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Biol 1080 > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is direct intercellular communication

A

gap junctions, membrane nanotubes, mechanosignals

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2
Q

What is indirect intercellular communication

A

chemical messengers (indirect because no contact is required between cells, only synapse)

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3
Q

What are types of gap junctions

A

connexons and intercalated discs

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4
Q

What are connexons

A

subunits that form a channel (gap junction)

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5
Q

What are intercalated discs

A

the gap junction units found in cardiac cells

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6
Q

What are nanotubes

A

formed from the plasma membrane
- longer than gap junctions and have larger pore diameter

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7
Q

What is mechanosignal transduction

A

direct physical stress to cells that elicits a response

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8
Q

What is paracrine signalling

A

cell communication between two nearby cells via indirect signalling

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9
Q

What are neurotransmitters

A

signalling molecules between neurons and target cells

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10
Q

What are hormones in relation to cell signalling

A

indirect signalling where cell secretes a hormone to the blood stream that targets a specific cell via a receptor

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11
Q

In what two ways can an endocrine cell release a hormone

A

exocytosis and diffusion

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12
Q

What are hydrophilic messengers in hormone secretion

A

water-loving; secreted via exocytosis
- dissolves in plasma (no hatred to water) so no need for carrier

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13
Q

What are hydrophobic messengers in hormone secretion

A

water-hating; secreted via diffusion
- cannot dissolve in plasma (hates water) so carrier is needed
- binds to a carrier lipid in the blood to be carried to target

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14
Q

Which of the two (hydrophilic and hydrophobic) hormone messengers are more prevalent in the body

A

hydrophilic (<99%)
- hydrophobic hormones requiring a carrier have limited storage so they are only really made on demand

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15
Q

What makes cell-cell signalling specific

A

receptor specificity (cannot bind to a receptor that does not match)

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16
Q

What is the function of hydrophobic chemical messengers

A

binds to cytosolic or nuclear receptors and turns genes on to make new proteins

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17
Q

What is the function of hydrophilic chemical messengers

A

bind to cell surface to alter the activity of existing enzymes/proteins

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18
Q

Where does amplification occur in hydrophobic chemical messenger cell signalling

A

hormone/receptor complexes are formed to amplify the amount of protein synthesized (ie. if mRNA is the target, the complex elicits a response to synthesize mRNA but can cause many mRNA to be formed just with one complex - amplification!)

also many proteins are formed from the amplified amounts of mRNA, so this is another form of amplification!

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19
Q

Where does amplification occur in hydrophilic chemical messenger cell signalling

A

one messenger/receptor complex binds numerous G proteins - amplification!
each G protein activates an adenyl cyclase - amplification!
adenyl cyclase synthesizes hundreds of cAMP molecules - amplification!
each cAMP activates a protein kinase A - amplification!
protein kinase A phosphorylates hundreds of proteins - amplification!

*in essentially every step of this process amplification occurs!

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20
Q

Since hydrophilic chemical messengers synthesize such amplified amounts of protein, what is an important occurrence

A

signal must be turned off to prevent the overproduction of proteins

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21
Q

Which chemical signalling pathway has fast duration of response and which has long duration of response

A

hydrophilic - fast
hydrophobic - slow

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22
Q

What two factors play a role in the neuroendocrine signalling system (don’t overcomplicate this)

A

neural signalling and endocrine (hormone) signalling

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23
Q

What is the secretory cell in neuroendocrine signalling

A

neuron

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24
Q

What is the messenger in neuroendocrine signalling

A

neurotransmitter (neurohormones)

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25
Q

What is the pathway in neuroendocrine signalling

A

bloodstream

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26
Q

What are the target cells of the neuroendocrine system

A

endocrine cells

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27
Q

Where is specificity found in the neuroendocrine system?

A

receptors are specific to given neurohormones

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28
Q

Does the neuroendocrine system have immediate or delayed onset of response

A

delayed - but longer duration once in effect

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29
Q

Where do the messengers originate in the neuroendocrine system and where do they travel, what is the final destination

A

begin in a neuron, neurohormones are released into the bloodstream and travel to target cells that hold the specific receptor

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30
Q

What is the time to onset effect in the nervous system independently

A

immediately, and brief effect

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31
Q

What is the time to onset effect in the endocrine system independently

A

delayed, but duration is long

neuroendocrine response mimics that of the endocrine system

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32
Q

What are chloride and sodium channels regulated by

A

protein kinase (and cAMP)

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33
Q

What is an example of disease that occurs as a result of signal not being turned off in cell-signalling pathways

A

cholera - a toxin that causes life-threatening diarrhea
- activates G proteins for prolonged periods so signal does not shut off, causing excess influx of Cl-, Na+ and water

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34
Q

What is the relationship between cystic fibrosis and cholera that we learned in relation to cell-signalling pathways

A

cholera = when signal is not shut off and influx of chloride and sodium occur
cystic fibrosis = less water loss (thicker fluids)

therefore, if someone with cystic fibrosis were infected with cholera, it is likely they would be less impacted due to the combating defects in cell signalling

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35
Q

What is a regulated healthcare professional

A

governed by a regulatory body
- ie. doctor, nurse practitioner, registered dietitian, pharmacist, etc.

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36
Q

What is an unregulated healthcare professional

A

not governed by a regulatory body
- ie. traditional Chinese medicine, acupuncture, herbal medicine, naturopath, etc.

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37
Q

What is an example of a public health profession

A

epidemiologist, infectious disease specialist, public health dietitian, etc.

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38
Q

What are other career options related to biological concepts of human health not within the regulated and unregulated professional categories

A

research, education, industry worker, etc.

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39
Q

What are the components of the central nervous system (CNS)

A

brain and spinal cord

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40
Q

What are the components of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)

A

somatic and autonomic nervous system

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41
Q

What are the 4 components of the control and communication network

A

central nervous system, peripheral nervous system, endocrine system, and local support and defence (immune)

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42
Q

What is the pathway of input/output in the central nervous system

A

sensory input (ie. external stimuli, sensory receptors on the skin, sensory receptors on internal organs, etc.), to central nervous system, leading to motor output either in somatic (voluntary) or autonomic (involuntary) systems

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43
Q

What are the 5 major cell types of the CNS

A

neurons, oligodendrocytes (CNS)/Schwann cells (PNS), astrocytes, microglia, & ependymal cells

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44
Q

What are dendrites

A

branched structure on neuron ends that receive signals from previous neurons and send to rest of neuron to be passed on

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45
Q

What is an axon

A

takes the signal from dendrites and cell body and moves it to axon terminal to be passed on

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46
Q

What is the axon terminal

A

the end of a neuron where the signal is passed on via a synapse

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47
Q

What does multiple sclerosis have to do with neurons

A

destruction of the myelin sheath occurs in this disease, causing slower nerve signalling

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48
Q

Do neurons typically release one neurotransmitter type or various at a given pre synaptic neuron

A

usually only one type

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48
Q

What is the myelin sheath

A

myelination of the axon of a neuron that causes the signal to jump down the axon, increasing the speed of signal transmission

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49
Q

What happens when the impulse reaches the end of the axon terminal

A

synapse is formed

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50
Q

What is a synapse

A

space between the axon terminal of one neuron and the dendrites of the next neuron, or the membrane of the target cell, where neurohormones are released from the axon terminal and travel to the target

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51
Q

What is an excitatory response

A

when release of the neurotransmitter increases a response or function

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52
Q

What is an inhibitory response

A

when release of the neurotransmitter decreases a response or stops it

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53
Q

What if the signal does not reach threshold level

A

action potential cannot occur

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54
Q

What is important to know about the occurrence of action potentials in neurons

A

it is an all-or-none response, meaning if threshold is not met, nothing happens

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55
Q

What determines whether threshold is met

A

the summation of net response of all excitatory and inhibitory effects

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56
Q

What occurs in age 10 related to neurons

A

begin to diverge, converge, and form networks

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57
Q

What is the diverging, converging, and network formation called in neurons

A

networking

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58
Q

What is increased during networking

A

myelination

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59
Q

What is the association between impulsivity and teenagers in relation to neuron function

A

increased myelination in networking, which occurs beginning in early teen years, so quicker signalling could explain impulsivity

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60
Q

What system are oligodendrocytes found in

A

CNS

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61
Q

What system are Schwann cells found in

A

PNS

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62
Q

What is the function of oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells

A

form the myelin on axons

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63
Q

What are the nodes of ranvier

A

the spaces in between myelinated parts of the axon where the signal jumps to

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64
Q

What is the difference in the function of oligodendrocytes in the CNS and Schwann cells in the PNS

A

oligodendrocytes - span and support numerous axons
Schwann cells - only span and support 1 axon

refer to slide 12 of lecture 9 for visual

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65
Q

What are astrocytes

A

*star-shaped cells important in communication
- coordination of function of the blood-brain barrier (BBB)
- coordination of function at nodes of ranvier
- coordination of function of brain network
- form tripartite synapses with neurons
- serve as “super-hubs” for neural networks via syncytium formation and calcium signalling

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66
Q

What is the blood brain barrier

A

the barrier of what molecules can flow to the brain and what cannot

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67
Q

What are microglia

A

macrophage-like immune cells

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68
Q

What are ependymal cells

A

lines ventricle to form a barrier, and forms cerebrospinal fluid

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69
Q

What neural cell type is important in communication and function of blood brain barrier

A

astrocytes

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70
Q

What neural cell type is important in forming myelin in CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

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71
Q

What neural cell type is important in forming myelin in PNS

A

Schwann cells

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72
Q

What neural cell type is important in forming cerebral spinal fluid

A

ependymal cells

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73
Q

What neural cells are macrophage-like immune cells

A

microglia

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74
Q

What gets through the BBB

A

mostly very small lipid-soluble compounds (fatty acids), caffeine, alcohol, glucose (with a specific glucose transporter), etc.

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75
Q

What is the limitation with pharmaceuticals in relation to the blood brain barrier

A

issue with producing drugs small enough and capable of crossing the BBB to effectively work

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76
Q

Who is an important individual in the understanding of the brain networks (think pole through the brain and change in personality)

A

Phineas Gage

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77
Q

What are brain networks responsible for producing per individual

A

emergent properties

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78
Q

What are examples of emergent properties derived from different brain networks

A

personality, rational decision making, emotion processing, etc.

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79
Q

What does PET scan stand for

A

positron emission tomography

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80
Q

What does a PET scan do

A

uses gamma rays to track glucose uptake in the brain via a glucose tracer

81
Q

What does fMRI stand for

A

functional magnetic resonance imaging

82
Q

What does an fMRI scan do

A

tracks blood flow - when a region of the brain is in high demand for a given activity/occurrence, it is in high demand of oxygenated blood

oxygenated and deoxygenated blood impact the magnetic properties of hemoglobin, so when magnetic properties change the blood can be tracked in varying regions

83
Q

What is norepinephrine responsible for

A

attention, arousal, sleep-wake

84
Q

What is serotonin responsible for

A

happiness, mood, sleep-wake

85
Q

What is acetylcholine responsible for

A

learning, memory, etc

86
Q

What is dopamine responsible for

A

motor control, reward, pleasure, etc.

87
Q

What network do psychostimulants exert their effects through

A

norepinephrine networks

88
Q

What network do antidepressants exert their effects on

A

serotonin networks (increase serotonin to increase happiness)

89
Q

What neurohormone is seen in low levels of Alzheimers patients and why

A

acetylcholine
- related to memory and learning, so in low levels, memory and learning is impaired (as in Alzheimers)

90
Q

What neurohormone is seen in low levels in Parkinsons disease and why

A

dopamine
- related to motor control, so in low levels, motor control is impaired (as in Parkinsons)

91
Q

What neurohormone is involved in the “pleasure network”

A

dopamine

92
Q

What network is typically associated with addiction

A

pleasure network: dopamine

93
Q

What two things can the dopamine network be increased by

A

addictive drugs
natural endorphins (ie working out)

94
Q

Is dopamine excitatory or inhibitory

A

excitatory

95
Q

How does cocaine impact the release of dopamine

A

dopamine, a neurohormone, is released from the axon terminal but cannot bind to the receptors due to the inhibitor protein GABA, so the dopamine exhibits reuptake back into the axon terminal

96
Q

How do heroine and morphine impact the release of dopamine

A

block the release of inhibitory protein GABA so more dopamine can be released than normal (reuptake does not occur but a surplus in dopamine release occurs)

97
Q

What is seen in PKU patients who dont eat excess phenylalanine / protein

A

decreased dopamine and serotonin

98
Q

What are some possible health implications/concerns involving PKU patients

A

higher levels of depression and anxiety due to decreased dopamine and serotonin

99
Q

What is the role of hormones in the body

A

growth/development
homeostasis
reproduction

100
Q

Where do hormones come from

A

endocrine glands
nerves
organs (produce hormones as their secondary function)
adipose tissue
muscle

101
Q

What are the signalling molecules called when nerves release their hormones directly into the bloodstream?

A

neurohormones

102
Q

What are neurohormones

A

neurotransmitters with downstream effects on hormone secretion

103
Q

What is the difference between neurotransmitters and neurohormones

A

neurotransmitters: transmit signals to nearby cells via synapses
neurohormones: transmitted directly into bloodstream by neurons

104
Q

What is the posterior pituitary vs the anterior pituitary

A

posterior = back of body
anterior = front of body

105
Q

What two hormones are the main release focus of the posterior pituitary

A

oxytocin (OT) and antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

106
Q

Where are the hormones made that are released by the posterior pituitary

A

the hypothalamus

107
Q

What is low oxytocin associated with

A

higher levels of perceived pain as well as stress, depression and anxiety

108
Q

What is the function of oxytocin

A

social cognition and behaviour

109
Q

What is the function of antidiuretic hormone?

A

blood pressure regulation

110
Q

When is increased antidiuretic hormone seen

A

heart failure and severe blood loss (to compensate for the reduced blood flow)

111
Q

What does the anterior pituitary act as

A

a gland (releases many different types of hormone

112
Q

What is WADA

A

world anti-doping agency

113
Q

What drug was banned according to WADA up until 2004

A

caffeine

114
Q

Why are steroids dangerous to the body

A

the effects are superphysiological, meaning they are beyond the scope of a natural response in the body

115
Q

What does it mean for hormones to be used as ergogenic aids

A

increase performance, energy, ability, etc.
ie. steroids are examples of hormones used as ergogenic aids
*many are banned due to health risk

116
Q

What levels of defence are non specific

A

first and second lines of defence

117
Q

What levels of defence are specific

A

third line of defence

118
Q

What levels of defence does the innate immune system consist of

A

first and second levels

119
Q

What levels of defence does the adaptive immune response consist of

A

third level

120
Q

What makes up the first line of defence

A

physical barriers (ie. skin, tears, saliva, and internal organs unrelated to the immune response

121
Q

What makes up the second line of defence

A

internal resident cells, proteins, inflammation, and fever response
- remember this is NON SPECIFIC so memory is not formed

122
Q

What are examples of defensive cells in the second line of defence

A

phagocytic cells: neutrophils and macrophages
eosinophils
natural killer cells

123
Q

What are examples of defensive proteins in the second line of defence

A

interferons
complement system

124
Q

What is inflammation

A

widening of blood vessels and increased capillary permeability
- leads to redness, heat, swelling, and pain

125
Q

What is a fever

A

abnormally high body temperature caused by infection, the body’s defence to slow the growth of bacteria and speed up body defences

126
Q

What is cell-based defence

A

first phagocytes enter to consume bacteria or other invading molecules
eosinophils release signalling molecules for other immune cells
natural killer cells weaken the foreign cells to destroy them using perforin and proteases

127
Q

What is perforin in relation to natural killer cells

A

released by natural killer cells
- form pores

128
Q

What are proteases in relation to natural killer cells

A

released by natural killer cells
- cuts peptide bonds

129
Q

What is the protein based response in the second line of defence

A

lysis of foreign cells via the complement system

130
Q

What are the 4 key signs of inflammation

A

redness, swelling, heat, pain

131
Q

What does redness mean/do in inflammatory response

A

blood flows, transporting defensive cells to damaged tissue, to remove toxins

132
Q

What does the heat mean/do in inflammatory response

A

increases metabolic rate of cells in the injured area

133
Q

What does the swelling mean/do in inflammatory response

A

fluid containing defensive chemicals, clotting factors, oxygen, nutrients, and defensive cells, seeps into injured area

134
Q

What does the pain mean/do in inflammatory response

A

restricts movement, allowing injured area to heal

135
Q

What is acute inflammation

A

bruises and torn tissue

136
Q

What is chronic inflammation

A

disease states (arthritis, obesity, etc.)
- body is under constant state of inflammation

137
Q

As the body works towards fever, cytokines build up, what is this state called

A

cytokine storm

138
Q

What is the cytokine storm

A

cytokines that build up as body builds toward fever

139
Q

What is the name for functional cells in the LSDS

A

parenchymal cells

140
Q

What is the name for support cells in the LSDS

A

stromal cells

141
Q

What are some examples of parenchymal cells

A

organs such as liver, heart, brain, pancreas, as well as skeletal muscle and adipose tissue

142
Q

What are some examples of stromal cells

A

astrocytes, capillary endothelial cells, cells of lymphoid, cells of myeloid, fibroblasts, stem cells, gap junctions

143
Q

What cells are more prominent; parenchymal or stromal

A

parenchymal (functional)

144
Q

What do stromal cells look like

A

branched in nature

145
Q

Is the LSDS always on or turned on and off

A

always on!
think of it as on and waiting, not always at peak function but is always on and ready for invaders

146
Q

If the LSDS is always on, what is it doing when infection is not occurring

A

response to damage unrelated to infection
normal tissue turnover (cell death and tissue repair)
looks out for transformed cell appearances (ie. cancer)

147
Q

What does LSDS stand for

A

local support and defence system,

148
Q

In the third line of defence, what markers are used to identify self and foreign cells

A

MHC (major histocompatibility complex) markers

149
Q

Do MHC markers display self or non self antigens

A

both!

150
Q

If a cell presents non-self MHC markers, what occurs

A

would cause immune cells to attack because they recognize the cell as foreign

151
Q

What are the 7 steps of the third line of defence

A

step 1: invader enters
step 2: macrophage encounters the invader and digests it
step 3: macrophage presents both self and non-self MHC markers to helper T cells
step 4: alarm to initiate B cell or T cell response
step 5: building specific defences
step 6: defence
step 7: continued surveillance

152
Q

What is the antibody-mediated response

A

the B cell response

153
Q

What is the cell-mediated response

A

the T cell response

154
Q

What is the route of cell-based immunity (T cell)

A

effector T cells activate naive cytotoxic T cells, which divide and induce amplification, forming memory T cells and effector cytotoxic T cells

155
Q

What is the route of antibody-based immunity (B cell)

A

effector T cells activates naive B cells, which divide and induce amplification, forming cytotoxic B cells that secrete antibodies to target pathogens outside of the cell

156
Q

What memory cells are produced in the entirety of the third line of defence

A

memory helper T, memory cytotoxic T, and memory B

157
Q

What is the importance of building memory cells

A

next time body encounters that specific disease, the immune response is much faster and more effective, lowering the effects of infection

158
Q

What turns off the signal in the third line of defence

A

supressor T cells

159
Q

Why is turning off the signal for third line of defence important

A

if signal is on too long, cells will start to attack self antigens, leading to autoimmunity

160
Q

What is observed with too little suppressor T cells

A

autoimmunity

161
Q

What is observed with too much suppressor T cells

A

increased incidence of infection and potential cancer

162
Q

What are the three main components of the cardiovascular system

A

heart, blood vessels, blood

163
Q

What other fluids (aside from blood) are affiliated with the cardiovascular system

A

lymph. cerebrospinal fluid, and extracellular fluid

164
Q

What are the two systems of the circulatory system

A

cardiovascular and lymphatic

165
Q

What are some examples of cardiovascular disease

A

coronary artery disease
stroke
heart attack
heart failure
hypertension
diabetes

166
Q

What is hypertension

A

high blood pressure (hyper = increased)

167
Q

Beginning with deoxygenated blood heading toward the heart, what is the pathway of blood flow in the cardiovascular system

A

deoxy blood flows into right atrium and right ventricle, leaving the heart via the venae cavae and heading toward the lungs
in the lungs, the blood travels from veins to venules to capillaries where gas exchange occurs and blood oxygenates
the blood leaves the lungs via arteries and travels back to the heart, entering the left atrium and left ventricle, and exiting via the aorta, down to the systemic circuit where the blood is then deoxygenated
the pathway then repeats in a continuous cycle

168
Q

What are the thickest blood vessels and why

A

arteries - need to handle high pressures

169
Q

What blood vessels have the highest surface area and for what purpose

A

capillaries - the site at which gas exchange occurs so large surface area is needed for maximum efficiency

170
Q

What blood vessel is the main site of blood pressure regulation

A

arterioles

171
Q

What blood vessel is the main site of lymphocytes

A

venules

172
Q

What blood vessels are thin but muscular

A

veins

173
Q

What is observed in atherosclerosis

A

build-up of plaque in the blood vessels, restricting blood flow and increasing risk for things such as CVD and stroke

174
Q

Is velocity low or high in capillaries

A

low velocity but high surface area - optimal for gas exchange because it is a slow process over a large surface area

175
Q

How is cardiac output calculate

A

heart rate x stroke volume

176
Q

In resting blood flow, how is flow distributed across the body

A

evenly, no parts are at higher demand than others (at least not significantly)

177
Q

In exercise blood flow, how is blood distributed across the body

A

blood flows to areas that need it most (ie skeletal muscle)

178
Q

In veins, is blood moved toward or against gravity

A

against gravity

179
Q

How is blood moved against gravity in veins

A

via a pressure gradient between left and right side of heart

180
Q

How is the pressure gradient between left and right sides facilitated

A

expansion of thoracic cavity, contraction of skeletal muscles, and valves

181
Q

What is an example of a valvular disorder

A

varicose veins
- valves malfunction and blood moves in opposite direction allowing for back flow and pooling

182
Q

What is the longest vein in the body called

A

great saphenous

183
Q

Where are varicose veins most prevalent

A

superficial veins in the thigh and calf

184
Q

What makes cardiac muscle different than skeletal muscle

A

cardiac = involuntary (autonomic)
heart functions as one large unit due to fast gap junction neural conductions (whereas skeletal muscles act independently of one another (ie. arms and legs))
heart is much more resistant to fatigue than skeletal muscle (high oxidative capacity)

185
Q

Why does cardiac muscle have such high oxidative capacity

A

lots of mitochondria - very fatigue resistant

186
Q

What sound is made when AV valves are closing

A

LUB

187
Q

What sound is made when semilunar valves are closing

A

DUB

188
Q

Where in the heart is the lub sound synthesized

A

closing of AV valves, which are located between the atria and ventricles

189
Q

Where in the heart in the dub sound synthesized

A

closing of semilunar valves, which are located after ventricles (pulmonary and aortic valves)

190
Q

What is stenosis

A

narrowing of valves

191
Q

What symptoms does stenosis cause

A

fatigue, shortness of breath, exercise intolerance, and in serious cases heart failure

192
Q

What is the surgical solution to stenosis

A

heart valve replacement (very common)

193
Q

What are some issues associated with heart valve replacements

A

durability
clot formation
can get stuck
resistance to flow

194
Q

In biological valve replacements (ie pig valves) what is required

A

immunosuppressive drugs
- so the patients immune system doesn’t reject the foreign cells

195
Q

What is the relationship between age and CVD

A

age age increases, risk for CVD increases

196
Q

What is the relationships between HDL and CVD

A

as HDL increases, risk for CVD decreases

197
Q

What is the relationship between total cholesterol and CVD

A

as total cholesterol increases, risk for CVD increases

198
Q

What is the relationship between smoking and CVD

A

if you smoke you are at greater risk for CVD

199
Q

What is the relationship between systolic blood pressure and CVD

A

as your systolic BP increases (consistent increase over time), risk for CVD increases

200
Q

What is the Framingham risk score (FRS)

A

a method that investigates health information to apply a score based on risk of CVD in a patient

Biol 1080 (3 decks)

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