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Physiology 2 > Midterm 2 > Flashcards

Midterm 2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following statements correctly describes endocrine glands?
    a. They produce hormones into the ducts.
    b. They act locally on nearby tissues.
    c. They all can pass through the plasma membrane.
    d. They are all controlled by the nervous system.
A

b

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following statements correctly describes hormones?
    a. They are all of similar chemical composition.
    b. They combine with specific receptors on the target cell’s surface or inside the target cell.
    c. They are secreted at a constant rate.
    d. They all act by activating adenylate cyclase, which transforms ATP into cyclic AMP.
A

b

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3
Q
  1. Which of these statements does NOT correctly describe hormones?
    a. Multiple hormones may be produced by a single endocrine gland.
    b. More than one hormone may influence a single target cell.
    c. A single hormone can influence only one type of target cell.
    d. Hormones may be secreted by an endocrine organ that may also exert nonendocrine functions.
A

b

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4
Q
  1. Which of these statements does NOT apply to peptide hormones?
    a. They include adrenal cortex hormones.
    b. Insulin is an example of this type of hormone.
    c. They are stored within secretory granules.
    d. They are secreted from endocrine glands.
A

a

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following statements correctly describes tropic hormones?
    a. They are produced by the posterior pituitary.
    b. They are secreted only by the hypothalamus.
    c. They primarily regulate hormone secretion by certain other endocrine glands.
    d. They all have non-tropic functions too.
A

c

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6
Q
  1. Which class of hormones is synthesized by the endoplasmic reticulum–Golgi complex mechanism?
    a. peptides
    b. catecholamines
    c. steroids
    d. thyroid hormones
A

a

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7
Q
  1. Which of these hormones is NOT a tropic hormone?
    a. ACTH
    b. ADH
    c. ICSH
    d. LH
A

b

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8
Q
  1. Which class of hormones is released by exocytosis upon appropriate stimulation?
    a. peptides
    b. thyroxins
    c. steroids
    d. insulins
A

a

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9
Q
  1. The transport of lipid-soluble hormones in the blood is accomplished by which of the following mechanisms?
    a. loose binding with iodine
    b. specific binding to some plasma proteins
    c. binding to HDLs
    d. binding to glycolipids
A

b

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to steroids?
    a. They are hydrophilic.
    b. They are derived from cholesterol.
    c. They initiate synthesis of the second messenger system within their target cells.
    d. Epinephrine is an example of a steroid.
A

b

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11
Q
  1. Which class of hormones acts by means of a second-messenger system?
    a. proteins
    b. catecholamines
    c. steroids
    d. thyroid hormones
A

b

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following substances is the most common second messenger used by hydrophilic hormones?
    a. calcium
    b. cyclic AMP
    c. chromatin
    d. messenger RNA
A

b

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13
Q
  1. Estrogens, testosterone, cortisol, and aldosterone are derivatives of which molecular precursor?
    a. DHEA
    b. cholesterol
    c. UDP-glucose
    d. epinephrine
A

b

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following happens in the second-messenger step?
    a. A small amount of one hormone (the second messenger) is required to release another.
    b. A tropic hormone (the first messenger) stimulates secretion of another hormone (the second messenger).
    c. The hormone first binds to a specific surface receptor, whereupon the hormone–receptor complex moves into the cell to combine with a specific intracellular receptor.
    d. A hormone (the first messenger) binds to surface receptors, activating adenylyl cyclase, which catalyzes cAMP formation.
A

d

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following can influence the effective plasma concentration of a hormone?
    a. the hormone’s rate of binding to receptors on target tissues
    b. the hormone’s extent of binding to plasma proteins
    c. the hormone’s rate of metabolic activity
    d. the hormone’s rate of secretion
A

d

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following statements applies to TSH?
    a. A build-up of the thyroid hormone stimulates its production by negative feedback.
    b. It is secreted by the thyroid gland.
    c. It is stored in the posterior pituitary.
    d. It stimulates the thyroid gland.
A

d

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following statements correctly describes control of hormone secretion?
    a. Normally the effective plasma concentration of a hormone is regulated by the rate of its synthesis.
    b. In order to maintain homeostasis, the rate of hormone secretion remains constant.
    c. All hormones are regulated with negative feedback controls.
    d. Neuroendocrine reflexes produce a sudden increase in hormone secretion in response to a specific, usually external, stimulus.
A

d

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following statements refers to permissiveness of hormones?
    a. Hormones permit cellular processes to occur.
    b. Hormones permit their target organs to function at the optimal rate.
    c. In some instances, an adequate amount of one hormone must be present for the full exertion of another hormone’s effect.
    d. Through numerous neuroendocrine relationships, the nervous system allows the endocrine system to function.
A

c

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following statements applies to the posterior pituitary?
    a. It secretes ADH.
    b. It stores anterior pituitary hormones.
    c. It stores ACTH and LH.
    d. It secretes vasopressin and oxytocin into the hypothalamic–hypophyseal portal system.
A

d

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20
Q
  1. Which of these hormones is a neurohormone?
    a. vasopressin
    b. thyroid hormone
    c. growth hormone
    d. cortisol
A

a

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21
Q
  1. Which one of the following hormones is released from the hypothalamus?
    a. CRH
    b. TSH
    c. FS
    d. LH
A

a

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the anterior pituitary?
    a. It is also known as the neurohypophysis.
    b. It is composed primarily of nervous tissue.
    c. It primarily secretes tropic hormones.
    d. It secretes vasopressin
A

c

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following statements correctly describes hypophysiotropic hormones?
    a. Each hypophysiotropic hormone influences only one anterior pituitary hormone.
    b. All hypophysiotropic hormones stimulate the release of anterior pituitary hormones.
    c. Hypophysiotropic hormones are also produced outside the hypothalamus, where they serve different functions.
    d. Hypophysiotropic hormones are secreted into the general circulation.
A

c

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24
Q
  1. Which of these activities happens in a short-loop, negative-feedback, control system?
    a. The anterior pituitary hormone feeds back to the hypothalamus, suppressing releasing hormone.
    b. The target gland’s hormone feeds back to the anterior pituitary, suppressing the tropic hormone.
    c. The target gland’s hormone does not feed back to any other gland.
    d. The anterior pituitary hormone feeds back to the posterior pituitary gland, stimulating the inhibiting hormone.
A

a

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25
Q
  1. Which of these statements represents long-loop, negative feedback in the CRH–ACTH–cortisol system?
    a. Cortisol inhibits CRH secretion.
    b. CRH inhibits ACTH secretion.
    c. ACTH inhibits CRH secretion.
    d. ACTH inhibits cortisol secretion.
A

a

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26
Q

What does the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex secrete?

a. aldosterone
b. cortisol
c. androgens and estrogens
d. epinephrine

A

a

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27
Q

Which statement concerning adrenocortical hormones is INCORRECT?

a. The glucocorticoids are examples.
b. Some are steroids.
c. They are all controlled primarily by TSH.
d. They are secreted from the outer layer of the adrenal gland.

A

c

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28
Q
  1. What is the most abundant and physiologically important adrenal sex hormone?
    a. aldosterone
    b. cortisol
    c. dehydroepiandrosterone
    d. estradiol
A

c

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29
Q

. Which statement is correct for aldosterone?

a. It causes conservation of sodium.
b. It facilitates lipolysis.
c. It promotes gluconeogenesis.
d. It is regulated by ACTH.

A

a

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30
Q

Which of the following does NOT regulate aldosterone secretion?

a. ACTH
b. the renin-angiotensin system, which is activated by various factors related to a fall in plasma Na+ concentration/ECF volume/arterial blood pressure
c. the direct effect of plasma K+ on the adrenal cortex

A

a

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31
Q
  1. What would a drop in blood pressure be expected to lead to?
    a. increased plasma aldosterone levels
    b. increased glucocorticoid levels
    c. decreased plasma aldosterone levels
    d. decreased glucocorticoid levels
A

a

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32
Q
  1. What is NOT an action of cortisol?
    a. increasing the conversion of glycogen to glucose
    b. stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver
    c. increasing protein degradation
    d. mobilizing fat from adipose tissue
A

a

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33
Q

Which two hormones are produced from the same large precursor molecule, pro-opiomelanocortin?

a. aldosterone, cortisol
b. cortisol, androgen
c. cortisol, beta endorphin
d. aldosterone, androgen

A

c

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34
Q

Which statement is NOT true for cortisol?

a. It is the primary mineralocorticoid.
b. Its excess is responsible for Cushing’s syndrome.
c. It increases blood glucose, blood fatty acid, and blood amino acid levels.

A

a

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35
Q

When a student experiences psychological and emotional stress, what won’t they secrete at higher levels?

a. GRH
b. ACTH
c. cortisol

A

a

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36
Q

What is the major factor that promotes increased secretion of cortisol from the adrenal cortex?

a. low Na+ concentration in the extracellular fluid
b. physical and emotional stress
c. angiotensin II
d. increased blood amino acid concentration

A

b

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37
Q

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Cushing’s syndrome?

a. hypernatremia
b. hyperglycemia
c. muscle weakness and fatigue
d. poor wound healing

A

a

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38
Q

. Because aldosterone encourages K+ secretion into the urine, what does conditions in which excess aldosterone is secreted result in?

a. hyponatremia.
b. hypokalemia.
c. hypotension.
d. idiopathic atrophy.

A

b

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39
Q

Which of the following is NOT seen in Addison’s disease?

a. marked Na+ loss in the urine
b. lowered blood glucose levels
c. K+ retention
d. protein mobilization

A

d

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40
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of Conn’s syndrome?

a. K+ increase in the blood
b. Na+ depletion
c. hypertension

A

c

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41
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the adrenogenital syndrome?

a. precocious pseudopuberty in prepubertal boys
b. development of female-type external genitalia in male fetuses
c. hirsutism in adult females
d. a and c

A

d

42
Q
  1. What is NOT a function of the kidneys?
    a. excretion of metabolic wastes
    b. maintaining proper plasma volume
    c. secreting aldosterone to regulate sodium
    d. maintaining proper osmolarity of body fluids
A

c

43
Q

What is the specialized nephron capillary bed where filtration occurs?

a. afferent arteriole
b. efferent arteriole
c. Glomerulus
d. peritubular bed

A

c

44
Q

Below is a listing of nephron components and associated structures:

  1. descending limb of loop of Henle
  2. Bowman’s capsule
  3. collecting tubule
  4. ascending limb of loop of Henle
  5. distal tubule
  6. proximal tubule

What is the correct flow of filtrate through these structures?

a. 4, 6, 5, 3, 2, 1
b. 2, 6, 1, 4, 5, 3
c. 2, 5, 6, 3, 1, 4
d. 3, 2, 6, 1, 4, 5

A

b

45
Q

Which nephron structure is especially important in the kidney’s ability to produce urine of varying concentration?

a. Bowman’s capsule
b. proximal tubule
c. distal tubule
d. loop of Henle

A

d

46
Q

Which of the following is true about blood that flows through the kidneys?

a. normally about 20 to 25 percent of the total cardiac output.
b. all filtered through the glomeruli.
c. all used to supply the renal tissue with O2 and nutrients.
d. normally about 40 percent of the total cardiac output.

A

a

47
Q

Which statement is correct concerning glomerular filtrate?

a. It is a plasma-free blood.
b. It is formed as a result of passive forces acting across the glomerular membrane.
c. It does not contain foreign compounds because these substances are secreted by special transport mechanisms in the proximal tubule instead.
d. Its rate is increased by increased plasma protein level.

A

b & c

48
Q

The glomerular capillary blood pressure in the nephron is 78 mm Hg. The Bowman’s capsular hydrostatic pressure is 24 mm Hg. The colloidal osmotic pressure is 18 mm Hg. What is the net filtration pressure?

a. 18 mm Hg
b. 26 mm Hg
c. 36 mm Hg
d. 42 mm Hg

A

c

49
Q

Which factor would reduce the net filtration pressure the most?

a. vasodilation of the afferent arteriole
b. vasocontraction of the efferent arteriole
c. It has a large increase in blood colloid osmotic pressure
d. It has a low capsular hydrostatic pressure

A

c

50
Q

Which statement concerning the process of glomerular filtration is correct?

a. Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure opposes filtration.
b. The glomerular filtration rate is limited by a Tm.
c. All of the plasma that enters the glomerulus is filtered.
d. All of the plasma that enters the glomerulus is reabsorbed.

A

a

51
Q

What is NOT involved in autoregulation of the GFR?

a. a myogenic mechanism in which the afferent arteriole automatically constricts when it is stretched
b. a tubulo-glomerular feedback mechanism in which vasoactive chemicals released from the juxtaglomerular apparatus bring about afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction
c. sympathetically induced vasoconstriction of the afferent arterioles

A

c

52
Q

Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction _____ blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to _____, leading to a(n) _____ in the net filtration pressure and a resultant _____ in the GFR.

a. increases, increase, increase, increase
b. decreases, decrease, decrease, decrease
c. increases, increase, decrease, decrease
d. decreases, decrease, increase, increase

A

b

53
Q

What occurs after stimulation of the macula densa cells?

a. vasodilation of the afferent arteriole
b. vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole
c. increased GFR
d. secretion of erythropoietin

A

b

54
Q

When arterial blood pressure is elevated above normal, which compensatory change in renal function occurs as a result of the baroreceptor reflex?

a. afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction
b. afferent arteriolar vasodilation
c. reduction in GFR
d. efferent arteriolar vasoconstriction

A

b

55
Q

Which statement is NOT true concerning tubular reabsorption?

a. It refers to the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular fluid.
b. It occurs by either active or passive transport.
c. It involves the process of transepithelial transport.

A

a

56
Q

Which statement is NOT a step in transepithelial transport?

a. movement of the substance through the cytosol of the tubular cell
b. movement of the substance across the glomerular capillary wall
c. movement of the substance across the luminal membrane of the tubular cell
d. movement of the substance through the interstitial fluid

A

b

57
Q

Why is glucose NOT normally found in the urine?

a. Glucose does not get filtered out of glomerulus.
b. Glucose is not found in the blood.
c. Glucose is usually reabsorbed by renal tubule cells.
d. Glucose is kept in the blood.

A

c

58
Q

Which statement regarding the proximal tubule is NOT true?

a. It reabsorbs about 65 percent of the filtered water.
b. It is the site of action of renin.
c. It is the location where glucose is reabsorbed.

A

b

59
Q

Which statement regarding tubular maximum (Tm) is NOT true?

a. It is the maximum amount of a substance that the tubular cells can actively transport within a given time period.
b. It is the maximum rate at which a substance is filtered at the glomerulus.
c. It occurs when the membrane carrier becomes saturated.

A

b

60
Q

Which plasma constituent is NOT regulated by the kidneys?

a. Glucose
b. Na+
c. H+
d. Phosphate

A

d

61
Q

What is the major waste product of nitrogen metabolism?

a. plasma proteins
b. Urea
c. Glucose
d. amino acids

A

b

62
Q

Given the following data for substance X (GFR = 125 mL/min, Tm = 125 mg/min, at a plasma concentration of 200 mg/100 mL), how much of substance X is filtered, reabsorbed, and excreted?

a. 125 mg/min filtered, 125 mg/min reabsorbed, 0 mg/min excreted
b. 200 mg/min filtered, 125 mg/min reabsorbed, 75 mg/min excreted
c. 250 mg/min filtered, 125 mg/min reabsorbed, 125 mg/min excreted
d. 250 mg/min filtered, 200 mg/min reabsorbed, 50 mg/min excreted

A

c

63
Q

Which statement about Na+ reabsorption is INCORRECT?

a. It uses 80 percent of the energy requirement of the kidney.
b. It is under control of the hormone aldosterone in the distal portions of the nephron.
c. It is not linked to the reabsorption of amino acids and urea.

A

c

64
Q

What happens when blood volume becomes abnormally low?

a. Sodium reabsorption is diminished.
b. Dilute urine is formed.
c. Renin catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen.
d. Aldosterone is secreted by the kidney.

A

c

65
Q

What is the energy required for glucose reabsorption used for?

a. to run the Na+–K+ ATPase pump
b. to run the Na+-glucose co-transport carrier
c. to maintain the Tm for glucose
d. to produce aldosterone-induced protein, which increases the permeability of the proximal tubular cells to glucose

A

a

66
Q
  1. What are the distal and collecting tubules the site of?
    a. the co-transport carriers for glucose and amino acid reabsorption
    b. the organic ion secretory systems
    c. aldosterone and vasopressin action
    d. glucose reabsorption
A

c

67
Q

Which statement regarding tubular secretion is NOT true?

a. It involves transepithelial transport.
b. It is the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular fluid.
c. It always occurs by active transport.
d. a and b.

A

c

68
Q

Which statement with regards to plasma clearance is correct?

a. It is the time required to filter blood in the glomerulus.
b. It is the amount of a substance appearing in the urine in one minute.
c. It is the amount of a substance filtered in one minute.
d. It is the volume of plasma that is completely cleared of a substance by the kidneys in one minute.

A

d

69
Q

Which statement with regards to inulin is correct?

a. It is filtered, not reabsorbed, but secreted.
b. It is filtered, not reabsorbed, and not secreted.
c. It is filtered, reabsorbed, and not secreted.
d. It is filtered, reabsorbed, and secreted.

A

b

70
Q

What establishes the medullary vertical osmotic gradient by means of countercurrent multiplication?

a. loops of Henle of juxtamedullary nephrons
b. loops of Henle of cortical nephrons
c. vasa recta of juxtamedullary nephrons
d. vasa recta of cortical nephrons

A

a

71
Q

Which of the following is true about the ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

a. NaCl passively leaves the tubular fluid down its concentration gradient.
b. NaCl is actively transported into the interstitial fluid, leaving water behind because the tubular cells are not permeable to water.
c. K+ is secreted.
d. aldosterone stimulates Na+ reabsorption.

A

b

72
Q

Which statement with regards to vasopressin is correct?

a. It can completely halt urine production during periods of water deprivation to conserve water for the body.
b. It activates the cyclic AMP second-messenger system within the tubular cells.
c. It renders the distal and collecting tubules impermeable to water.
d. It increases Na+ reabsorption by the distal portions of the nephron.

A

b

73
Q

What enable the kidneys to produce urine of varying concentrations and volumes depending on the body’s needs?

a. Na+–K+ ATPase pump and co-transport carriers
b. juxtaglomerular apparatus and vasa recta
c. podocytes and peritubular capillaries
d. medullary vertical osmotic gradient and vasopressin

A

d

74
Q

What happens when the bladder of an infant is filled with urine?

a. Stretch receptors in the bladder wall are inhibited.
b. Parasympathetic nerve supplying the bladder is inhibited, allowing the bladder to relax.
c. A motor neuron supplying the external urethral sphincter is stimulated, causing the sphincter to open.
d. A motor neuron supplying the external urethral sphincter is inhibited, allowing the sphincter to open.

A

d

75
Q

What is variation in percentage of body water among individuals primarily due to? __________

a. differences in amount of adipose tissue
b. differences in total muscle mass
c. differences in vasopressin secretion
d. differences in drinking habits

A

a

76
Q

he largest percentage of water is located in what “compartment?”

a. synovial fluids
b. plasma
c. interstitial fluids
d. intracellular fluids

A

d

77
Q

Which tissues in the body contain the lowest percentage of water?

a. blood
b. skeleton
c. muscle
d. adipose

A

d

78
Q

Which constitutes the largest percentage of body weight?

a. protein
b. H2O
c. Na+
d. carbohydrate

A

b

79
Q

The ICF contains about how much of the total water of the body?

a. 1/10
b. ¼
c. ½
d. 2/3

A

d

80
Q

Which statement is NOT true concerning extracellular fluid?

a. It includes plasma.
b. It includes interstitial fluid.
c. It constitutes a greater percentage of total body water than does intracellular fluid.

A

c

81
Q

What is the major source of water loss from the body?

a. insensible respiratory loss
b. insensible skin loss
c. sweat
d. urine

A

d

82
Q

What happens when large amounts of pure water are consumed?

a. The volume of the ICF will decrease.
b. The volume of the ECF will decrease.
c. The ECF becomes hypertonic to the ICF.
d. Osmolarities of the ICF and ECF will drop.

A

d

83
Q

What happens when water is lost from the ECF but electrolytes are retained?

a. Both ECF and ICF become more dilute.
b. Osmosis moves water from the ICF to the ECF.
c. The osmolarity of the ECF drops.
d. There is an increase in the volume of the ICF.

A

b

84
Q

What is the primary electrolyte in the extracellular fluid?

a. calcium ion
b. chloride
c. potassium ion
d. sodium ion

A

d

85
Q

. The primary ECF cation is _____, and the primary ICF cation is _____.

a. K+, Na+
b. K+, Ca2+
c. Ca2+, Na+
d. Na+, K+

A

d

86
Q

Which ion has the greatest concentration in the cytoplasm?

a. calcium ion
b. chloride
c. phosphate
d. potassium ion

A

d

87
Q

What is the primary reason that extracellular fluid volume must be closely regulated?

a. to prevent changes in ICF osmolarity
b. to maintain adequate urine formation
c. to maintain proper blood pressure
d. to prevent cells from swelling or shrinking

A

c

88
Q

Why would eating a very salty snack make you thirsty?

a. It would cause decreased ECF volume.
b. It would decrease the osmolarity of the ECF.
c. It would inhibit the hypothalamic osmoreceptors.
d. It would stimulate the hypothalamic osmoreceptors.

A

d

89
Q

What is the most important factor in the long-term regulation of ECF volume?

a. maintenance of salt balance
b. maintenance of water balance
c. the baroreceptor reflex
d. fluid shifts between the interstitial fluid and plasma

A

a

90
Q

What contributes the vast majority of the extracellular fluid’s osmotic activity?

a. plasma proteins
b. Na+ and its attendant anions
c. K+ and its attendant anions
d. Ca2+ and its attendant anions

A

b

91
Q

. How do the baroreceptor reflexes affect sodium balance?

a. by causing release of renin
b. by causing the release of vasopressin
c. by lowering GFR through vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles
d. by lowering GFR through vasodilation of afferent arterioles

A

c

92
Q

What happens if an individual becomes dehydrated?

a. Increased facultative reabsorption of water occurs.
b. Urinary output increases.
c. Vasopressin secretion is decreased.
d. The ECF osmolarity becomes hypotonic.

A

a

93
Q

When the ECF becomes hypertonic, water __________

a. Water movement is unaffected.
b. Water moves into the cells by active transport.
c. Water moves into the cells by osmosis.
d. Water moves out of the cells by osmosis.

A

d

94
Q

What is the importance of regulating ECF osmolarity?

a. to help maintain blood pressure
b. to prevent the urine from becoming too concentrated
c. to prevent fluid shifts between the cells and the extracellular fluid, which could produce profound symptoms as the cells swell or shrink
d. to prevent spontaneous depolarization of nerve and muscle cell membranes because of shifts in Na+ balance

A

c

95
Q

What is the main control for salt balance?

a. control of salt intake
b. control of salt output in the sweat
c. control of salt output in the feces
d. control of salt output in the urine

A

d

96
Q
  1. What will happen if the ECF’s osmolarity increases?
    a. Water will shift from the ICF into the ECF.
    b. Water will not shift between the ECF and the ICF.
    c. Water will move from the ECF into the ICF.
    d. Vasopressin secretion will decrease.
A

a

97
Q

The amount of Na+ excreted in the urine equals the amount of Na+ _____ minus the amount of Na+ _____.

a. filtered, reabsorbed
b. ingested, filtered
c. ingested, metabolically consumed
d. ingested, placed in storage

A

a

98
Q

Which statement about acids is INCORRECT ?

a. Carbohydrates are acidic.
b. HCl is one example.
c. They can be strong or weak.
d. They dissociate to produce anions.

A

a

99
Q

Which symptom(s) is/are associated with acidosis?

a. extreme nervousness
b. disorientation and coma
c. “pins and needles” sensations
d. muscle twitches and muscle spasms

A

b

100
Q

What is normally the major source of hydrogen ions in the body?

a. phosphoric and sulfuric acids formed during the metabolism of dietary proteins
b. lactic acid production by the muscles during exercise
c. carbonic acid generated from metabolically produced CO2
d. natural acids found in foods, such as citric acid

A

c

101
Q

Which condition would be a cause of metabolic acidosis?

a. severe diarrhea
b. severe vomiting
c. aspirin poisoning
d. emphysema

A

a

Physiology 2 (3 decks)

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