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Physiology 2 > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which statement is correct for vascular resistance?
    a.
    It is a measure of the hindrance to blood flow through a vessel caused by friction between the moving fluid and stationary vascular walls.
    b.
    It is doubled when the radius of the vessel is wider than normal.
    c.
    It is inversely proportionate to the blood viscosity.
    d.
    It is increased when blood vessel length is shorter.
A

a

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2
Q
  1. Which statement concerning vasoconstriction is correct?
    a.
    Vasoconstriction refers to an increase in the radius of a vessel.
    b.
    Vasoconstriction of an arteriole decreases blood flow through that vessel.
    c.
    Vasoconstriction of an arteriole increases blood flow through that vessel.
    d.
    Vasoconstriction of an arteriole can be caused by parasympathetic activation.
A

b

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3
Q 
3.	What is vascular resistance related to?
a.
venous system.
b.
diameter of a blood vessel.
c.
location of the blood vessel.
d.
component of white blood cell count
A

b

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4
Q 
4.	What is the major determinant influencing resistance to blood flow?
a.
viscosity of the blood
b.
radius of the vessel through which the blood is flowing
c.
pressure gradient in the vessel
d.
haematocrit of the blood
A

b

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5
Q 
5.	Which of the following types of blood vessel consists of only one cell layer?
a.
arteriole
b.
artery
c.
capillary
d.
vein
A

c

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct for the arteries?
    a.
    They serve as rapid-transit passageways from the tissues to the heart because of their large radii.
    b.
    They act as a blood reservoir because they have the capacity to store large volumes of blood with little change in their internal pressure.
    c.
    They act as a pressure reservoir to provide the driving force for blood when the heart is relaxing.
    d.
    They are the site of exchange between the blood and surrounding tissues.
A

c

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7
Q 
7.   	Because the arteries have large radii, they serve as excellent rapid-transit passageways for blood. What is their second function, which is related to their elasticity, for maintaining blood flow during diastole?
a.
cardiac reserve
b.
venous reserve
c.
arterial capacitance
d.
pressure reservoir
A

d

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8
Q 
8.	Which statement is correct for veins?
a.
Their walls are highly muscular.
b.
Their walls consist of thick layers of elastic tissues.
c.
They serve as a blood reservoir.
d.
They transport blood away from the heart.
A

c

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9
Q 
9.	If the pulse pressure is 44 mm Hg and the diastolic pressure is 68 mm Hg, what is the systolic pressure?
a.
22 mm Hg
b.
24 mm Hg
c.
66 mm Hg
d.
112 mm Hg
A

d

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following properties does NOT pertain to the arterioles?
    a.
    Their radii cannot be changed.
    b.
    Their walls contain a thick layer of smooth muscle.
    c.
    They are responsible for the distribution of blood flow to the various organs.
    d.
    They are the major vessels that contribute to total peripheral resistance.
A

a

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11
Q 
11.	As metabolic activity of an organ or tissue increases, blood flow to that organ increases. What is the term for this phenomenon?
a.
pressure autoregulation
b.
tissue anoxia
c.
active hyperemia
d.
Hypertension
A

c

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12
Q 
12.	Which of the following local chemical changes does NOT occur during a period of increased cell activity?
a.
increased CO2
b.
increased acid
c.
increased O2
d.
increased K+
A

c

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13
Q
  1. What is endothelial-derived relaxing factor (EDRF)
    a.
    a local chemical mediator released from the endothelial cells that induces contraction of arteriolar smooth muscle in the vicinity
    b.
    adenosine
    c.
    nitric oxide
A

c

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct for extrinsic control of arteriolar radius?

A.
It is accomplished primarily by the parasympathetic nervous system.
B.
It is important in the regulation of arterial blood pressure.
C.
It can never be overridden by local adjustments.
D.
It is important for the oxygen delivery to the tissues.

A

b

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15
Q
  1. During strenuous exercise, where does blood flow increase?
    a.
    the heart because of local control factors
    b.
    the brain because of reflex control factors
    c.
    the skeletal muscles because of local control factors
A

c

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16
Q 
16.	What is the major site of sympathetic blood flow control (resistance changes)?
a.
arterioles
b.
capillaries
c.
metarterioles
d.
arteries
A

a

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17
Q 
17.	Which of the following tissues do NOT have an increased blood flow during exercise?
a.
skeletal muscles
b.
Heart
c.
Skin
d.
Brain
A

d

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18
Q 
18.	Which of the following factors would decrease total peripheral resistance?
a.
adrenal medulla hormones
b.
angiotensin II
c.
increased haematocrit
d.
Anaphylaxis
A

d

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19
Q 
19.	Through which vessel is the velocity of blood flow the slowest?
a.
Aorta
b.
Arterioles
c.
Capillaries
d.
Veins
A

c

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20
Q 
20.	Which of the following alterations could lead to edema?
a.
a fall in capillary blood pressure
b.
a fall in the concentration of plasma proteins
c.
dilated lymph vessels
d.
increased plasma osmolarity
A

b

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21
Q
  1. What can edema result from?
    a.
    blockage of lymph vessels, increased capillary blood pressure, and decreased blood-colloid osmotic pressure
    b.
    blockage of lymph vessels and decreased capillary blood pressure
    c.
    increased capillary blood pressure and increased blood-colloid osmotic pressure
    d.
    dilation of lymph vessels and decreased blood-colloid osmotic pressure
A

b

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22
Q 
22.	What is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
a.
defence against disease
b.
return of fluid to the circulatory system
c.
transport of fat molecules
d.
regulation of sodium balance
A

d

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23
Q 
23.	Which vessels can act as a blood reservoir by adjusting their total capacity to accommodate variations in blood volume?
a.
Arteries
b.
Arterioles
c.
Capillaries
d.
Veins
A

d

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24
Q
  1. Which are the two determinants of mean arterial pressure?
    a.
    stroke volume, compliance of vessel walls.
    b.
    heart rate, stroke volume.
    c.
    heart rate, end-diastolic volume.
    d.
    cardiac output, total peripheral resistance.
A

d

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25
Q 
25.	Which factor does not positively affect blood pressure?
a.
skeletal muscle activity
b.
aldosterone release
c.
renin release
d.
calcium reabsorption
A

d

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26
Q 
26.	Which of the following does NOT occur to compensate for a fall in blood pressure below normal?
a.
Cardiac output is increased.
b.
Total peripheral resistance is decreased.
c.
Heart rate is increased.
d.
Venous vasoconstriction occurs.
A

d

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27
Q 
27.	Where are the receptors that detect changes in the blood pressure?
a.
carotid sinus
b.
spinal cord
c.
hypothalamus
d.
medulla
A

a

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28
Q 
28.	Regulation of arterial pressure is mediated by reflex mechanisms. One important pressure receptor, a \_\_\_\_\_, is located in the \_\_\_\_\_.
A.
Chemoreceptor, carotid sinus
B.
Exteroceptor, carotid sinus
C.
Baroreceptor, carotid sinus
D.
Chemoreceptor, skeletal muscles
A

c

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29
Q 
29.	What may NOT cause hypertension?
a.
renal disease
b.
hardening of the arteries
c.
suppression of baroreceptors
d.
salt retention
A

c

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30
Q 
30.	Which of the following is NOT a compensation mechanism for blood loss?
a.
fluid shift from ICF to plasma
b.
venous vasoconstriction
c.
lowered angiotensin II production
d.
Thirst
A

c

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31
Q 
1.	About how many litres of blood are in the human body?
a.
2
b.
5
c.
10
d.
12
A

b

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of plasma proteins?
    a.
    Plasma proteins are responsible for the blood colloid osmotic pressure.
    b.
    Plasma proteins provide a source of readily available amino acids to be utilized by the tissue cells for the synthesis of new tissue proteins.
    c.
    Gamma globulins important in the body’s defence mechanism are one of the constituents that stay in the plasma.
    d.
    Plasma proteins play a role in buffering changes in pH in the body fluids.
A

b

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33
Q 
3.	The buffy coat, which represents < 1 percent of the whole blood, comprises
a.
erythrocytes and platelets.
b.
leukocytes and platelets.
c.
leukocytes and clotting factors.
d.
platelets and clotting factors.
A

b

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34
Q
  1. Why is it important that biconcavity of the erythrocyte on the cell decreases its flexibility?
    a.
    It prevents osmolarity changes.
    b.
    It increases the rate of gas exchange across the membrane.
    c.
    It provides an additional area for endocytosis.
    d.
    It encourages cellular respiration.
A

b

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35
Q 
5.	Which plasma globulins are the antibodies?
a.
alpha
b.
beta
c.
gamma
d.
delta
A

c

36
Q
  1. If the haematocrit is 40, then the volume occupied by the which of the following?
    a.
    red blood cells is 60 percent of the total blood volume.
    b.
    white blood cells is 40 percent of the total blood volume.
    c.
    red blood cells is 40 percent of the total blood volume.
    d.
    plasma and other cellular elements is 40 percent of the total blood volume.
A

c

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is correct for erythrocytes?
    a.
    They are large cells.
    b.
    They participate in the clotting of blood.
    c.
    They defend the body against foreign substances.
    d.
    They possess binding sites for oxygen and CO2.
A

d

38
Q
  1. . Which statement is true of Haemoglobin?
    a.
    is found in the nuclei of red blood cells.
    b.
    contains carbonic anhydrase.
    c.
    can combine with O2, CO2, H+, NO, and CO.
    d.
    can combine only with O2 molecules
A

c

39
Q
  1. Which of the following concerning erythropoiesis is correct?
    a.
    It is accomplished in the bone marrow upon stimulation by erythropoietin
    b.
    It is accomplished in the kidneys in response to reduced O2 delivery to the kidneys.
    c.
    It refers to increased RBC count.
    d.
    It refers to excessive RBC destruction.
A

a

40
Q 
10.	Which of the following condition(s) would NOT result in increased rates of erythropoiesis?
a.
high altitudes
b.
increased physical activity
c.
loss of blood
d.
greater blood flow to the kidney
A

d

41
Q 
11.	Which of the following types of anaemia is caused by a genetic abnormality?
a.
Pernicious
b.
haemorrhagic
c.
sickle-cell
d.
Megaloblastic
A

c

42
Q 
12.	Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of anaemia?
a.
dietary deficiency of folic acid
b.
deficiency of intrinsic factor
c.
malaria
d.
living at high altitude
A

d

43
Q 
13.	What form of polycythemia occurs when an individual lives in a high-altitude environment?
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
tertiary
d.
relative
A

b

44
Q 
14.	Which of the following leukocytes contains histamine in its granules?
a.
neutrophils
b.
eosinophils
c.
basophils
d.
lymphocytes
A

c

45
Q 
19.	Which of the following leukocytes is implicated in certain allergic reactions and attacks internal parasites such as worms?
a.
neutrophils
b.
eosinophils
c.
Basophils
d.
lymphocytes
A

b

46
Q 
15.	The tissue phagocytes, macrophages are derived from which white blood cell?
a.
neutrophils
b.
eosinophils
c.
lymphocytes
d.
monocytes
A

d

47
Q 
16.	What leaves the blood after circulating for only a day or two and becomes the large tissue phagocytes known as macrophages?
a.
eosinophils
b.
Basophils
c.
lymphocytes
d. 
monocytes
A

d

48
Q
  1. Which statement concerning platelets is INCORRECT?
    a.
    Platelets are produced in the bone marrow.
    b.
    Platelets form the meshwork of a blood clot upon which the other cellular elements become entrapped.
    c.
    Platelets form a plug when they adhere to the exposed collagen of a damaged vessel.
    d.
    Aggregated platelets release serotonin, epinephrine, and thromboxane A2.
A

b

49
Q 
18.	What is the platelet count per cubic millimetre that is within the normal range?
a.
100 000
b.
130 000
c.
250 000
d.
600 000
A

c

50
Q 
19.	Which step is NOT involved in haemostasis?
a.
vascular spasms
b.
platelet aggregation
c.
Coagulation
d.
Thrombopoeisis
A

d

51
Q 
27.	Which chemical signal makes platelets sticky upon aggregation?
a.
ADP
b.
ATP
c.
prostacyclin
d.
thromboxane
A

a

52
Q 
20.	Which of the following signals the platelet aggregation to be reinforced?
a.
ADP
b.
fibrinogen
c.
thromboxane
d.
prostacyclin
A

c

53
Q 
21.	Which blood cellular elements lack nuclei?
a.
Platelets
b.
Erythrocytes
c.
Leukocytes
d.
platelets and erythrocytes
A

d

54
Q
  1. What does exposed collagen in a damaged vessel do?
    a.
    It activates factor XII to initiate blood clotting.
    b.
    It initiates platelet aggregation.
    c.
    It secretes ADP, which causes platelets to become sticky.
    d.
    It activates factor XII to initiate blood clotting and initiates platelet aggregation.
A

d

55
Q 
23.	What are platelets normally attracted to?
a.
a collection of white blood cells
b.
a disrupted surface of a blood vessel
c.
a smooth surface
d.
a source of ATP production
A

b

56
Q 
24.	Which of the chemical signals is released by healthy endothelial tissue in order to prevent overgrowth of platelet plugs?
a.
ATP
b.
Fibrinogen
c.
Prostacyclin
d.
Thromboxane
A

c

57
Q
  1. Which statement concerning the extrinsic clotting pathway is correct?
    a.
    It is set off by factor XII.
    b.
    It clots blood in tissues.
    c.
    It has more steps than the intrinsic pathway.
    d.
    It is set off when Hageman factor comes into contact with collagen in an injured vessel.
A

b

58
Q 
26.	Which of the following is the correct sequence of events leading to clot formation?
a.
prothrombin–thrombin–fibrin–fibrinogen
b.
fibrin–prothrombin–fibrinogen–thrombin
c.
prothrombin–thrombin–fibrinogen–fibrin
d.
fibrin–thrombin–prothrombin–fibrinogen
A

c

59
Q 
27.	Platelets trapped within the fibrous meshwork of the clot \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
a.
release plasmin.
b.
release prostacyclin.
c.
retract the clot.
d.
inactivate thrombin.
A

c

60
Q
  1. Which activity below is NOT a respiratory event?
    a.
    Carbon dioxide is exchanged in the alveoli.
    b.
    Cells produce nitrogen by their metabolism.
    c.
    Gas exchange occurs between tissues and the blood.
    d.
    Oxygen is exchanged in the alveoli.
A

b

61
Q 
2.	Which statement is correct for Type I alveolar cells?
a.
They form the wall of the alveoli.
b.
They secrete pulmonary surfactant.
c.
They contract during expiration to force air out of the alveoli.
d.
They are responsible for surface tension
A

a

62
Q 
3.	Which structure serves as a common passageway for both the respiratory and digestive systems?
a.
Nose
b.
Pharynx
c.
Trachea
d.
Esophagus
A

b

63
Q
  1. What is NOT a function of the respiratory system?
    a.
    transporting O2 to the tissues
    b.
    contributing to maintenance of normal acid-base balance.
    c.
    providing a route for heat and water elimination.
    d.
    enabling speech, singing, and other vocalization.
A

a

64
Q
  1. Which statement is correct for the intrapulmonary pressure?
    a.
    It is the pressure within the air sacs of the lung.
    b.
    It is always greater than atmospheric pressure.
    c.
    It is always less than intrapleural pressure.
    d.
    It is the pressure within the bronchi.
A

a

65
Q
  1. What are the muscles for inhalation?
    a.
    diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
    b.
    diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
    c.
    diaphragm and abdominal muscles
    d.
    internal and external intercostal muscles
A

b

66
Q 
7.	What happens when intra-alveolar pressure becomes greater than atmospheric pressure?
a.
Air will flow out of the lungs.
b.
Air will flow into the lungs.
c.
There will be no air flow.
d.
The lung collapses.
A

a

67
Q
  1. Which statement concerning alveoli is INCORRECT?
    a.
    Alveoli are the site of gas exchange in the lungs.
    b.
    Interdependence of alveoli refers to air flow between adjacent alveoli through the pores of Kohn.
    c.
    Alveolar Type II cells secrete pulmonary surfactant.
    d.
    Alveoli are very thin and are surrounded by a network of capillaries so that air and blood are separated by a very thin barrier.
A

b

68
Q
  1. What is the last step that produces an inspiration?
    a.
    The atmospheric pressure becomes lower than the intrapleural pressure.
    b.
    The diaphragm contracts.
    c.
    The intercostal muscles contract.
    d.
    The intra-alveolar pressure becomes lower than the atmospheric pressure.
A

d

69
Q 
10.	Bronchodilation of the air passages involves the \_\_\_\_\_ of their smooth muscle contraction and the \_\_\_\_\_ of their radius.
a.
decrease, decrease
b.
decrease, increase
c.
increase, decrease
d.
increase, increase
A

b

70
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT promote elastic recoil of the lungs?
    a.
    elastic fibres in the lung
    b.
    surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli
    c.
    pulmonary surfactant
A

c

71
Q
  1. Which statement concerning pulmonary surfactant is INCORRECT?
    a.
    Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by Type II alveolar cells.
    b.
    Pulmonary surfactant is deficient in newborn respiratory distress syndrome.
    c.
    Pulmonary surfactant promotes elastic recoil of the lungs.
    d.
    The cohesive force between a water molecule and an adjacent pulmonary surfactant molecule is much lower than the cohesive force between two adjacent water molecules.
A

c

72
Q 
13.	What is the term for the minimum volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximal expiration?
a.
tidal volume
b.
functional residual capacity
c.
residual volume
d.
vital capacity
A

c

73
Q 
14.	What does compliance refer to specifically?
a.
effort required to stretch the lungs
b.
elasticity of the lung tissue
c.
energy requirements for an inspiration
d.
surface area of the alveoli
A

a

74
Q 
15.	A person has a tidal volume of 400 mL/breath, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and an anatomic dead space volume of 120 mL. What is her pulmonary ventilation rate?
a.
3000 mL/minute.
b.
3920 mL/minute.
c.
4260 mL/minute.
d.
5600 mL/minute.
A

d

75
Q 
16.	If 20 percent of the air is composed of O2, what is the partial pressure of oxygen at sea level where atmospheric pressure is 760 mmHg?
a.
20 mmHg
b.
70 mmHg
c.
152 mmHg
d.
760 Hg
A

c

76
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true for PO2 in the blood?
    a.
    It refers to the pressure exerted by the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
    b.
    It is the most important factor determining the percent saturation of haemoglobin.
    c.
    It is normal in carbon monoxide poisoning.
A

a

77
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE about the partial pressure of oxygen?
    a.
    Atmospheric air averages 79 percent of total atmospheric pressure.
    b.
    Blood is the most important factor that determines the extent to which O2 will combine with haemoglobin.
    c.
    Arterial blood is decreased when haemoglobin preferentially combines with CO rather than O2.
    d.
    Arterial blood is increased in high atmospheric pressure.
A

b

78
Q 
19.	Systemic venous PO2 is \_\_\_\_\_ alveolar PO2, and systemic venous PO2 is \_\_\_\_\_ alveolar PO2.
a.
greater than, greater than
b.
greater than, less than
c.
less than, greater than
d.
less than, less than
A

c

79
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true for haemoglobin?
    a.
    Haemoglobin plays a critical role in determining the total amount of O2 that is exchanged because it acts as a storage depot, removing dissolved O2 and thus keeping the PO2 low so that net diffusion is allowed to continue.
    b.
    Haemoglobin combines only with O2.
    c.
    Haemoglobin is found in erythrocytes.
A

b

80
Q 
21.	For what does haemoglobin have the greatest affinity?
a.
carbon dioxide
b.
oxygen
c.
carbon monoxide.
d.
nitrogen
A

c

81
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true for the plateau portion of the O2–Hb curve?
    a.
    It is in the blood-PO2 range that exists at the pulmonary capillaries.
    b.
    It means that haemoglobin becomes almost nearly saturated in the lungs unless the pulmonary capillary PO2 falls below 60 mmHg.
    c.
    It is in the blood-PO2 range that exists at the systemic capillaries.
A

c

82
Q 
23.	Approximately what percentage of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in dissolved form?
a.
1.5 percent
b.
10 percent
c.
35 percent
d.
60 percent
A

b

83
Q 
24.	What condition exists at high altitudes?
a.
histotoxic hypoxia
b.
hypoxic hypoxia
c.
anemic hypoxia
d.
hypocapnia
A

b

84
Q
  1. Which statement is NOT true for hypercapnia?
    a.
    It refers to excess CO2 in the arterial blood.
    b.
    It occurs when CO2 is blown off to the atmosphere at a rate faster than it is being produced by the tissues.
    c.
    It may be caused by hypoventilation.
A

b

85
Q 
26.	Which statement regarding the apneustic centre is correct?
a.
It is located in the medulla.
b.
It stimulates the inspiratory neurons.
c.
It inhibits inspiratory activity.
d.
It is located in the midbrain.
A

b

86
Q
  1. Which statement is correct concerning functional residual capacity?
    a.
    It is the extra volume of air that can be actively expired.
    b.
    It is the minimum volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a maximal expiration.
    c.
    It is the volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal passive respiration.
    d.
    It is the volume of air entering or leaving the lungs during a single breath.
A

c

Physiology 2 (3 decks)

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