Midterm 2 Flashcards

0
Q

What sets up the sodium gradient that is used to drive the secondary active cotransporters on the apical membrane of the renal tubule?

A

Na/K ATPase. 3 Na out through the basolateral membrane, 2 K into the epithelial cell. This is a primary active transport.

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1
Q

What are diuretics used to treat?

A

Hypertension, cardiac insufficiency (heart failure), pulmonary edema, and renal failure.

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2
Q

Prolines and glycines are found in the TM regions of cotransporters. What are their functions?

A

They work to kink these regions to form binding substrates right in the middle of the membrane. They are involved in hinging and conformational changes, very flexible.

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3
Q

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

A

60-70% of Na absorbed, 60-70% of water absorbed (follows the sodium). Leaky epithelium, permeable to water. Most diuretics act later in the tubule. Na/glucose,amino acid symport. Na/Cl symporter. Na/Proton antiporter. Na/K ATPase on basolateral membrane. Site of absorption of bicarbonate.

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4
Q

Osmotic Diuretics

A

Mannitol, similar to glucose but can’t be reabsorbed. Osmotic diuretics are filtered in the glomerulus but cannot be reabsorbed in the nephron. They reduce the passive reabsorption of water. Site of action is the proximal tubule and the descending loop of henle. Used in acute renal failure to keep fluid flowing in the nephrons, and for emergency treatment of intracranial or intraocular pressure (not kidney effects). Not useful for controlling blood pressure.

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5
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A

Acetazolamide. Not used as a diuretic because other mechanisms can lead to bicarbonate reabsorption downstream and they can cause a drop in pH that can cause problems. Used in the treatment of glaucoma (involves intraocular pressure). They deplete extracellular bicarbonate and can cause metabolic acidosis.

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6
Q

Loop of Henle

A

Key control of osmotic balance in the body. Ascending limb (thick part) actively reabsorbs Na. Ascending limb is poorly permeable to water, enabling an osmotic gradient. Descending limb is permeable to water but not to salts. The descending limb works passively and is a primary region for water reabsorption due to hypertonic interstitia. Countercurrent exchange mechanism: absorption of salt in the ascending limb is coupled to absorption of water in the descending limb; so the two work together.

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7
Q

Vasa recta

A

Involved in counter current exchange. Blood vessels that branch from efferent arteriole that carry reabsorbed salt and water out of the kidney. Slow blood flow prevents wash out of salts and maintains a high is molarity at the inner medulla.

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8
Q

Ascending limb of the loop of Henle

A

~25% of Na reabsorbed. Na/K/2Cl cotransporter. Low water permeability. Loop diuretics block Na/K/2Cl cotransporter by binding to the Cl site. These are the most powerful diuretics (high efficiency). Used to treat salt and water overload (cardiac insufficiency and pulmonary edema). Antihypertensives, but thiazides are preferred if there’s good renal function.

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9
Q

Distal Convoluted Tubule

A

5-10% of Na reabsorbed, Na/Cl cotransporter. Thiazides diuretics: block Na/Cl cotransporter by binding to Cl site. Less powerful than loop diuretics. Widely used as anti hypertensives and treat cardiac insufficiency. Thiazides have the ceiling effect whereas loop diuretics don’t.

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10
Q

Collecting duct

A

1-5% of Na reabsorbed. Na channel is key to Na reabsorption, electrogenic. K excretion coupled to Na reabsorption. Under hormonal control (aldosterone and vasopressin: SEE PICTURE). K sparing diuretics: Na channel blockers, competitive antagonists of aldosterone. Limited diuretic efficiency. Given with loop or thiazide diuretics to prevent K loss.

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11
Q

Collecting duct summary

A

Na flows down concentration gradient into renal epithelial cells. Na influx through Na channels causes voltage change, resulting in K efflux into tubular fluid and K loss in urine. Aldosterone promotes Na channel activation, synthesis of Na/K ATPase, Na/ proton cotransporter activation. Diuretics (Na channel blockers: amiloride, triamterene, and aldosterone competitive inhibitor spirolactone) are K sparing: Na and water are excreted in urine, K is retained in body. Vasopressin (ADH) causes insertion of aquaporins and reabsorption of water.

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12
Q

Bartters syndrome

A

Too much NaCl excretion, hypotension, neonatal presentation, more severe than gitelmans. (defective Na/K/2Cl cotransporter or K channel or Cl channel in the ascending limb of loop of henle).

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13
Q

Gitelmans syndrome

A

Too much NaCl excretion, hypotension, presentation in early adulthood, (defective Na/Cl cotransporter in the distal tubule).

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14
Q

Liddles syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant, hypertension (mutation in amiloride-sensitive Na channel resulting in more Na channels in plasma membrane than normal). Too much Na reuptake. How can it be treated?

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15
Q

Vasopressin

A

Secreted into the body and transverse the whole body, but it’s main target is the kidney. Vasopressin binds to V2 receptors located in the collecting duct which has downstream effects of inserting aquaporins into the apical membrane. This works to increase water reabsorption, thereby raising blood pressure and decreasing the amount of urine excretion in the process.

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16
Q

Diabetes mellitus

A

Too little insulin produced or cells unresponsive to insulin; excess glucose in blood causes glucose and water loss into the urine (causes renal effects but the cause is not the kidneys). Too much urine, and it is sweet.

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17
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Too little vasopressin produced, or collecting duct is unresponsive to vasopressin; results in excess water loss into urine. Urine is not sweet.

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18
Q

What are the two main types of diabetes insipidus?

A

Nephrogenic and neurogenic. Nephrogenic is less common and involves an inability of the kidneys to respond to vasopressin. This can be either an acquired kidney disorder or due to defective V2 receptors (nonfunctional or doesn’t appropriately traffic to the plasma membrane). Neurogenic is the most common and involves a deficiency in vasopressin production. Treated with desmopressin (a vasopressin analogue).

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19
Q

What are some diseases that involve protein mistrafficking?

A

Lysosomal diseases, cystic fibrosis, diabetes insipidus, retinitis pigmentosa, neurodegenerative diseases.

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20
Q

What happens to proteins that are misfolded or unassembled?

A

They are ubiquitinated then degraded by ERAD.

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21
Q

How do pharmacological chaperones work?

A

Give the cells a reagent that causes protein to fold correctly and more quickly and reliably. So you can give an agonist or antagonist into a functional site on the protein, which might help the protein assume it’s correct conformation because it could act as a template.

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22
Q

What are the criteria for identifying cotrabsporters?

A

Physiology: cotransporter ls require the presence if both transported substances to function. Pharmacology: are they blocked by the appropriate drugs? Anatomy: are they found in the right place?

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23
Q

Bumetanide

A

A loop diuretic.

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24
Q

What are the sites for blood pressure control?

A

Heart: decrease in force and rate of cardiac contraction. Kidney: decrease in blood volume. Blood vessels: relax vascular smooth muscle.

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25
Q

Treatments for hypertension and control of blood pressure.

A

ACE inhibitors (decrease angiotensin II). Angiotensin II receptor antagonists. Diuretics (kidney: decrease Na reabsorption, decrease blood volume). Calcium channel inhibitors (blood vessels: causes vasodilation of smooth muscle). Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists (heart: decrease cardiac output). Alpha1-adrenergic receptor antagonists (blood vessels: block vasoconstriction by alpha1-adrenergic receptors.

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26
Q

What process tells the body that it needs more salt?

A

Juxtaglomerula cells are the sites of secretion of renin. This region of the kidney is in contact with the ascending limb of the distal tubule. Macula densa cells sense the amount of sodium and salts absorbed. Contact between the macula densa cells and the juxtaglomerula cells allows for communication to ensure renin release at appropriate times. The juxtaglomerula cells are prevalent at the afferent arteriole.

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27
Q

Afferent arteriole

A

Low blood pressure can be detected here and stimulates renin release. The area at which renin is release is innervated with sympathetic nerves.

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28
Q

How does angiotensin II work?

A

Renin release leads to several intermediates being synthesized, ultimately leading to increased angiotensin II. Angiotensin II works as a circulating hormone that interacts with the adrenal cortex. The outer region of the adrenal cortex is where aldosterone is synthesized. Angiotensin II activates a GPCR that works to stimulate aldosterone synthesis. Aldosterone is then released into the blood. Aldosterone is a steroid and works through a nuclear receptor. Aldosterone interacts with it’s receptor at the collecting duct of the kidney where it causes reabsorption of salt. Increased salt reabsorption leads to decreased urine volume and increased blood pressure.

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29
Q

How does renin work?

A

Renin is a hormone and an enzyme. Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. Angiotensinogen is made in the liver but is circulating through the blood supply. Angiotensin I is not biologically active, but is converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) which cleaves the 2 amino acids on the C terminal side creating angiotensin II, a very active hormone and is an 8 aa peptide. Angiotensin II can then cause aldosterone secretion.

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30
Q

How does aldosterone work?

A

Angiotensin II causes aldosterone secretion. Aldosterone goes to the collecting duct and causes salt reabsorption by increasing the synthesis of sodium channels and sodium channel mediators and sodium potassium ATPases. Angiotensin II is the most powerful vasoconstrictor and has feedback inhibition.

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31
Q

How does angiotensin II cause aldosterone synthesis?

A

Aldosterone is derived from cholesterol. The rate limiting step in aldosterone synthesis is cleavage of a side chain of the cholesterol which is catalyzed by angiotensin II. Angiotensin II also activates a number of enzymes involved in aldosterone synthesis. Angiotensin II acts directly on the blood supply to increase construction of blood vessels. Angiotensin II also increases the release of vasopressin, which also works to cause water reabsorption and increase blood pressure. So the net result is salt and water reabsorption along with an increase in blood pressure.

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32
Q

Actions of angiotensin II

A
  • promotes aldosterone synthesis and release, thereby increasing sodium reabsorption in the kidney.
  • direct vasoconstrictor causing increase in blood pressure.
  • promoted vasopressin release from posterior pituitary, causing water reabsorption in kidney.
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33
Q

Captopril

A

And ACE inhibitor that binds to the active site of ACE. By knowing the steric restrictions of the active site, Captopril was developed. ACE inhibitors also prevent the breakdown of Bradykinin (a vasodilator) which ACE normally breaks down. Another ACE inhibitor is lisinopril.

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34
Q

Angiotensin II receptor antagonists

A

Block the effects of angiotensin II and are anti hypertensives. It’s the AT1 angiotensin II receptor that’s responsible for the blood pressure effects of angiotensin II, so inhibitors of AT1 act as anti hypertensives (Sartans e.g. Losartan).

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35
Q

Renin inhibitors

A

Block the active site of renin to prevent proteolysis of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I; are recent drugs to treat hypertension. Aliskiren

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36
Q

What are some general principles for G protein signaling?

A
  • cascade of signaling molecules.
  • signaling is slower than ligand-gated ion channels (but still fast) and persists longer.
  • amplification of response is intrinsic to this mode if signaling.
  • multiple downstream targets and multiple responses are frequently produced.
  • integration and overlap of responses to different hormones/neurotransmitters.
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37
Q

What are the two major groups of G proteins?

A

Small G proteins (ras, rho, rab): monomeric G proteins involved in proliferation, nuclear transport, vesicle transport via effector proteins (e.g. MAP kinase pathway).

Heterotrimeric G proteins: coupled to 7 transmembrane spanning receptors. Signaling by hormones and neurotransmitters. Heterotrimeric, consisting of alpha, beta, and gamma subunits. Alpha subunit is related to the small G proteins.

38
Q

Guanine nucleotide Exchange Factors (GEFs)

A

Activate G protein by promoting GDP release which allows for GTP to bind and activate the receptor.

39
Q

GTPase Activating Proteins (GAPs) also known as Regulators of G-protein Signaling (RGSs)

A

Inactivate G protein by increasing GTPase activity. GAP= regulate GTPase activity of small G proteins. RGS= regulate GTPase activity of heterotrimeric G proteins.

40
Q

Which steps of GPCRs show amplification?

A

Receptor -> G proteins

adenylyl Cyclase -> cAMP

Protein kinases -> phosphorylation of downstream targets.

41
Q

Gs

A

Stimulates adenylyl cyclase, gives higher concentration of cAMP, higher levels of protein kinase A.

42
Q

Gi

A

Inhibits adenylyl cyclase, gives lower levels of cAMP, lower levels of protein kinase A activity. Beta/ gamma subunit mediates potassium channel activation.

43
Q

Gt

A

Increases activity of cGMP PDE, decreasing levels of cGMP, closing cation channels.

44
Q

Gq

A

Increased activity of Phospholipase C, increase in IP3 and DAG. DAG activates protein kinase C. IP3 increases calcium levels which activated CaM kinase.

45
Q

Can GPCRs open ion channels?

A

Yes

46
Q

How does GTP binding initiate a conformational change to create an effector binding site?

A

The gamma phosphate of GTP forms hydrogen bonds with glycine and threonine residues on the switch II and switch I regions respectively. This causes a conformational change rearranging the switch II and I regions and creates a binding site to activate G protein effectors.

47
Q

How is the turn-off of G protein regulated?

A

Regulation is via control of the rate-limiting step in G preprint turn-off: intrinsic hydrolysis of GTP to GDP by G alpha subunit is very slow, but can be accelerated by GTPase Activator Proteins (GAPs; RGS proteins). RGS proteins order the catalytic residues in G alpha to optimize GTP hydrolysis. Inactivation of G protein is favorable because it is coupled to hydrolysis of the high-energy phosphodiester bond of GTP.

48
Q

Guanine Nucleotide Dissociation Inhibitors (GDIs)

A

Prevent GDP dissociation. Lock the small G protein in the GDP-bound inactive state, and shield their prenyl groups, this preventing their localization to the membrane. GDIs for heterotrimeric G proteins: GoLoco proteins bind to the G alpha in the inactive GDP state. This results in decreased G alpha signaling, but increases G beta gamma signaling because the GDIs competitively block reassociation of G beta gamma with G alpha.

49
Q

GPCR class A

A

GPCRs that bind small molecules in which the ligand binds to the TM region.

50
Q

GPCR class B

A

GPCR that binds larger molecules in the extracellular domain.

51
Q

GPCR class C

A

GPCR that binds calcium, glutamate, GABA, pheromones; at an extracellular domaine resembling a clam shell.

52
Q

Why do some GPCRs dimerize?

A

One of the receptors may have a trafficking motif that allows for the dimer to get to the plasma membrane. May need to bind 2 Ligands for activation. May affect the type of G protein activated.

53
Q

How is a GPCR signal terminated?

A

GRK phosphorylated an activated receptor, which promotes the binding of arrestin which blocks the G protein binding site.

54
Q

GPCR desensitization

A

Involves uncoupling from G protein and receptor internalization. Can be homologous, in which the receptor itself binds agonist, after it’s activated GRK phosphorylates it, arrestin binds it, and it stops binding G protein. Heterologous desensitization involves a different receptor becoming active which signals downstream pathways that can go back and phosphorylate the GPCR in other ways (not the same sites as GRK is phosphorylating) and continue to down regulate and uncouple the GPCR from the G proteins.

55
Q

What are 2 activities of thrombin?

A

Cleaves fibrinogen to fibrin which can then form a network emmeshing platelets and red blood cells in a clot. Can activate a protease activated receptor which stimulates lymphocyte cell division, platelet aggregation, and is a chemotactic for monocytes.

56
Q

How do proteinase activated receptors work?

A

Protease proteolytically cleaves the receptor to activate it. The receptor has an elongated amino terminus that has a cleavage site that the protease can attack. Thrombin cleaves the amino terminus, which generates a new amino terminus that has a recognition site that acts as a tethered agonist that binds to the GPCR itself and activates the receptor. An internally activated receptor.

57
Q

How can you turn off a permanently activated PAR?

A

Internalize the receptor, or inactivate the receptor by downstream cleavage.

58
Q

What’s an example of a GPCR that’s turned on too much?

A

Hyperthyroidism. Somatic mutation in the 3rd intracellular loop of thyroid stimulating hormone receptor which makes it always on. Thyroid is produced too much and can result in goiter from growth and differentiation of thyroid adenoma. Also retinitus pigmentosa involves a GPCR that is on too much.

59
Q

What are some general principles of second messengers?

A

Small molecules. Diffusible (either membrane bound or soluble). Rapidly synthesized. Rapidly degraded. Spread of signal. Amplification of response. Provide rapid, amplified transduction of signal.

60
Q

How can cAMP levels be regulated.

A

Regulate adenylyl cyclase or regulate cAMP phosphodiesterase.

61
Q

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

A

Methyl xanthines (look kind of like a nucleotide): caffeine and theophylline (used to treat asthma). Theobromine is a weak methyl xanthine. Block the breakdown of cAMP.

62
Q

Cholera toxin

A

Activates Gs which stimulates adenylyl cyclase. ADP ribosylates Gs.

63
Q

Pertussis toxin

A

Inhibits Gi which increases activity of adenylyl cyclase. ADP ribosylates Gi.

64
Q

Forskolin

A

Activates adenylyl cyclase. Bypasses the G proteins.

65
Q

Protein kinase A

A

PKA has 4 subunits. 2 are regulatory and 2 are catalytic. cAMP binds to sites in the regulatory subunits which initiates a conformational change on the regulatory subunits that releases the catalytic subunits. The free catalytic subunits are then active and can phosphorylate downstream targets resulting in either the activation or inactivation of the targets. PKA phosphorylates Ser and Thr within a consensus site. Regulatory domains of kinases contain inhibitory pseudosubstrate regions that mimic the consensus site but can’t be phosphorylated. They work to clog the active site and inhibit phosphorylation. Protein kinase A phosphorylates Ser or Thr within a consensus site.

66
Q

Beta 1 receptors

A

Increase rate and force of cardiac contraction. Activates Gs. Agonists: ISO>EPI>NE>PE
Antagonists: Propranolol

67
Q

Alpha 1

A

Found in blood vessels of the peripheral vasculature. They increase blood pressure. Activates Gq. Causes vascular smooth muscle contraction. Agonists: EPI> or = to NE»PE»ISO
Antagonists: Prazosin

68
Q

Beta 3

A

Found primarily in fat cells. Increase lipid breakdown. Activates Gs

69
Q

Beta 2

A

Important in the lungs. Coronary dilation and bronchial dilation. Also found in the liver and initiate break down of glycogen to glucose. Activates Gs. Promotes smooth muscle relaxation. Agonists: salbutamol and salmeterol.

70
Q

Norepinephrine

A

Increased heart rate and force of contraction, increased blood pressure. Peripheral vasoconstriction.

71
Q

Epinephrine

A

Increased heart rate and force of contraction, increased blood pressure, peripheral vasoconstriction, increased lipid breakdown, coronary dilation and bronchial dilation, increased breakdown of glycogen to glucose.

72
Q

Alpha adrenergic receptors

A

Agonists: NE, Epi,&raquo_space; Isoproterenol

73
Q

Beta adrenergic receptors

A

Agonists: Isoproterenol&raquo_space; NE, Epi

74
Q

Sympathetic fight or flight response involves

A

Glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen to glucose), bronchiodilation (opening of lung airways: relaxation of smooth muscle), stimulation of the heart (increased force and rate of contraction: contraction of cardiac muscle), and vasoconstriction (increased blood pressure: contraction of smooth muscle).

75
Q

Alpha 2

A

Activates Gi. Causes contraction in some vascular smooth muscle. Usually involved in presynaptic inhibition. Agonists: EPI > or = to NE»PE»ISO. Antagonists: Yohimbine

76
Q

Vagus nerve

A

Parasympathetic innervation of the lungs that acts via M3 muscarninic receptors. Regulates vascular smooth muscle tone (extent of contraction). Stimulating causes bronchiole constriction via the Gq pathway.

77
Q

How does sympathetic system work on the lungs?

A

There’s very little sympathetic innervation of the lungs. Epinephrine is carried through the blood and acts as a hormone to stimulate the beta 2 receptors on the lungs.

78
Q

What is asthma?

A

Recurring reversible airway obstruction. Can be fatal. Underlying features are constriction of the bronchiole tubes and inflammation. Early phase involved bronchospasm and late phase involves inflammation.

79
Q

How is the immediate phase of asthma treated? (Bronchospasm)

A

Beta 2 agonists, CysLT-receptor antagonists, and theophylline. Also muscarninic M3 receptor antagonists.

80
Q

How is the late phase of asthma treated? (Bronchospasm, wheezing, coughing)

A

Inhibited by glucocorticoids, which work via nuclear receptors to inhibit inflammation. Can have negative effects on the rest of the body including: inhibition of wound healing, bone repair, and can cause bone loss.

81
Q

Striated (skeletal) muscle

A

Contracts in response to membrane action potential that changes the activity of the dihydropuridine receptor. The DHPR is very similar to a calcium channel, but in this case it doesn’t function as one. Instead it functions as a mechanical stimulus that stimulates an intracellular ryanodine receptor on the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This releases calcium from intracellular stores and causes muscle contraction. Striated muscle involves voltage induced calcium release. Calcium interacts with troponin.

82
Q

Cardiac muscle

A

Calcium channels on plasma membrane that open in response to a membrane action potential depolarization. Cardiac muscle also has ryanodine receptor on SR. The ryanodine receptor in the heart is responsive to calcium concentrations. Calcium comes in through the plasma membrane, activates the ryanodine receptors, which leads to intracellular calcium release. Together these two sources of calcium cause muscle contraction via interaction with troponin.

83
Q

Smooth muscle

A

Calcium comes in through the plasma membrane, as well as other sources of calcium. There are also agonists that activate GPCRs (Gq) that increases the production of IP3, which activates calcium release from intracellular stores. IP3 receptors are activated and cause calcium release from the SR. Together the calcium binds calmldulin which binds to MLCK which can then phosphorylate myosin causing contraction.

84
Q

Loop diuretics

A

Furosemide, bumetanide

85
Q

Collecting duct diuretics

A

Spirolactone, amiloride, triampterine. Potassium diuretics.

86
Q

Whats are treatments for hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias?

A

Beta blockers and calcium channel antagonists.

87
Q

Adenosine receptor

A

Activates Gi in the lungs, leading to decreased cAMP levels via inhibition of adenylyl cyclase. Adenosine antagonist can be a bronchodilator and can inhibit PDE and AC.

88
Q

What is a hirudin site?

A

Site next to the end of the amino terminus of PARs. Recruits the protease and helps it bind to the active site of the protease. Leeches mimic this site to prevent clotting by competing for the binding of thrombin.

89
Q

A-Kinase Anchoring Proteins

A

Recruit GPCRs, PKA, downstream effectors, and PDE. A scaffolding protein.

90
Q

Endoglycosylase H and F

A

H cleaves high mannose, F cleaves both mature and immature glycosylation.

91
Q

How to tell if cotransporters are found in the right place?

A

Northern blot and in situ hybridization.

92
Q

Alternating access model of transport

A

Bind to one side and release on the other. Alternate exposure of substrate binding site to each side of membrane.