Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

SRP in pockets greater than 6mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

32%

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2
Q

OFD in pockets greater than 6mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

50%

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3
Q

SRP in pockets 4-6mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

43%

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4
Q

OFD in pockets 4-6mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

76%

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5
Q

SRP in pockets 1-3mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

86%

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6
Q

OFD in pockets 1-3mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

86%

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7
Q

The CEJ should be approximately ____ from the osseous crest

A

2mm

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8
Q

The gingival margin should be ___ coronal to the CEJ (covering the anatomic crown)

A

0.5-2.0mm

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9
Q

Stages of normal tooth eruption according to crown lengthening lecture

A

???

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10
Q

Minimum healing tine before taking impressions after crown lengthening is ____ weeks

A

6 weeks

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11
Q

In pockets greater than 5mm, plaque and calculus is left 85% of the time?

A

true

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12
Q

Contraindications for bone graft include:

A

poor oral hygiene/plaque control

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13
Q

Non-surgical treated areas have a greater percentage of defects that convert from non diseased for :

A

single & multi-rooted teeth

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14
Q

What do you you use the end cutting bur for?

A

ostectomy

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15
Q

What do you use the large round bur for (#6 or #8) for?

A

osteoplasty

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16
Q

What files are used inter proximally?

A

9/10 schluger & #3S/4S sugarrman

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17
Q

What is the best graft material?

A

Autograft???What in

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18
Q

cadence do palatal exostosis occur?

A

40% incidence

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19
Q

Why might flap necrosis occur?

A

palatal flap too thin

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20
Q

The union of connective tissue with root surface that has been deprived of it original attachment apparatus:

A

new attachment

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21
Q

The healing of a wound that does not fully restore the architecture in function (healing of long junctional epithelium)

A

repair

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22
Q

The reunion of connective tissue with root surface on which viable PDL tissue is present (biologic width regrowing when flap reattached):

A

reattachment

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23
Q

Most common type of flap:

A

mucoperiosteal

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24
Q

Split thickness flap leaves:

A

periosteum on bone

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25
What type of defect is most common?
crater
26
What is the therapeutic goal of perio therapy?
functional, comfortable, healthy, and stable probing
27
T/F: Periodontal osseous defects are classified by bone missing
False- defects are classified by bone remaining
28
How many incisions does a palatal flap have?
4
29
Gingivectomy is most often for:
elimination of gingival enlargements
30
Position of flap margin on osseous/alveolar crest leads to:
pocket elimination
31
Keeping epithelium out is:
guided tissue regeneration
32
What would you go to to get interproximal bone loss/defects but no facial defects:
anterior curtain
33
histological difference of palatal flap:
thick CT
34
What is the second incision of palatal flap?
undermine (trace, undermine, contact bone, intrasulcular)
35
Where does healing potential come from?
PDL
36
Contributing anatomy to perio defect in retromolar pad area except:
mylohyoid ridge
37
Disadvantages to surgical approach to tuberosity area:
???
38
Distal wedge???
preserve keratinized tissue
39
You have a patient with lots of bleeding and sub G calculus. You are doing scaling in the presence of inflammation. What do you do?
use local anesthetic per quad
40
Ostectomy is:
removal of alveolar bone proper
41
T/F: The space between the roots matters (2.5mm)
true
42
Hemiseptum =
1 wall
43
True intrabony =
three wall
44
Three things you need before crown lengthening include:
45
How do you know where to start for crown lengthening?
bone sounding
46
Autograft:
using ones own bone for bone graft
47
WHen you can see a window in the bone, this is called:
fenestration
48
most successful type of defect:
3 wall defect
49
Pic of intramarrow penetration, the purpose of this is:
to increase blood flow and promote healing
50
CEJ should be ____ mm from osseous crest:
2mm
51
Which of the following is not distal wedge flap?
trapezoidal
52
factors affecting retromolar area: (4)
1. external oblique ridge 2. lingual bony ridge 3. ascending ramus to terminal tooth proximity 4. impacted 3rd molars
53
factors affecting tuberosity area: (3)
1. palatal exostosis 2. buccal exostosis 3. impacted 3rd molars
54
Distal wedge advantages/indications:
1. management of pockets in keratinized tissue 2. access to osseous defects 3. access to exostosis removal 4. less post op discomfort due to primary closure
55
types of distal wedge flap shapes:
1. square 2. triangular 3. linear 4. O & R (trap door)
56
Excessive force on a normal system:
primary occlusal trauma
57
Which side of the trauma from occlusion is associated with resoprtion of the alveolar bone proper?
compression
58
Trauma from occlusion in the abscess of inflammation does NOT cause:
1. gingivitis 2. periodontitis 3. pocket formation 4. mucogingival defects
59
Periodontitis superimposed with occlusal trauma produces an ____ in bone loss
increase
60
Which of the following is considered pathologic?
traumatic occlusion
61
What is associated with an increased density in the lamina dura?
hyperfunction
62
What is associated with capillary hemorrhage into the pdl spaces?
Traumatic occlusion
63
The principle of excluding epithelium and connective tissue from surgical site is termed:
guided tissue regeneration
64
What does pocket elimination do?
1. creates shallow sulci 2. ease of maintenance by therapist and patient
65
Most common type of flap design is:
mucoperiosteal
66
Histologic difference that separates the palatal flap from other flaps:
thickness of connective tissue
67
the second incision of a palatal flap is also known as:
undermine
68
The third incision of a palatal flap is also known as:
contact with bone
69
All of the following are factors exaggerating the periodontal bony lesion in the retromolar area EXCEPT: A) external oblique ridge B) mylohyoid ridge C) proximity of ascending ramus to the terminal tooth D) impacted 3rd molars
B
70
Disadvantages of surgical approach to the tuberosity area include:
1. presence of exostosis on the palatal aspect 2. presence of exostosis on the buccal aspect 3. presence of impacted 3rd molars
71
Disadvantages of surreal approach to tuberosity area include:
1. can't gain access to osseous defects 2. incisions end in mucosa 3. extremely broad wound 4. exposed exostosis
72
Know the advantages/indications of the distal wedge flap procedure:
1. management of pockets and keratinized tissue 2. access to osseous defects 3. accesses for exostosis removal 4. less post-op discomfort due to primary closure
73
List the contraindications of a distal wedge flap:
1. flat palate 2. limited distal space 3. when no osseous defect exists
74
List the types of distal wedge flaps:
1. triangular 2. linear 3. square
75
Gingivectomies are typically tarted with an ____ bevel
external
76
List the contraindications of gingivectomies:
1. anterior maxilla region 2. base of pocket apical to MG junction without attached tissue 3. infra bony defects
77
T/F: You can perform a gingivectomy for the exposure of unerupted teeth
true
78
A modified Widman flap requires:
3 separate incisions
79
The purpose of a modified Widman flap:
allow access to root surface
80
Which type of flap is used in the maxillary anterior region where there are interproximal defects but not facial defects:
anterior curtain
81
Hemiseptum is another name for which type of defect?
1 wall
82
Which is the most common osseous defect?
2 wall- crater defect
83
Which is a true intrabony defect?
3 wall
84
Which type of defect has the greatest predictability of success?
3 wall defect
85
Interdental Crystal bone located APICAL to the level of the radicular bone is termed:
negative architecture
86
Which of the following is NOT a determinant of gingival contour:
bone (Interdental space, position of tooth in arch, and root/crown shape all are determinants of gingival contour)
87
Contraindications of osseous surgery include:
1. 3-wall defect 2. maxillary anteriors 3. isolated deep defects (ledges and tori are NOT a contraindication of osseous surgery)
88
Which of the following materials is osteoconductive?
freeze dried bone allograft
89
Vertical defects occur when the distance between the roots of the teeth is greater than:
2.5 mm
90
which of the following does NOT have an effect on bone grafts?
use of antibiotics (intramarrow penetration, endodontics, and smoking do)
91
Platelet rich plasma is used to induce the formation of:
platelet derived growth factors
92
Attachment loss =
Probing depth + GM (enlargement)
93
Gingival enlargement is a ____ value
negative
94
Gingival recession is a ____ value
positive
95
Trauma from occlusion does NOT cause:
recession
96
Aggressive periodontitis is now termed:
periodontitis
97
Studies show that single rooted teeth are better than molars for:
surgical and non-surgical perio therapy
98
Gingivectomies are done to eliminate:
1. gingival enlargements 2. SUPRAbony pockets
99
Primary goal of periodontal surgical procedures is:
ACCESS
100
The only advantage of a gingivectomy is:
easier and quicker (cannot gain access to osseous defects, broad wound may be created, and incision often ends in mucosa)
101
- flat palate - limited distal space - when NO osseous defect is present
contraindications of distal wedge
102
What is both an INFRAbony and INTRAbony defect?
3 wall defect
103
Give an example of an indication for osseous surgery:
osseous ledges & tori
104
Root sensitivity is a disadvantage of:
osseous surgery
105
If placement of flap margin is done at the alveolar crest, the goal is:
elimination of pocket depth
106
What is a contraindication for osseous grafting?
poor plaque control
107
A graft with 25% hydroxyapatite and 75% freeze dried bone is an:
composite graft
108
What is a disadvantage of an osseous graft?
expensive
109
T/F: Osseous surgery success is defect dependent
True
110
Residual calculus is found at the:
CEJ and line angles
111
Patient has #1 missing and a defect on #2, the best choice of flap is:
distal triangular wedge
112
Where does the incision start for a palatal flap?
2/3 probing depth
113
An ideal bone graft releases:
BMP slowly to form bone
114
Trauma from occlusion in the absence of inflammation may be responsible for causing:
bone density loss
115
The main tissue that GUIDED TISSUE REGENERATION exlcludes:
epithelium
116
Open flap curettage uses a ____ bevel incision
intrasulcular- modified Widman, palatal flap
117
Which of the following will NOT increase the width of keratinized tissue?
modified widman flap
118
Crown lengthening usually requires:
ostectomy on the facial
119
The 2nd step in the healing sequence of a bone graft is:
revascularization
120
Free gingival grafts will end up:
revascularizing with the underlying connective tissue
121
The coding to determine the type of tissue you obtain from a graft is in the:
CT
122
Epithelium gets its blood supply and nutrients from:
underlyng CT
123
What is hard to accomplish with a bone augmentation:
height
124