Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medical Microbiology > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

Tool to display localization of protein expression

A

biophotonic images

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is necessary for the analysis of colony forming units

A

the dilution of the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

uses low energy laser pulse to isolate tissue from infected animals

A

laser capture microdissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the methods to determine bacterial infectivity in animal models

A

clinical observations, pathological analysis, colony forming units, bio photonic images and laser capture microdissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what does a CI over 1 indicate

A

mutant does better than the wildtype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the cons of the CI model

A

growth rate does not always correspond to virulence and the simultaneous inoculation may provide the necessary factors for virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between in vivo and in vitro

A

in vivo occurs in living animals while in vitro happens with a tissue sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the cons of LD50 ID50 models

A

lowly pathogenic batceria, requires a lot of animals, doesnt show progression, needs clear time measurements, and depends on the animal used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are in the in vitro methods to measure virulence and infectivity

A

plaque assay and gentamicin protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what does gentamicin do

A

kills surface bacteria but not invading ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the plaque assay allow us to determine

A

how a bacteria is being spread. Those that spread cell to cell through junctions will survie

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does proteotomic profiling do

A

take a snapshot of all the proteins present in a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the drawbacks of tissue culture models

A

may not fully encapsulate in vivo environment, immortalized cells may behave differently, and limited number of generations in primary cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does transcriptional microarrays tell us

A

the amount of mRNA in a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what do we use RNAI screening for

A

to knock down expression of genes in a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the biochemical approach

A

isolate virulence factors and reintroduce them into the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is forward genetics

A

we have the phenotype and we want to deduce the genes responsible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is a drawback of the biochemical method

A

misses in vivo factors of the bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

gene expression in non pathogenic bacteria cons

A

can only catch single- gene mediate phenotypes and the processes may be different inside the original bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does gene rearrangments in bacteria work

A

phase variation and gene duplication/amplification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which cell type loses its polarity, expresses an array of surface proteins, and cannot be used to evaluate effects of mucus/secreted fluids

A

immortalized cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

gene duplication

A

increase copies of gene to increase chance of secondary mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

gene amplification

A

increases diversity by introducing nonrandom repeats into a genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does the a’’ subunit do

A

interact with promoter regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does the B subunit of rna polymerase do

A

rna synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

stabilizes and assembles rnap

A

W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

reduces affinity for nospecific dna and increases for specific dna

A

sigma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

multiple genes controlled by a single promoter

A

operon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the structure and function of the TCS

A

TCS is composed of histidine kinase and response regulator. The histidine kinase has an extracellular domain to sense and an intracellular domain that autophosphor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

regulons

A

multiple genes in dif locations with similar promoters that are controlled by the same regulatory protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does the tcs stimulate gene expression

A

phosphorylate the regulators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how do anti-sigma factors cause disassociation of the sigma factor

A

phosphorylate/disulfide bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does the histidine kinase phosphatase do

A

remove the phospho group from the regulator and block gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How does DNA supercoiling regulate gene expression

A

change in DNA topology in response to temp and osmolaity changes gene expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do RNA thermosensors work

A

low temp MRNA forms hairloops that block translation

high temp opens up and allows for translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what the translational forms of regulation

A

RNA thermosensors and small RNA regulatory systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are the main transcriptional regulators

A

sigma, cis acting rna sensors, and TCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the nonprotein toxins

A

endotoxins and mycolactone toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

LPS is what kind of protein and secreted by what

A

endotoxin and secreted by gram negative

35
Q

bind to target molecules but do not translocate

A

type 1 super antigens

36
Q

disrupt the membrane

A

type 2, membrane disrupting

37
Q

type 3 toxins

A

A-B toxins. B translocates A into the cell

38
Q

which toxin type is known to stimulate t cells and cause cytokine storms

A

type 1 toxins

38
Q

which class of type 2 exotoxins requires oligomerization

A

the beta type

39
Q

which domain of the type 3 exotoxins binds to cellular receptors

A

B domain

40
Q

what kind of bond links the mature A and b domains of type 3 exotoxins

A

disulfide bond

40
Q

can multiple B subunits interact with one A subunit in the type 3 exotoxin

A

yes

41
Q

where does the translocation of A subunits (type 3 ) exotoxin occasionally occur

A

trans-golgi apparatus

42
Q

what are the SEC dependent systems in gram negative bacteria

A

type 2 and type 5

43
Q

sec system generally has ___ proteins

A

unfolded

44
Q

what are the SEC independent systems

A

type 1,3,4, and 6

45
Q

what is the function of secB

A

to keep proteins unfolded

46
Q

what is the function of secYEG

A

protein export chanel

47
Q

secA function

A

serves as the ATPase for the export channel

48
Q

where is the signal peptide located for the sec system and is it cleaved

A

n terminus and yes

49
Q

TAT transports what kind of proteins

A

proteins that are already folded

50
Q

is the signal cleaved for TAT proteins

A

no, they are already folded

51
Q

two step processing for excretion

A

type 2 and type 5

52
Q

one step process

A

1,3,4, and 6

53
Q

what are type 2 proteins associated with

A

adhesion, motility, and type 4 fimbriae

53
Q

which sec type contributes to dna transformation in gram negative bacteria

A

type 2

54
Q

diverse set of proteins that mediate their own export

A

type V

55
Q

what is special about the type 1 signal sequence

A

not cleaved during transport and located at the c terminal

56
Q

what guides proteins in the type 3 secretion system

A

chaperone proteins, they do not have a signal peptide

57
Q

which secretion system has proteins closely linked to the assembly of the flagella

A

type 3

58
Q

what kind of signal do type 6 ss proteins have

A

they have no signal

58
Q

which secretion system has injectosomes that are generally conserved

A

type 3

59
Q

what is the ATP dependent secretion system

A

type 6

60
Q

which secretion system type is involved in cell to cell injections

A

type 6

61
Q

what are the main activites coordinated using auto inducers

A

expression of virulence factors, sporulation, mating and bioluminescence

62
Q

why are autoinducers beneficial

A

encourages spreading and allows for better protection against viral defenses

63
Q

what kind of intraspecies auto inducers do gram negative bacteria release

A

hydrophobic

64
Q

what kind of intraspecies auto inducers do gram pos bacteria release

A

auto inducing oligopeptides that are processed and then transported across the membrane

64
Q

what kind of interspecies auto inducers do gram neg and gram pos release

A

Furanosyl borate diester

65
Q

LUXI produces __

A

AHL

66
Q

binding mechanism for AHL

A

diffuses into the membrane and then binds to the LUX-R proteins

67
Q

what are the main classes of gram negative intraspecies autoinducers

A

AHLs, AI-1, and AHKs

68
Q

what is AI2 associated with

A

interspecies gram neg and gram pos autoinducer

69
Q

what enzyme produces AI2

A

LuxS

70
Q

how is redifussion of AI2 prevented

A

phosphorylation of AI2

71
Q

What are the methods of detection for AI2

A

cell surface TCS and direct import

72
Q

which method incorporates radiolabeled/fluorescent bases to terminate polymerase reaction

A

Sanger

73
Q

What are the advantages of 16s rna gene analysis

A

rapid information, cheaper, and gives reliable readout on the identity of an organism

74
Q

what are the cons of 16sRNA gene analysis

A

not quant, species may be missed if they are not amplified well, limited to 1 gene: 1clone and rarely gives physiological information about the organisms

75
Q

what does DNA hybridize with in the phylo chip process

A

probes on the coated chip

76
Q

what are the advantages of phylochips

A

cheaper than large scale sequencing and allow a large number of samples to be analyzed

77
Q

what are the disadvantages of phylochip

A

cross hybridization, not quantitative, and may miss uncommon bacteria

78
Q

what is illumina sequencing associated with

A

sequencing by synthesis

79
Q

how does pacific biosciences compare to illumina

A

lower throughput, higher cost, lower error, and longer reads

80
Q

does illumina or pacific biosciences have a higher per read error rate

A

pacific biosciences

81
Q

what kind of sequencing is illumina known for

A

very high throughput with very short reads

82
Q

what is shotgun analysis

A

all dna in a sample, little PCR selection, and high throughout

83
Q

what are the advantages of metagenomic analysis

A

extensive genetic info and preliminary functional analysis

84
Q

what are the cons of metagenomic analysis

A

very expensive, difficult to associate a gene with a particular microbe, and does not tell us about the gene expression profile

85
Q

what are the two dimensions of protetomic profiling

A

isoelectric focusing and protein expression pattern

86
Q

what is the purpose of the type 7 secretion system

A

for gram positive bacteria that have a mycomembrane

Medical Microbiology (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions