acids
albumin

A

albumin

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81
Q

Which one of the tissue types mentioned below produce albumin?

the intestinal epithelium
the liver
the lymph nodes
the thymus

A

the liver

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82
Q

Where is the VLDL produced?

in the lymph nodes
in the liver
in the intestinal epithelium
in the brain

A

in the intestinal epithelium

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83
Q

How much is the effective hydrostatic pressure in the arterial side of the capillary?

around 5 kPa
around -0.7 kPa
around 2.5 kPa
around 1.6 kPa

A

around 1.6 kPa

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84
Q

How much is the net filtration?

around 30-40 ml/min/ 100 kg body weight

around 3-4 ml/min/ 100 kg body weight

around 8-10 ml/min/100 kg body weight

around 1-2 ml/min/ 100 kg body weight

A

around 3-4 ml/min/100kg bwt

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85
Q 
Give the molecular weight range of the beta globulin?
90-350 kDa
60-70 kDa
45-200 kDa
50-800 kDa
A

90-350 kDa

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86
Q

How much is the effective filtration pressure in the venous side of the capillary?

around -0.7 kPa
around 2.5 kPa
around 1.6 kPa
around 5 kPa

A

around -0.7 kPa

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87
Q

How much is the protein content of the interstitial fluid?

60-80 g/l
120-130 g/l
20-30 g/l
10-15 g/l

A

20-30 g/l

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88
Q

How much is the protein content of the intracellular compartment?

40-60 mmol/l
60-80 g/l
20-30 mmol/l
40-60 g/l

A

40-60 mmol/l

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89
Q

How much is the sodium content of the interstitial fluid?

150 mmol/l
144 mmol/l
20-30 mmol/l
10-15 mmol/l

A

144 mmol/l

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90
Q

In how many percentage do the plasma proteins play a role in the buffering capacity of the blood?

7%
15 %
3%
45 %

A

7%

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91
Q

What is the range for the molarity of the body fluids?

mmol/ml
Ámol/l
mmol/l
mmol/100 ml

A

mmol/l

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92
Q

How much is the potassium content of the intracellular compartment?

40-60 g/l
20-30 mmol/l
60-80 g/l
95 mmol/l

A

95 mmol/l

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93
Q

What is the percentage of hemoglobin that plays a significant role in the buffering capacity of blood?

7%
35 %
15 %
hemoglobin does not take part in the buffering of blood

A

35%

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94
Q

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

serum is free of proteins
serum contains fibrinogen
plasma contains fibrinogen
fibrin can be found in the plasma

A

plasma contains fibrinogen

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95
Q

What does hematocrit mean?

the number of blood cells in unit volume of blood

the volume ratio of red blood cells and the volume of plasma

the volume of plasma in relations to the full volume of blood

the volume ratio of corpuscular elements in the blood

A

the volume ratio of corpuscular elements in the blood

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96
Q 
Which species has the slowest blood sedimentation?
pig
cow
horse
dog
A

horse

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97
Q

In which case can you observe oligocytemic hypervolemia?

after excessive fluid intake
in case of long-lasting obesity
in fasting animals
in the second part of pregnancy

A

after excessive fluid intake

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98
Q

In what case can normocytemic hypovolemia be detected?

in case of permanent starving

immediately after blood loss

in summer heat, after heavy sweating

as an the effect of sympathetic stimulation

A

immediately after blood loss

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99
Q

in which case does normocytemic hypervolemia happen?

In the heat of summer

As an effect of sympathetic stimulation

in the case of obesity

after excessive blood transfusion

A

after excessive blood transfusion

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101
Q 
Which species has the quickest blood sedimentation?
horse
cow
pig
dog
A

horse

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101
Q

What is the physiological pH of blood?

  1. 2-7.55
  2. 1-7.6
  3. 35-7.45
  4. 0-7.3
A

7.35-7.45

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102
Q

In what case can oligocytemic normovolemia be detected?

in the first part of gestation
after transfusion
in case of acute blood loss
within a couple of hours following blood loss

A

within a couple of hours following blood loss

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103
Q

In what case can polycytemic hypovolemia be detected?

in summer heat
in laying position
shortage of water, in case of thirst
oxygen deficiency

A

shortage of water, in case of thirst

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104
Q 
What percentage of the bloods buffer capacity is ensured by bicarbonates?
35 %
53 %
47 %
18 %
A

53%

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105
Q

What method is known for measuring the blood volume?

measuring the plasma volume by Evans-blue and then calculating it based on the hematocrit

injecting deuterium into the circulation

using tricium marked water

with isotpically labelled sodium

A

measuring the plasma volume by Evans-blue and then calculating it based on the hematocrit

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106
Q

What is the average value of the hematocrit?

  1. 62
  2. 32
  3. 46
  4. 4
A

0.4

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107
Q 
What is the density of whole blood(g/dm3)?
1050
1048
1090
1030
A

1050 g/dm3

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108
Q 
What percent of the blood's buffer capacity is ensured by non bicarbonate buffers?
53 %
35 %
47 %
5%
A

47%

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109
Q 
What is the value for the blood cell volume (ml/kg bwt)?
120
45
35
80
A

35

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110
Q 
What's the value for the blood volume (ml/kg bwt)?
45
80
35
120
A

80

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111
Q

Which formula is used for calculating the blood volume?

V = blood6 cell volume x 0.9 hematocrit

V = blood cell volume / (1-0.9 hematocrit)

V = plasma volume / 0.9 hematocrit

V = plasma volume / (1-0.9 hematocrit)

A

V = plasma volume / (1-0.9 hematocrit)

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112
Q

The blood volume increases due to the effect of which factor?

gestation

increase in the amount of body fat

cold environment (winter)

starving

A

gestation

113
Q

What is the definition of the minimal osmotic resistance?

the NaCl concentration where 10% of the red blood cells hemolyze

the NaCl concentration where hemolysis hasn’t started yet

the NaCl concentration where hemolysis has just started

the NaCl concentration where hemolysis becomes complete

A

the NaCl concentration where hemolysis has just started

114
Q

The blood volume decreases due to the effect of which factor?

shortage on oxygen

standing position

decrease in the amount of the body fat

warm environment (summer)

A

standing position

115
Q

What percent of the total amount of the blood is reticulocyte in a healthy animal?

0.1-0.2 %
1-2 %
5%
2-3 %

A

0.1-0.2%

116
Q 
What's the average lifetime of a red blood cell?
60 days
120 days
80 days
30 days
A

120 days

117
Q

What ensures the red blood cells ability of changing shapes?

red blood cells can change their shape only in a negligible degree

the actin and myosin content of the red blood cell membrane

the elasticity of the red blood cell’s lipid component

the spectrin molecules in the red blood cell membrane

A

the spectrin molecules in the RBC membrane

118
Q

What is MCH?

the volume of the erythrocyte

the diameter of the erythrocyte

the hemoglobin concentration of
the erythrocyte

the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte

A

the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte

119
Q

What is MCV?
the volume of the erythrocyte

the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte

the hemoglobin concentration of the erythrocyte

the diameter of the erythrocyte

A

the volume of the erythrocyte

120
Q

What is the MCHC?

the hemoglobin content of the erythrocyte

the volume of the erythrocyte

the hemoglobin concentration of the erythrocyte

the diameter of the erythrocyte

A

the hemoglobin concentration of the erythrocyte

121
Q 
Which physical effects cause membrane hemolysis?
detergents
solvents
shaking
spinning in a centrifuge
A

shaking

122
Q

What happens to the erythrocyte in a slightly hyposmotic solution?

their shape does not change
they hemolyse
they shrink
they become swollen

A

they become swollen

123
Q

What happens to the erythrocyte in a hyperosmotic solution?

they shrink
they become swollen
they hemolyse
their shape does not change

A

they shrink

124
Q

Which chemical effects cause membrane hemolysis?

shaking
acids, lipid solvents
heating
freezing, defrosting

A

acids, lipid solvents

125
Q

What is meant by the maximal osmotic resistance?

hemolysis is just beginning

the hemolysis becomes complete

90% of the erythrocytes hemolyse

the erythrocytes do not start to hemolyse yet

A

the hemolysis becomes complete

126
Q 
How much is the molecular weight of a hemoglobin tetramer?
150 000 Da
32 000 Da
65 000 Da
6 800 Da
A

65 000 Da

127
Q 
How many subunits are present in one hemoglobin
8
2
6
4
A

4

128
Q 
How much is the hemoglobin content of the blood?
80-160 g/l
1.5-2 g/l
80-160 mmol/l
15-30 mmol/l
A

80-160 g/l

129
Q 
How many globin molecules form one hemoglobin molecule?
4
1
6
2
A

4

130
Q 
How many polypeptide chains does a globin molecule have?
6
1
4
2
A

4

131
Q 
What is the composition of an adult globin?
2 beta + 2 gamma chains
2 alpha + 2 gamma chains
1 alpha + 1 beta chain
2 alpha + 2 beta chains
A

2 alpha + 2 beta chains

132
Q 
What is the composition of a fetal hemoglobin molecule?
2 alpha + 2 gamma chains
2 alpha +2 beta chains
2 beta + 2 gamma chains
1 alpha + 1 gamma chain
A

2 alpha + 2 gamma chains

133
Q

What is the difference between the fetal and the adult hemoglobin molecule?

the adult hemoglobin binds oxygen with higher affinity

the fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen with higher affinity

the fetal hemoglobin is not present after birth

the adult hemoglobin is the only form present after birth

A

the fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen with higher affinity

134
Q 
How many oxygen molecules can be bound by one hemoglobin at full saturation?
1
2
4
8
A

4

135
Q 
How does the hem bind the oxygen?
Fe3+ reversible
Fe2+ irreversible
Fe3+ irreversible
Fe2+ reversible
A

Fe2+ reversible

136
Q 
What percentage of the total blood CO2 is transported as carbamino-HB?
20 %
16 %
5%
0.003 %
A

20%

137
Q

What is typical of the hemoglobin binding affinity?

the O2 affinity is 200 times higher than the CO-affinity

the CO affinity is 22 times higher than the oxygen affinity

the CO2 affinity is 200 times higher than the oxygen affinity

there is no important differences between the CO and the O2 affinities

A

the CO affinity is 22 times higher than the oxygen affinity

138
Q 
What is the percentage of total blood buffering capacity belonging to hemoglobin?
50 %
15 %
35 %
5%
A

35%

139
Q

What is the basis for the hemoglobin’s buffering character?

the deoxygenated Hb is a stronger base than the oxygenated

the deoxygenated Hb is a weaker base than the oxygenated

the oxygenated Hb is a weaker acid than the deoxygenated

the deoxygenated Hb is a weaker acid than the oxygenated

A

the deoxygenated Hb is a weaker acid than the oxygenated

140
Q 
Which organ is the site of erythrocyte degradation?
the spleen
the venous plexus of the skin
the kidney
the red bone marrow
A

the spleen

141
Q 
What percentage of erythrocytes die daily?
0.1 %
1%
2-3 %
5%
A

1%

142
Q 
Where does the major processes of hemoglobin degradation occur?
in the blood
in the kidney
in the macrophages
in the liver
A

in the macrophages

143
Q

Is there any free hemoglobin present in the blood of a healty animal?
no
yes but only in negligible amounts
yes and sometimes it also appears in the urine
yes in relatively high concentrations

A

no

144
Q

Which part of the hemoglobin molecule recycles?
the iron and the hem
the iron and the amino acids of the globin
the hem and the amino acids of the globin
all parts of it do recycle

A

the iron and the amino acids of the globin

145
Q 
What form of the hem is present in the phagocyte?
biliverdin
bilirubin-II
bilirubin
urobilinogen
A

bilirubin

146
Q

In what form is the bilirubin found in the blood vessels?

there is no bilirubin in the blood vessels in healthy animals

in free form

in haptoglobin bound form

in albumin bound form

A

in albumin bound form

147
Q

What happens with the bilirubin in the hepatocytes?

it is conjugated with glucoronic acid and with sulphates

it is oxidated

it is reduced

it is secreted to the bile in unchanged form

A

it is conjugated with glucorinic acid and with sulphates

148
Q 
What is the bilirubin -II?
albumin bound bilirubin
bilirubin -glucuronid
free bilirubin
oxidized bilirubin
A

bilirubin-glucuronid

149
Q 
What is the urobilinogen?
the oxidased product of the bilirubin -I
the reduced product of the biliverdin
the reduced product of the bilirubin -I
the oxidased product of the bilirubin-II
A

the reduced product of the bilirubin-I

150
Q 
Where does the bilirubin- urobilinogen transformation take place?
in the gall-bladder
in the kidney
in the liver
in the lumen of the gut
A

in the lumen of the gut

151
Q

What happens with the urobilinogen that is reabsorbed from the intestinal tract?

it passes to the systemic circulation throughout the vv.haemorrhoidales and is excreted from the kidney

through the v.portae it goes to the liver, where it is reduced to bilirubin

through the v.portae it goes to the liver, where it is reduced to biliverdin

goes to the circulation and is reabsorbed in full measure from the renal tubules

A

it passes to the systemic circulation throughout the vv.haemorrhoidales and is excreted from the kidney

152
Q

Where are the red blood cells produced?

in the yellow bone marrow
in the red bone marrow
in the liver
in the spleen

A

in the red bone marrow

153
Q

Which red blood cell precursor can be found in the blood?

proerythroblast
normoblast
reticulocyte
committed progenitor cell

A

reticulocyte

154
Q

In which red blood cell does hemoglobin synthesis take place?

only in the non dividing normoblasts

in the reticulocytes of the bone marrow

in the committed progenitor cells

in the proerythroblasts and normoblasts

A

in the proerythroblasts and normoblasts

155
Q

The expulsion of the nucleus takes place in which red blood cell precursor?

in the non dividing normoblasts
in the proerythroblasts
in the dividing normoblasts
in the reticulocytes of the bone marrow

A

in the non-dividing normoblasts

156
Q

Which are the most important physiological factors that have an influence on erythropoiesis?

nutrient-, microelement-, vitamin supply
oxygen supply, kidney, age
liver function, spleen
environmental temperature

A

oxygen supply, kidney, age

157
Q 
Where is the erythropoietin produced?
in the liver
in the spleen
in the kidney
in the red bone marrow
A

in the kidney

158
Q 
How long do the blood platelets live?
3-5 days
60 days
120 days
5-10 days
A

5-10 days

159
Q 
In which species do thrombocytes show phagocyting activity?
thrombocytes of the birds
thrombocytes of the carnivores
thrombocytes of the herbivores
none of the above
A

thrombocytes of the birds

160
Q

What is typical of the motion of the blood platelets?

only the platelets of birds are able to move actively

they are unable to move actively

they drift passively attached to other blood cells

they are able to actively migrate in every species

A

they are unable to move actively

161
Q 
What species have platelets that contain a nucleus?
the herbivores
the carnivores
the birds
none of the above
A

in other animals (e.g. birds, amphibians) thrombocytes circulate as intact mononuclear cells

162
Q 
How many thrombocytes could be found in the blood per litre?
5-11 x 10^9
2-3 x 10^12
5-15 x 10^11
2-8 x 10^11
A

2-8 x 10^11

163
Q 
Platelets derive from which primordial cell line?
from megakaryocytes
from monoblasts
from myeloblasts
from normoblasts
A

from megakaryocytes

164
Q

What do the alpha- granules of the platelets contain?

glycogen granules
blood clotting factors
hydrolases and catalases
peroxidases and prostaglandins

A

blood clotting factors

165
Q

What do the dense- granules of platelets contain?

peroxidases and prostaglandins
acid hydrolases and catalase
serotonin taken from plasma
blood clotting factors

A

serotonin taken from plasma

166
Q

What do the dense- tubules of the platelets contain?

catalases and acid hydrolases
serotonin
blood clotting factors
peroxidases and prostaglandins

A

peroxidases and prostaglandins

167
Q

What is the role of the actin edge of the platelets?

its contraction helps the emptying of the alpha-granules

it hinders the shrinking of the clot

its high CAM content helps the adhesion

ensures active cell motion

A

its contraction helps the emptying of the alpha-granules

168
Q

What is the role of the microtubular edge of the platelet?
ensures adhesion
helps retraction and emptying of blood clotting substances
it is the transport system of the granule
the granules pass out of the cell along it

A

helps retraction and emptying of blood clotting substances

169
Q 
Which species has "neutrophilic" blood?
the pig
cattle
the horse
the birds
A

the horse (+ cat and dog)

170
Q 
Which species has "lymphocytic" blood?
the cat
the dog
the horse
cattle
A

cattle

171
Q 
How many leukocytes are in the blood per litre on the average?
5-15 x 109
5-15 millions
7-11 x 1012
5000-15000
A

5-15 x 109

172
Q 
Which is the largest leukocyte?
lymphocyte
monocyte
neutrophil granulocyte
eosinophil granulocyte
A

monocyte

173
Q

What do the granules of neutrophil granulocytes contain?

destroyed bacterium particles
stored nutritients
enzymes (dizmutae, phosphatase etc.)
histamine and serotonin

A

enzymes (dizmutae, phosphatase etc.)

174
Q 
How long does a circulating neutrophil granulocyte live?
6-7 days
3-5 days
2-3 days
6-7 hours
A

6-7 hours

175
Q 
What is the lifespan of a neutrophil granulocyte?
2-3 days
6-7 hours
3-5 days
6-8 days
A

2-3 days

176
Q 
What is the colour of the granules in a neutrophil granulocyte?
red
purple-red
purple-blue
light blue
A

purple-red

177
Q

When is the shift of the blood-count to the left?

when there are many old neutrophil granulocytes

when there are many granulocytes with lobular nuclei

when there are many young neutrophil granulocytes

when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 3-5 lobes in the nuclei

A

when there are many young neutrophil granulocytes

178
Q

When is the shift of the blood-count to the right?

when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 3-5 lobated nuclei

when there are many young granulocytes

when there are many Staab cells

when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 5-10 nuclear lobes

A

when there are many neutrophil granulocytes with 5-10 nuclear lobes

179
Q

What cell elements help the active motion of neutrophil granulocytes?

the bean-shaped nucleus of young granulocytes

the microtubuli

the actin filaments

the stick-shaped nucleus of old granulocytes

A

the actin filaments

180
Q

What is the clathrin?

a protein, which has a role in the motion of cells

a protein, which helps in the active migration of the cells

a protein which plays a role in exocytosis

a complex which takes part in endocytosis

A

a complex which takes part in endocytosis

181
Q

What is the opsonisation?

immunglobulines connected to the antigenes activate the phagocytosis, by connecting to the Fc receptors of eosinophilic granulocytes

the antigen-antibody complex activate the complement-system, the antigen-C3b complex stimulate the phagocytosis

the phagocyted particles fuse with the granules of the cells during this reaction

the number of the granules decrease in the neutrophilic granulocytes during this reaction

A

immunglobulines connected to the antigenes activate the phagocytosis, by connecting to the Fc receptors of eosinophilic granulocytes

182
Q

What is immune adherence?

inhibition of immune processes

complement activated phagocytosis

intracellular digestion

granule exocytosis

A

complement activated phagocytosis

183
Q 
What is the main task of eosinophil granulocytes?
phagocytosis
allergic effect
anti allergic effect
they produce antigen specific antibodies
A

anti allergic effect

184
Q 
What is the lifespan of eosinophil granulocytes in the circulation?
2-3 days
6-7 days
3-5 days
3-8 hours
A

3-8 hours

185
Q 
What is the lifespan of the eosinophil granulocytes in tissues?
3-5 days
3-8 hours
2-3 days
6-7 hours
A

3-5 days

186
Q 
What is the colour of the granules of eosinophil granulocytes?
purple-blue
red ish
purple-red
dark purple
A

red ish

187
Q 
What do the granules of eosinophil granulocytes contain?
hyaluronidase, myeloperoxidase
histamine and serotonin
histaminase and aryl- sulphatase
contractile particles
A

histaminase and aryl-sulphatase

188
Q

What is the chemotaxis?

the passive movement of cells

emptying of chemical substances

synthesis of peptide signals

directed motion towards a chemical signal

A

directed motion towards a chemical signal

189
Q

What is the main task of basophil granulocytes?

they are loosening the tissues to support antigen elimination

they phagocytose the antigen

they produce enzymes with anti-allergetic effect

they take up the IgM from the plasma

A

they are loosening the tissues to support antigen elimination

190
Q

What kind of enzymes play a central role in “respiratory burst”?

protease, lysosim, nuclease

NADH-oxidase, superoxid-dizmutase, myeloperoxidase

NADH-reductase, acid and alkaline phosphatase

phosphatases, proteases

A

NADH-oxidase, superoxid-dizmutase, myeloperoxidase

191
Q 
Which is not chemotaxin?
histamine
tissue debris
immunglobulins
complement factors
A

immunoglobins

192
Q

What is the main task of eosinophil granulocytes?

activating the complement system

phagocyting the broken fragments of cells

activating the materials made by basophil granulocytes

inactivation of the metabolites made by basophil granulocytes

A

inactivation of the metabolites made by basophil granulocytes

193
Q 
What colour are the granules of basophil granulocytes?
dark purple
red
purple-blue
purple-red
A

dark purple

194
Q

What do the granules of the basophil granulocytes contain?

nucleases, phosphatases

histamine, heparin, serotonin

dismutase, peroxidase

hyaluronidase, dismutase, nuclease

A

histamine, heparin, serotonin

195
Q

What is the processs of degranulation?

the granules of granulocytes fuse with phagocytosed particles

the growth of the granules in the granulocytes

IgE binding causes the emptying of basophil granulocytes

the content of the granule of the cell depletes the cytoplasm

A

IgE binding causes the emptying of basophil granulocytes

196
Q 
What causes the degranulation?
specific antigens
certain factors of the complement system
the Fc part of the IgE
the IgE - antigen complex
A

the IgE antigen complex

197
Q 
What causes the non-specific degranulation?
Certain parts of the complement system
the specific antigen
the Fc part of the IgG molecule
the IgE-antigen complex
A

certain parts of the compliment system

198
Q 
What is the primary function of the mononuclear macrophages?
antiallergic effect
antigen presentation
antigen elimination
anti-body production
A

antigen presentation

199
Q

What is the characteristics of the phagocytosis of the macrophages?

they are not able to take up big particles

they phagocytose liquids only

they phagocytose not only unfamiliar substances, but the aging, dead cells of the organism too

the macrophages are not able to phagocytose

A

they phagocytose not only unfamiliar substances, but the aging, dead cells of the organism too

200
Q 
Which substance produced by the MPS cell has a role in loosening the tissues?
interferon
histamine
prostaglandin
collagenase
A

collagenase

201
Q

Which of the following MPS cells encourages the immune response?

interleukin-1
collagenase
serotonin
angiotensin convertase

A

interleukin-1

202
Q

What effect has interleukin-1 on the marrow?

increases the IL-2 production of the pre- blood cells

increases the production of the neutrophil granulocytes

acute phase proteins are produced

the process of cell- division is inhibited

A

increases the production of the neutrophil granulocytes

203
Q

How does interleukin-1 influence the function of the T lymphocyte?

IL-2 production is inhibited

immune processes are inhibited

IL-2 production increases

anti-body production increases

A

IL-2 production increases

204
Q

What kind of granules can be found in the cytoplasm of lymphocytes?

granules that contain immunoglobulin and are painted
a purplish colour

there are no granules

a few basophil granules

just a few azurophil granules

A

just a few azurophil granules

205
Q

What kind of particles can lymphocytes phagocyte?

they do not have phagocytotic activity

they can only phagocyte liquid antigens

they can only phagocyte small solid particles

they can phagocyte both liquid and solid substances

A

they do not have phagocytotic activity

206
Q

What is the job of B lymphocytes?

they are the main element of the cellular immune response

after becoming a plasma cell they produce immunoglobulins

they eliminate tumor cells and virus-infected cells

they present antigens

A

after becoming a plasma cell they produce immunoglobulins

207
Q

What is the role of the T lymphocytes?

they produce immunoglobulins

they perform phagocytosis

they take part in the cellular immune response

they inhibit the formation of humoral immune response

A

they take part in the cellular immune response

208
Q 
In what organ does the formation of blood cell take place?
Lymph nodes
in the spleen
in the liver
in the red bone marrow
A

in the red bone marrow

209
Q

Which pre-blood cell (progenitor cell) settles down outside the marrow during the fetal period?

T progenitor cell
B progenitor cell
proerythroblast
megakaryoblast

A

T progenitor cell

210
Q 
Who discovered the blood-groups?
K. Landsteiner
C. Bernard
H. Starling
W. Einthoven
A

K. Landsteiner

211
Q

What are hemagglutinogens?

anti-bodies found in the red blood plasma

antigens found on the surface of the red blood cells

protein molecules found on the surface of blood cells

genetically determined antigens appearing in the blood plasma

A

antigens found on the surface of the RBCs

212
Q

What kind of molecules are hemagglutinogens?

glucoproteids
oligosaccharides
glucolipids and glucoproteins
proteids

A

Glucolipids and glucoproteins

213
Q

What hemagglutinogens belong to the same blood group?

chemically very similar antigens

they are coded by genes located on the same chromosome

they are coded by genes located on gene locuses that are near each other

genes that are located on the same gene locus

A

genes that are located on the same gene locus

214
Q 
What kind of molecules are the agglutinogens of the human AB0 blood-group?
glucolipids
glucoproteids
oligosaccharids
proteids
A

glucolipids

215
Q

What blood-group forms without the presence of the H antigen?

all kinds of blood groups can appear

no blood group appear

0 blood group

only A or B blood groups

A

no blood group appear

216
Q

What blood-group antigen is the gene of the N- acetylgalactose transferase enzyme responsible for?

B blood-group antigen
0 blood-group antigen
A blood-group antigen
it is not in connection with blood group antigens

A

A blood group antigen

217
Q

What blood-group antigen is the gene of the galactosil transferase enzyme responsible for?

0 blood-group antigen
A blood-group antigen
B blood-group antigen
it is not in connection with blood group antigens

A

B blood group antigen

218
Q

What are hemagglutinins?

antibodies that agglutinate stranger red blood cells
antigens found on the surface of red blood cells
protein markers found on the surface of red blood cells
genetically determined glucoproteid molecules found in the plasma

A

antibodies that agglutinate stranger RBCs

219
Q

What are natural hemagglutinins?

antibodies produced against hemagglutinogens, which are always found in the plasma

antibodies present without previous immunization

antibodies produced after blood transfusion

antibodies that agglutinate the red blood cells of animals belonging to the same species

A

antibodies present without previous immunization

220
Q

What are artificial hemagglutinins?

antibodies produced solely against blood- group antigens brought artificially into the organism

these kind of antibodies are not formed after blood transfusion

antibodies forming just after previous immunization

antibodies produced against blood-group antigens of animals belonging to different races

A

antibodies forming just after previous immunization

221
Q

What are heteroagglutinins?

substances present in the preformed plasma
they can be seen in blood plasma after blood transfusion
they agglutinate red blood cells of different blood-group antigens of the same race
they agglutinate the red blood cells of a different race

A

they agglutinate the red blood cells of a different race

222
Q

What are isohemagglutinins?

they agglutinate the red blood cells of the same race
they agglutinate the red blood cells of different races
they are always present in the preformed plasma
its presence is characteristic to human AB0 blood- group only

A

they agglutinate the red blood cells of the same race

223
Q

What is characteristic of the hemagglutinins of the human ABO blood group system?

they are present in the plasma even at birth
they develop postnatally
their concentration is independent of the age
they appear in the plasma after an incompatible transfusion

A

they develop postnatally

224
Q

What does biochemical polymorphism mean?

structural units with different function but with same chemical structure

molecules with similar biochemical function of different species

molecules of simular function but different structure

a synonym for blood groups

A

molecules with similar biochemical function of different species

225
Q 
How many human blood group systems are known?
5
2
4
15
A

15

226
Q

To which class of immunglobulins belong the heamagglutinins of the human ABO blood goup?

IgM
IgG
IgA
IgM and IgG

A

IgM

227
Q 
What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of "A blood group" contain?
anti-A
anti-B
anti-A and anti-B
no antibody
A

anti-B

228
Q 
What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of "B blood group" contain?
anti-B
anti-A and anti-B
anti-A
no antibody
A

anti-A

229
Q 
What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of "AB blood group" contain?
anti-B
anti-A and anti-B
anti-A
no antibody
A

no antibody

230
Q 
What type of hemagglutinins does the plasma of "0 blood group" contain?
anti-A and anti-B
anti-A
anti-B
no antibody
A

anti-A and anti-B

231
Q

Do the hemagglutinins of the “AB0 blood group” damage the incompatible fetus?

yes
no, because they are unable to get to the placenta
yes, but only after the second pregnancy
generally not, but occasionally it may happen

A

no because they are unable to get to the placenta

232
Q

What happens with the RBCs of the donor in case of an incompatible transfusion?

red blood cells agglutinate
red blood cells hemolyze
red blood cells agglutinate,then hemolyze
it depends of the amount of RBCs transfused

A

red blood cells agglutinate, then hemolyse

233
Q

What is characteristic of the human Rh blood type system?

hemagglutinins appear in elderly persons

codominant inheritance

natural antibody can be found in the plasma

no preformed antibody can be found

A

no prefromed antibody can be found

234
Q 
The anti-Rh antibody belongs to which class of immunoglobulins?
IgG
IgM
IgA
IgM ad IgG
A

IgG

235
Q

In which case does Rh incompatibility emerge?

father Rh- / mother Rh + / fetus Rh+
father Rh+ / mother Rh- / fetus Rh+
father Rh+ / mother Rh- / fetus Rh-
father Rh- / mother Rh+ / fetus Rh-

A

father Rh+ / mother Rh- / fetus Rh +

236
Q

Is the fetus damaged in case of Rh incompatibility?

yes, during the first pregnancy
yes, but only at third or fourth pregnancy
yes, at second pregnancy and later
no, because antibodies are unable to get through the placenta

A

yes, at second pregnancy and later

237
Q

What happens the in case of Rh+ blood transfusion to a Rh- person?

a harmful reaction

in the first mistaken transfusion, the transfusion-sickness appears only in mild form

red blood cell agglutination, then hemolysation

hemolysis is experienced only after the second transfusion

A

hemolysis is experienced only after the second transfusion

238
Q

What procedure can be used for animal blood typing?

immunization, and systematic saturation

immunization, then separation of the required antibody

antibody separation from the plasma of known blood-group

synthesis of the required antibody

A

immunization and systematic saturation

239
Q 
Which species has the largest number of blood group systems?
cattle
the pig
the dog
the horse
A

the pig

240
Q

What is a freemartin?

the infertile male of a set of twins of different genders

a fetal defect, mainly in horses

infertile female of a set of twins of different genders

twins who have the same blood type

A

infertile female of a set of twins of different genders

241
Q

What is a chimer?

the infertile male of a set of twins of different genders

fetal defect, mainly in horses

infertility caused by hormones

both of the twins have the same blood groups because the hemopoietic primordial cells migrate

A

both of the twins have the same blood groups because the hemopoietic primordial cells migrate

242
Q 
Which species can be a blood donor to another species in the case of emergency ?
cat to dog
dog to cat
horse to pig
horse to cattle
A

dog to cat

243
Q 
Which animal species may display mother/ newborn incompatibility?
dog
sheep
horse and pig
cattle
A

horse and pig

244
Q

How can you treat the mother/ newborn incompatibility?

the colostrum is given only 24 hours after birth

an immediate exchange transfusion is required in the newborn page

milk should be given instead of colostrum

the newborn should be nursed by another mother in the first 72 hours

A

the newborn should be nursed by another mother in the first 72 hours

245
Q

What is the correct order of the major steps of the hemostasis?

vessel reaction, thrombocyte reaction, blood clotting

thrombocyte reaction, vessel reaction, blood clotting

fibrinolysis, thrombocyte reaction, blood clotting

thrombocyte reaction, fibrinolysis, blood clotting

A

vessel reaction, thrombocyte reaction, blood clotting

246
Q 
What are the causes of the hemophilia?
the increase of clot formation
the decrease of clot formation
the increase of clot removing intensity
the decrease of clot removing intensity
A

the decrease of clot formation

247
Q

What can cause thrombosis?

decrease of local clot formation

increase of the intensity of clot-removing processes

increase of clot- forming processes or decrease of clot- removing processes

increase of clot- forming processes or increase of the intensity of clot- removing processes

A

increase of clot forming processes or decrease of clot removing processes

248
Q

What is characteristic of the blood-vessel- reaction in hemostasis?

it lasts only a few hours
it is not a reflex process
it is a result of smooth- muscle hyperpolarisation
thromboxane-A2 has a role in the process

A

thromboxane-A2 has a role in the process

249
Q

What is true for thromboxane-A2?
it is an eicosanoid
it is a product of erythrocytes
it has no role in the blood-vessel-reaction
it causes blood- vessel-reaction by itself

A

it is an eicosanoid

250
Q

What are the characteristics of the thrombocyte reaction?

as a result of it, red thrombus forms

the collagen fibers of the injured blood vessels have a role in this process

red blood cells adhere to the wound

the thrombocytic cAMP production begins

A

the collagen fibers of the injured blood vessels have a role in this process

251
Q

Which of the following statements is true for blood-clotting?

its final product is prothrombin
its extrinsic way is started by the appearance of collagen fibers
it is due to a proteolytic cascade reaction
its intrinsic way is started by the elastic fibers of vessels

A

it is due to a proteolytic cascade reaction

252
Q

What is true for fibrin?
it is the precursor of fibrinogen
the loose form of it develops from its stable form
it stimulates the prothrombine activating complex
the factor XIII has an important role in stabilizing it

A

the factor XIII has an important role in stablizing it

253
Q

On what processes does thrombin have an effect on?
proaccerelin-accerelin transformation
it inactivates factors No. I. and XIII.
it is the antihemophilic factor IX
it stimulates blood- clotting via protein C

A

proaccerelin-accerelin transformation

254
Q 
What is the characterisctic of thrombin?
it is an albumin fraction
it has effects on both fibrinogen and fibrin
it inhibits plasminogen
it prevents blood- clotting
A

it has effects on both fibrinogen and fibrin

255
Q

What is true for the extrinsic way of blood-clotting?

it can be prevented by thromboplastin

it joins with the intrinsic way when convertin is activated

factor III. has a direct and an indirect effect on factor No.X.

it is regulated by the proconvertin feed- back

A

factor III. has a direct and an indirect effect on factor no. X

256
Q

What is true for thromboplastin?

it activates the Christmas-factor

being released from wounded tissues, it activates
thrombokinase

it is another name for the Stuart-Prower factor

it activates factor No.X.

A

It activates factor no. X

257
Q

Which of the following statements is true for the intrinsic way of blood-clotting?

the Hageman-factor can activate the Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent during the process

it starts because the positive charge of the collagen fibers of the vein wall are exposed

it begins with the activation of factor X

Hageman-factor is stimulated by the Christmas-factor in this process

A

the Hageman-factor can activate the Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent during the process

258
Q

Which statement is true for the Christmas-factor?

it is a transmitter

it has an important role in activating the Stuart-Prower factor

it has an important role in the extrinsic way of blood-clotting

it can activate the Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent

A

it has an important role in activating the Stuart-Prower factor

259
Q

Which statement is true for fibrinolysis?

macrophages loosen the blood clot from outside

plasminogen is the active enzyme of this process

blood flow sweeps away parts of the blood clot

it starts a few weeks after the blood- clotting

A

blood flow sweeps away parts of the blood clot

260
Q 
What is plasmin?
a structural protein typical of the red blood cells
a small molecular weight substance
a lipid cleaving enzyme
an efficient protease
A

an efficient protease

261
Q

Which statement is true for thrombolysis?

thrombin activates the plasminogen

plasmin acts in an uncontrolled way

Ca2+ ions trigger it

the dissolving of the white and red thrombus is separated in time

A

thrombin activates the plasminogen

262
Q

What is the characterisic of viamin K?

it is a water soluble vitamin

its role in blood clotting is explained by its coenzyme function

its lack does not causes clot-forming deficiency

it can phosphorilate blood-clotting factors

A

its role in blood clotting is explained by its coenzyme function

263
Q

Which statement is true for vitamin K?

agonists can prevent the coemzyme function of it

its oxidated form is the coenzyme of the carboxylation of the glutamin

clot-forming problems preventing its function can be caused by melilotus and warfarin

its main role in blood-clotting is producing the vessel reaction

A

clot forming problems preventing its function can be caused by melilotus and warfarin

264
Q

What is the primary step in the thrombocyte reaction?

the von Willebrand factor is inhibited

the PGI2 and NO production stops

the thrombocytes produce blood-clotting factors

the thrombocyte sticks to the collagen fibers exposed

A

the thrombocyte sticks to the collagen fibers exposed

265
Q

Which process is concerned with the self-strengthening functions of thrombin?

proaccerelin- accerelin transformation

fibrinogen-fibrin transformation

the stabilization of the loose fibrin net

the activation of protein C and plasminogen

A

proaccerelin-accerelin transformation

266
Q

Which process ensures the self- inhibiting function of the thrombin?

the thrombocyte aggregation and adhesion

protein C and plasminogen activation

the increase of proaccerelin-accerelin transformation

stabilisation of the loose fibrin net

A

protein C and plasminogen activation

267
Q

What is the basic function of the thrombin?

activation of the proaccerelin-accerelin transformation

helping the thrombocyte aggregation and adhesion

fibrinogen-fibrin transformation, fibrin stabilization

protein C and plasminogen activation

A

fibrinogen-fibrin transformation, fibrin stabilization

268
Q

What activates blood-clotting factor No. XII.?
Ca2+ ions
blood-clotting factor No. XIa.
blood-clotting factor No. XIIIa.
the injury of the vessel endothel, kininogen, kallikrein

A

the injury of the vessel endothel, kiniogen, kallikrein

269
Q 
Which substances belong to the "activator complex" helping factor No.X.?
IXa, Ca2+, VIIIC, TF3
XIa, Ixa, Ca2+
VIIIC, TF3, Xia
XIIa, Xia, Ca2+, TF3
A

IXa, Ca2+, VIIIC, TF3

270
Q 
Which enzyme dissolves the fibrin net of the bood clot?
thrombin
plasmin
collagenase
trypsin
A

plasmin

271
Q 
Which plasma protein is activated by thrombin in the process of anticoagulation?
plasmin
antiplasmin
protein C
plasminogen
A

protein C

272
Q 
Which enzyme is activated by the thrombin in the process of fibrinolysis?
protein C
antiplasmin
plasmin
plasminogen
A

plasminogen

273
Q

After blood loss ceases what kind of processes follow?

Vascular reaction decrease, coagulation cascade inactivation, fibrinolysis, reparation of vessel walls

Vascular reaction, coagulation cascade inactivation, reparation of vessel walls

Transmission of white or red thrombus, fibrinolysis, reparation of vessel walls

Thrombocyte reaction, coagulation cascade inactivation, fibrinolysis

A

vascular reaction decrease, coagulation cascade inactivation, fibrinolysis, reparation of vessel walls

274
Q 
Which coagulation factor is responsible for the balance of coagulation- anticoagulation mechanisms?
thrombin
factor IV
fibrinogen
factor XIII
A

thrombin

275
Q 
Where can be the enzymes responsible for coagulation found?
In the thrombocytes
In the blood plasma and the thrombocytes
In the blood plasma
In the endothel cells
A

in the blood plasma and the thrombocytes

276
Q 
Which factor fixes and activates the enzymes of the cascade?
X.
V.
IV.
II.
A

IV

277
Q 
Which coagulation factor is first common one for the intrinsic and extrinsic pathway?
factor III
factor VII
factor X
factor IV
A

factor X

279
Q 
Which is the most important enzyme of the coagulation?
fibrin-stabilizing factor
accerelin
Stuart-Prower factor
thrombin
A

thrombin

279
Q 
Which coagulation factors initiate the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting?
IV., X.
III., VII., XII.
IX., XI.
X., VIII., IV.
A

III., VII., XII.

Physiology MCQ (7 decks)

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