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Perio II > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

SRP in pockets greater than 6mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

32%

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2
Q

OFD in pockets greater than 6mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

50%

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3
Q

SRP in pockets 4-6mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

43%

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4
Q

OFD in pockets 4-6mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

76%

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5
Q

SRP in pockets 1-3mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

86%

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6
Q

OFD in pockets 1-3mm can result in what percentage of plaque and calculus reduction?

A

86%

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7
Q

The CEJ should be approximately ____ from the osseous crest

A

2mm

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8
Q

The gingival margin should be ___ coronal to the CEJ (covering the anatomic crown)

A

0.5-2.0mm

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9
Q

Stages of normal tooth eruption according to crown lengthening lecture

A

???

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10
Q

Minimum healing tine before taking impressions after crown lengthening is ____ weeks

A

6 weeks

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11
Q

In pockets greater than 5mm, plaque and calculus is left 85% of the time?

A

true

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12
Q

Contraindications for bone graft include:

A

poor oral hygiene/plaque control

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13
Q

Non-surgical treated areas have a greater percentage of defects that convert from non diseased for :

A

single & multi-rooted teeth

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14
Q

What do you you use the end cutting bur for?

A

ostectomy

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15
Q

What do you use the large round bur for (#6 or #8) for?

A

osteoplasty

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16
Q

What files are used inter proximally?

A

9/10 schluger & #3S/4S sugarrman

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17
Q

What is the best graft material?

A

Autograft???What in

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18
Q

cadence do palatal exostosis occur?

A

40% incidence

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19
Q

Why might flap necrosis occur?

A

palatal flap too thin

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20
Q

The union of connective tissue with root surface that has been deprived of it original attachment apparatus:

A

new attachment

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21
Q

The healing of a wound that does not fully restore the architecture in function (healing of long junctional epithelium)

A

repair

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22
Q

The reunion of connective tissue with root surface on which viable PDL tissue is present (biologic width regrowing when flap reattached):

A

reattachment

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23
Q

Most common type of flap:

A

mucoperiosteal

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24
Q

Split thickness flap leaves:

A

periosteum on bone

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25
Q

What type of defect is most common?

A

crater

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26
Q

What is the therapeutic goal of perio therapy?

A

functional, comfortable, healthy, and stable probing

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27
Q

T/F: Periodontal osseous defects are classified by bone missing

A

False- defects are classified by bone remaining

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28
Q

How many incisions does a palatal flap have?

A

4

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29
Q

Gingivectomy is most often for:

A

elimination of gingival enlargements

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30
Q

Position of flap margin on osseous/alveolar crest leads to:

A

pocket elimination

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31
Q

Keeping epithelium out is:

A

guided tissue regeneration

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32
Q

What would you go to to get interproximal bone loss/defects but no facial defects:

A

anterior curtain

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33
Q

histological difference of palatal flap:

A

thick CT

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34
Q

What is the second incision of palatal flap?

A

undermine

(trace, undermine, contact bone, intrasulcular)

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35
Q

Where does healing potential come from?

A

PDL

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36
Q

Contributing anatomy to perio defect in retromolar pad area except:

A

mylohyoid ridge

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37
Q

Disadvantages to surgical approach to tuberosity area:

A

???

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38
Q

Distal wedge???

A

preserve keratinized tissue

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39
Q

You have a patient with lots of bleeding and sub G calculus. You are doing scaling in the presence of inflammation. What do you do?

A

use local anesthetic per quad

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40
Q

Ostectomy is:

A

removal of alveolar bone proper

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41
Q

T/F: The space between the roots matters (2.5mm)

A

true

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42
Q

Hemiseptum =

A

1 wall

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43
Q

True intrabony =

A

three wall

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44
Q

Three things you need before crown lengthening include:

A
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45
Q

How do you know where to start for crown lengthening?

A

bone sounding

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46
Q

Autograft:

A

using ones own bone for bone graft

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47
Q

WHen you can see a window in the bone, this is called:

A

fenestration

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48
Q

most successful type of defect:

A

3 wall defect

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49
Q

Pic of intramarrow penetration, the purpose of this is:

A

to increase blood flow and promote healing

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50
Q

CEJ should be ____ mm from osseous crest:

A

2mm

51
Q

Which of the following is not distal wedge flap?

A

trapezoidal

52
Q

factors affecting retromolar area: (4)

A
  1. external oblique ridge
  2. lingual bony ridge
  3. ascending ramus to terminal tooth proximity
  4. impacted 3rd molars
53
Q

factors affecting tuberosity area: (3)

A
  1. palatal exostosis
  2. buccal exostosis
  3. impacted 3rd molars
54
Q

Distal wedge advantages/indications:

A
  1. management of pockets in keratinized tissue
  2. access to osseous defects
  3. access to exostosis removal
  4. less post op discomfort due to primary closure
55
Q

types of distal wedge flap shapes:

A
  1. square
  2. triangular
  3. linear
  4. O & R (trap door)
56
Q

Excessive force on a normal system:

A

primary occlusal trauma

57
Q

Which side of the trauma from occlusion is associated with resoprtion of the alveolar bone proper?

A

compression

58
Q

Trauma from occlusion in the abscess of inflammation does NOT cause:

A
  1. gingivitis
  2. periodontitis
  3. pocket formation
  4. mucogingival defects
59
Q

Periodontitis superimposed with occlusal trauma produces an ____ in bone loss

A

increase

60
Q

Which of the following is considered pathologic?

A

traumatic occlusion

61
Q

What is associated with an increased density in the lamina dura?

A

hyperfunction

62
Q

What is associated with capillary hemorrhage into the pdl spaces?

A

Traumatic occlusion

63
Q

The principle of excluding epithelium and connective tissue from surgical site is termed:

A

guided tissue regeneration

64
Q

What does pocket elimination do?

A
  1. creates shallow sulci
  2. ease of maintenance by therapist and patient
65
Q

Most common type of flap design is:

A

mucoperiosteal

66
Q

Histologic difference that separates the palatal flap from other flaps:

A

thickness of connective tissue

67
Q

the second incision of a palatal flap is also known as:

A

undermine

68
Q

The third incision of a palatal flap is also known as:

A

contact with bone

69
Q

All of the following are factors exaggerating the periodontal bony lesion in the retromolar area EXCEPT:

A) external oblique ridge
B) mylohyoid ridge
C) proximity of ascending ramus to the terminal tooth
D) impacted 3rd molars

A

B

70
Q

Disadvantages of surgical approach to the tuberosity area include:

A
  1. presence of exostosis on the palatal aspect
  2. presence of exostosis on the buccal aspect
  3. presence of impacted 3rd molars
71
Q

Disadvantages of surreal approach to tuberosity area include:

A
  1. can’t gain access to osseous defects
  2. incisions end in mucosa
  3. extremely broad wound
  4. exposed exostosis
72
Q

Know the advantages/indications of the distal wedge flap procedure:

A
  1. management of pockets and keratinized tissue
  2. access to osseous defects
  3. accesses for exostosis removal
  4. less post-op discomfort due to primary closure
73
Q

List the contraindications of a distal wedge flap:

A
  1. flat palate
  2. limited distal space
  3. when no osseous defect exists
74
Q

List the types of distal wedge flaps:

A
  1. triangular
  2. linear
  3. square
75
Q

Gingivectomies are typically tarted with an ____ bevel

A

external

76
Q

List the contraindications of gingivectomies:

A
  1. anterior maxilla region
  2. base of pocket apical to MG junction without attached tissue
  3. infra bony defects
77
Q

T/F: You can perform a gingivectomy for the exposure of unerupted teeth

A

true

78
Q

A modified Widman flap requires:

A

3 separate incisions

79
Q

The purpose of a modified Widman flap:

A

allow access to root surface

80
Q

Which type of flap is used in the maxillary anterior region where there are interproximal defects but not facial defects:

A

anterior curtain

81
Q

Hemiseptum is another name for which type of defect?

A

1 wall

82
Q

Which is the most common osseous defect?

A

2 wall- crater defect

83
Q

Which is a true intrabony defect?

A

3 wall

84
Q

Which type of defect has the greatest predictability of success?

A

3 wall defect

85
Q

Interdental Crystal bone located APICAL to the level of the radicular bone is termed:

A

negative architecture

86
Q

Which of the following is NOT a determinant of gingival contour:

A

bone

(Interdental space, position of tooth in arch, and root/crown shape all are determinants of gingival contour)

87
Q

Contraindications of osseous surgery include:

A
  1. 3-wall defect
  2. maxillary anteriors
  3. isolated deep defects

(ledges and tori are NOT a contraindication of osseous surgery)

88
Q

Which of the following materials is osteoconductive?

A

freeze dried bone allograft

89
Q

Vertical defects occur when the distance between the roots of the teeth is greater than:

A

2.5 mm

90
Q

which of the following does NOT have an effect on bone grafts?

A

use of antibiotics

(intramarrow penetration, endodontics, and smoking do)

91
Q

Platelet rich plasma is used to induce the formation of:

A

platelet derived growth factors

92
Q

Attachment loss =

A

Probing depth + GM (enlargement)

93
Q

Gingival enlargement is a ____ value

A

negative

94
Q

Gingival recession is a ____ value

A

positive

95
Q

Trauma from occlusion does NOT cause:

A

recession

96
Q

Aggressive periodontitis is now termed:

A

periodontitis

97
Q

Studies show that single rooted teeth are better than molars for:

A

surgical and non-surgical perio therapy

98
Q

Gingivectomies are done to eliminate:

A
  1. gingival enlargements
  2. SUPRAbony pockets
99
Q

Primary goal of periodontal surgical procedures is:

A

ACCESS

100
Q

The only advantage of a gingivectomy is:

A

easier and quicker

(cannot gain access to osseous defects, broad wound may be created, and incision often ends in mucosa)

101
Q
  • flat palate
  • limited distal space
  • when NO osseous defect is present
A

contraindications of distal wedge

102
Q

What is both an INFRAbony and INTRAbony defect?

A

3 wall defect

103
Q

Give an example of an indication for osseous surgery:

A

osseous ledges & tori

104
Q

Root sensitivity is a disadvantage of:

A

osseous surgery

105
Q

If placement of flap margin is done at the alveolar crest, the goal is:

A

elimination of pocket depth

106
Q

What is a contraindication for osseous grafting?

A

poor plaque control

107
Q

A graft with 25% hydroxyapatite and 75% freeze dried bone is an:

A

composite graft

108
Q

What is a disadvantage of an osseous graft?

A

expensive

109
Q

T/F: Osseous surgery success is defect dependent

A

True

110
Q

Residual calculus is found at the:

A

CEJ and line angles

111
Q

Patient has #1 missing and a defect on #2, the best choice of flap is:

A

distal triangular wedge

112
Q

Where does the incision start for a palatal flap?

A

2/3 probing depth

113
Q

An ideal bone graft releases:

A

BMP slowly to form bone

114
Q

Trauma from occlusion in the absence of inflammation may be responsible for causing:

A

bone density loss

115
Q

The main tissue that GUIDED TISSUE REGENERATION exlcludes:

A

epithelium

116
Q

Open flap curettage uses a ____ bevel incision

A

intrasulcular- modified Widman, palatal flap

117
Q

Which of the following will NOT increase the width of keratinized tissue?

A

modified widman flap

118
Q

Crown lengthening usually requires:

A

ostectomy on the facial

119
Q

The 2nd step in the healing sequence of a bone graft is:

A

revascularization

120
Q

Free gingival grafts will end up:

A

revascularizing with the underlying connective tissue

121
Q

The coding to determine the type of tissue you obtain from a graft is in the:

A

CT

122
Q

Epithelium gets its blood supply and nutrients from:

A

underlyng CT

123
Q

What is hard to accomplish with a bone augmentation:

A

height

124
Q
A

Perio II (4 decks)

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