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Microbiology > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

Chapters 4-8 & Lab exam 1

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1
Q

Which of the following is an example of phagocytosis?

A

A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium

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2
Q

Which type of stain would you use for bacteria that have a capsule?

A

Negative Staining

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3
Q

What organelle is highly abundant in bacteria?

A

Ribosomes

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3
Q

Oxygen must be present for pyruvic acid to enter the Kreb cycle.

A

True

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4
Q

Which of the following are attributes of Gram positive bacteria? Select all that apply.

A

 60-90% of cell wall is peptidoglycan
 Stain purple

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5
Q

Complete the equation for the oxidation of glucose. What are the correct coefficients for each molecule?

A

1; 6; 6; 6

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6
Q

Where does the Krebs cycle occur in prokaryotes?

A

Cell Wall

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7
Q

What is the function of vacuoles?

A

store materials such as starch and fat

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7
Q

All bacteria can form capsules.

A

False

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8
Q

Heat fixation accomplishes 3 things. Select all that apply.

A

 Kills the organism
 Causes the organism to adhere to the slide

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9
Q

What are ways to speed up a biological reaction? Select all that apply

A

 Add an enzyme/catalyst
 Increase the temperature

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10
Q

What part of the microscope allows precise control of moving the slide?

A

Mechanical stage

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11
Q

Which of the following are the proper names for parts of a compound light microscope? Select all that apply.

A

 Ocular lens
 Mechanical stage
 Iris diaphragm

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12
Q

Which form of movement causes vesicles to pinch off from the plasma membrane and enter the cell.

A

Endocytosis

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13
Q

Which of the following are forms of movement across a membrane? Select all that apply.

A

 Exocytosis
 Active transport
 Diffusion

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14
Q

Which stain would you want to use to identify mycobacterium?

A

Acid-fast staining

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15
Q

Aerobes do not use oxygen.

A

False

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16
Q

Which of the following statements about enzymes are true? Select all that apply

A

 They have a region known as the active site
 They exhibit a high degree of specificity

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17
Q

How many times were the first simple microscopes capable of magnifying an object?

A

100 – 300X

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18
Q

Which of the following are examples of light transmission? Select all that apply.

A

 Seeing a fish swimming in a pond
 Peeking through someone’s window

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18
Q

What is used to prevent blurring of a microscope image due to the refraction of light through different media?

A

Immersion oil

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19
Q

Which type of bacteria don’t form arrangements?

A

Spiral bacteria

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20
Q

What is the total ATP yield from 1 glucose following glycolysis, Krebs cycle and electron transport?

A

38

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21
Q

What happens during event 4 of glycolysis?

A

ATP and pyruvic acid are formed

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22
Q

Which are components of an endospore? Select all that apply.

A

 Spore coat
 Core

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23
Q

The most commonly used dyes in microbiology (such as methylene blue or crystal violet) are ___.

A

positively charged

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24
Q

In aerobic respiration, oxygen becomes reduced to what?

A

Water

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25
Q

The site of ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is the ___. While in eukaryotic cells it is the___.

A

Cell membrane; mitochondria

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26
Q

How does a cationic dye work?

A

It is attracted to the negatively charged cell surface

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27
Q

The eukaryotic cell is the basic structural unit for all organisms in the protist, plant, animal and fungi kingdoms.

A

True

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28
Q

ATP synthase coverts ATP to ADP?

A

False

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29
Q

This type of microscopy, which makes use of antibody staining is widely used in diagnostic procedures to determine if an antigen is present.

A

Fluorescent microscopy

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30
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding prokaryotes?

A

Prokaryotes include viruses

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31
Q

Put the steps of the electron transport chain/oxidative phosphorylation in order.

A

1) NADH releases its electrons to the ETS system
2) Electrons move from complex to complex, releasing energy, which is used to pump H+ ions into the intermembrane space
3) Oxygen captures the electron
4) H+ ions diffuse through ATP synthase
5) ATP synthase converts ADP to ATP

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32
Q

What is the name of the molecule formed during Event 1 of glycolysis?

A

fructose 1,6-diphosphate

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33
Q

What happens during Event 2 of glycolysis?

A

Fructose is split into two 3-carbon molecules

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34
Q

Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the nucleus.

A

False

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35
Q

What is the name of the lowest magnification objective lens (on a standard 4 objective lens microscope)?

A

Scanning lens

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36
Q

Which molecules are found in glycolysis? Select all that apply.

A

 Pyruvic acid
 Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
 Fructose 1,6-diphosphate

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37
Q

Which of the following can be found in prokaryotic cells? Select all that apply.

A

 Ribosomes
 Vacuoles

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38
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about phagocytosis? Select all that apply.

A

Large vacuoles form around microorganisms or debris

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39
Q

The association of endotoxin in Gram-negative bacteria is a result of the presence of.

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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40
Q

What is the purpose of a condenser in a compound light microscope?

A

It converges light beams through a specimen

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41
Q

The term “fluid mosaic” refers to:

A

the cell membrane

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42
Q

What makes a microscope a compound microscope?

A

It has more than one lens

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43
Q

During aerobic cellular respiration, most of the energy is produced during:

A

Electron transport chain

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44
Q

Which of the following organelles is responsible for converting toxic hydrogen peroxide into harmless water and oxygen?

A

Peroxisome

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45
Q

On a hot day, one wants to avoid wearing black clothes because black reflects all light rays.

A

False

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46
Q

Match the following terms

A
  1. Krebs cycle 2 ATP formed
  2. Glycolysis, Krebs & ETS 38 ATP formed
  3. ETS 34 ATP formed
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47
Q

In event 1 of glycolysis, the 2 phosphates from ATP provide the activation energy necessary for glycolysis to proceed.

A

True

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48
Q

You just completed a gram stain, and upon looking through the microscope, you see that your slide has a unevenly stained cells. What would your bacteria.

A

Gram-variable

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49
Q

Which of the following are proper names for parts of a compound light microscope? (select all that apply)

A

 Condenser
 Arm
 Objective lens

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49
Q

The enzyme lysosome is found in tears and digests peptidoglycan

A

False

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50
Q

What color do cells stain in a negative stan?

A

Clear

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50
Q

Which of the following are attributes of eukaryotic cells? (select all that apply)

A

 Endoplasmic reticulum
 Can have cilia

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50
Q

What is oxidative phosphorylation?

A

The conversion of ADP to ATP

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50
Q

APT synthesis converts ATP to ADP

A

False

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50
Q

A typical oil immersion lens on a microscope with a 10X ocular lens provides a total magnification of 1000X

A

True

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50
Q

Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-enclosed organelles

A

True

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50
Q

Eukaryotic flagella move like a rotating hook

A

False

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51
Q

This type of microscopy, which makes use of antibody staining is widely used in diagnostic procedures to determine if an antigen is present

A

Fluorescent microscopy

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51
Q

A compound microscope can have up to 4 interchangeable lenses that have different powers of magnification.

A

False

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51
Q

Which of the following are a part of catabolism? (select all that apply)

A

 Energy for movement
 Energy for transport

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51
Q

How many ATP are formed in glycolysis (total)

A

4

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51
Q

Which of the following are TRUE regarding passive transport? (select all that apply)

A

 Particles move with concentration gradient
 No energy is expended

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51
Q

Spiral cells are also known as bacillus

A

False

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51
Q

What is the total magnification of your microscope if the magnifying power of the ocular lens is 5X and your objective lens is 40X

A

200x

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52
Q

in order to see two objects separately (rather than as one) the wavelength of light must be ___ the distance between the objects

A

Shorter than

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52
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding prokaryotes?

A

Procaryotes include viruses

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53
Q

Which form of movement of substances is most important to microbiologists?

A

Phagocytosis

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54
Q

Staining a specimen ___ differences in the index of refraction

A

Increases

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55
Q

Bacteria consist primarily of cytoplasm

A

True

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56
Q

What part of the cell does glycolysis occur?

A

Cytosol

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57
Q

Which of the following are examples of light transmission? (select all that apply)

A

 Seeing a fish swimming in a pond
 Peeking through someones window

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58
Q

What color will a vegetative cell stain?

A

Red

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59
Q

Aerobes are capable of using oxygen for energy

A

True

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60
Q

What happens during event 2 of glycolysis?

A

Fructose is split into two 3-carbon molecules

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61
Q

Which bacterial shape generally does not have flagella?

A

Cocci

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62
Q

What is the total magnification of your microscope if the magnifying power of the ocular lens is 5X and your objective lens is 100X

A

500X

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62
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A

The cell wall functions solely to maintain the shape of the cell

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63
Q

The majority of an aerobe’s energy comes from glycolysis

A

False

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64
Q

What is the name of the lens that is closest to your eyes in a compound light microscope?

A

Ocular lens

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65
Q

Where does the electron transport chain occur?

A

mitochondria

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66
Q

Gram negative cells can have as many as 40 layers of peptidoglycan

A

False (gram + does)

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67
Q

When light strikes an object and bounces back (giving a color) this is known as ___.

A

Reflection

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68
Q

Bacterial pili are used for

A

Adherence to surfaces

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68
Q

Which of the following are examples of cofactors? (select all that apply)

A

 Zinc
 Magnesium
 Manganese

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69
Q

The ___ is the amount of energy required to start a reaction

A

Activation energy

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70
Q

The association of endotoxin in gram-negative bacteria is a result of the presence of

A

Lipopolysaccharide

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71
Q

The eukaryotic plasma membrane is identical in structure and function to the prokaryotic cell membrane

A

False

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72
Q

Which of the following are examples of light reflection? (select all that apply)

A

 A white t-shirt
 Black asphalt
 A blue colored house

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73
Q

What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A

Package substances into vesicles and releases them

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74
Q

Which of the following are true about phosphorylation? (select all that apply)

A

 Addition of a phosphate group to a molecule
 Happens early in glycolysis

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75
Q

What happens during event 3 of glycolysis?

A

NAD is oxidized and reduced, and electrons are transferred to it for later use in the ETS

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76
Q

Total magnification of a microscope is the object lens power divided by the ocular lens power

A

False

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77
Q

Bacterial media that are composed of ingredients whose exact chemical composition are known are called

A

defined

78
Q

What are the nutrients that microorganisms use as building blocks to synthesize cell components and synthesize enzymes?

A

 Nitrogen
 Carbon

79
Q

Actively metabolizing bacterial cells can live with or without water in their environment.

A

false

80
Q

Acidophiles like basic pHs.

A

false

81
Q

Given the following DNA template sequence, what is the complementary messenger RNA sequence? 3’-ATGCCCTAG-5’

A

5’-UACGGGAUC-3’

82
Q

Which of the following are TRUE regarding the log phase of growth? (Select all that apply)

A

population growth is exponential

83
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about the lag phase of growth. (select all that apply)

A

organisms increase significantly in number

84
Q

What type of media contains reasonable familiar materials but varies slightly in composition from batch to batch?

A

synthetic

85
Q

When a spore returns to its vegetative state. What happens during outgrowth?

A

proteins, RNA, and DNA are synthesized

86
Q

In eukaryotes, what is the name of the noncoding region in DNA segments?

A

interons

87
Q

What type of replication is DNA replication, where each daughter strand contains one parent strand?

A

semiconservative

88
Q

What type of bond holds adjacent amino acids together in a growing polypeptide chain?

A

peptide bonds

89
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

pH 6 is more basic than pH 3

90
Q

There are no bacteria capable of tolerating the full pH range.

A

true

91
Q

Exactly 100 bacteria with a generation time of 60 minutes are introduced into fresh broth at 9:00am and maintained at an optimum incubation temperature throughout the day. How many bacteria are present by 5:00pm?

A

8 generations

92
Q

I have a pH of an 8 and a pH of a 13. How much more acidic is the 13? (Choose the correct answer)

A

it is more basic

93
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of transfer RNA? (Select all that apply)

A

 This RNA carries amino acids to growing protein
 This RNA contains a 3-base anticodon

94
Q

What color does methylene blue turn in the absence of oxygen?

A

colorless

95
Q

Select all answers that are physical factors.

A

 Temperature
 pH
 radiation

96
Q

Measuring metabolic products of a cell population is a method for directly measuring number of bacteria present.

A

false

97
Q

Each tRNA has a three-base ___ that is complementary to a particular mRNA codon.

A

anticodon

98
Q

During DNA replication, the lagging strand runs in the 3’ to 5’ direction.

A

true

99
Q

What is the pH range for an alkaliphile?

A

7.0 - 11.5

100
Q

Give the correct order for the following phases of growth (number them 1-4 from first to last phase):

A

1) Lag phase
2) Log phase
3) Stationary phase
4) Decline phase

101
Q

What base replaces thymine in RNA?

A

uracil

101
Q

What 3 signals can induce a bacterium to form an endospore? (select 3 answers)

A

 Metabolic
 Environmental
 Cell cycle

102
Q

In a colony, all cells are perpetually in the same growth phase.

A

false

103
Q

Ribosomes, mRNA and tRNA are reusable.

A

true

104
Q

Peptone media is often enriched with soybean extract.

A

false

104
Q

A codon is made up of how many bases?

A

3

105
Q

Halophiles are not capable of surviving in environments with greater than 10% salt concentrations.

A

false

106
Q

When moved to a lower pressure environment, proteins and enzymes in a barophile denature, killing it.

A

true

107
Q

If you counted 52 colonies on a plate and had a dilution factor of 10⁴, what is the count in CFU/ml?

A

5.2 x 10⁵

108
Q

What are the ways in which information is transferred in a cell? (select all that apply)

A

 Replication
 Transcription
 Translation

109
Q

A mother cell must ___ in size and duplicate in size before dividing into daughter cells.

A

double

110
Q

What is the name for short DNA segments used to synthesize the new DNA on the lagging strand?

A

okazaki fragments

111
Q

Match each of the following terms with their correct definition

A

 Facultative anaerobe – uses aerobic metabolism when oxygen is available but can undergo fermentation when there is no oxygen
 Obligate anaerobe – killed by oxygen
 Obligate aerobe – requires oxygen to grow

112
Q

Which of the following pairs are not complementary?

A

A-G

113
Q

When doing an MPN test, what 3 volumes of a dilution are used? (select 3 answers)

A

 0.1 ml
 1 ml
 10 ml

114
Q

In protein synthesis, what type of RNA serves as the template for amino acid sequence?

A

mRNA

115
Q

Most lab cultures will use media containing peptone.

A

true

115
Q

Human blood is the blood of choice for enriching agar medium when studying hemolysis.

A

false

116
Q

Match the term with the correct pH. (match the following)

A

 Neutral 7
 Extremely basic 14
 Extremely acidic 0
 Growth of most bacteria 6-9

117
Q

Most microbes cant grow in a pH more than 1 pH unit above/below their optimum pH.

A

true

118
Q

Match the following terms to their correct definition:

A

 Lag phase organisms are metabolically active but not increasing in number
 Decline phase cells lose ability to divide and die
 Log phase exponential cell population growth
 Stationary phase number of new cells produced equal number that are dying

119
Q

Mark all answers that are considered acidic. (mark all that apply)

A

 Wine
 Urine

119
Q

Which phase of cell growth represents when cell death exceeds cell growth?

A

decline phase

120
Q

What enzyme is responsible for unwinding two strands of DNA?

A

helicase

121
Q

For each of the following state whether it is associated with replication, transcription or translation

A

 Origin replication
 P site translation
 DNA converted to RNA transcription
 Anticodon
translation

122
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure?

A

The pressure exerted by standing water in proportion to its depth

123
Q

What is the pH range for a neutrophile?

A

5.4 - 8.0

124
Q

What is the name of the microbe capable of withstanding extremely high pressure?

A

barophile

125
Q

A bacterial colony is formed when a single cell divides exponentially.

A

true

126
Q

You’re currently on vacation visiting some local caves. What type of bacteria will you most likely find there?

A

acidophiles

127
Q

Which are the three pH classifications for bacteria? (Select 3 answers)

A

 Alkaliphiles
 Neutrophiles
 Acidophiles

128
Q

You are getting ready for a dip in a natural hot spring. What type of bacteria will you most likely find there?

A

thermophiles

129
Q

what are some of the trace elements needed by microorganisms? (Select all that apply)

A

 zinc
 iron

130
Q

in prokaryotes, chromosomes are ___, while in eukaryotes they are ___.

A

circular; linear

131
Q

Which of the following statements about endospores is true? (Select all that apply)

A

 Endospore formation generally occurs because of environmental stressors such as limited nutrients
 Endospore formation occurs in certain gram positive bacteria

131
Q

The matching of a codon to an anticodon is what specifies the sequence of amino acids in a protein.

A

true

132
Q

How many chromosomes are found in a typical bacterial cell?

A

1

133
Q

Given the following original DNA strand, select the sequence of the strand synthesized during replication: CATTGGCCA

A

GTAACCGGT

134
Q

DNA polymerase adds nucleotides to the 5’ end of a growing DNA strand.

A

false

135
Q

If you had a dilution factor of 100,000 and you counted 23 colonies on your plate, what is the bacterial growth?

A

2.3 x 10⁶ CFU/mL

136
Q

What is the name for salt-loving bacteria?

A

halophile

137
Q

In order to perform a standard plate count, you must make serial dilutions. Which of the following is NOT a step used to prepare for a standard plate count?

A

dilutions continue until we reach 10ᶟ

138
Q

When detecting gas production by cells, the gas is collected in small inverted tubes placed in larger tubes of liquid medium containing bacteria.

A

true

139
Q

Which of the following are DNA nucleotides? (Select all that apply)

A

Guanine
Adenine
(Thymine & Cytocine)

140
Q

If you counted 120 colonies on a plate and had a dilution of 10⁵, what is the count in CFU/ml?

A

1.2 x 10⁷

141
Q

What are the 3 parts of a nucleotide?

A

 Sugar
 Phosphate
 Base

142
Q

Which is NOT an event that occurs during binary fission?

A

DNA synthesis occurs during the 5 phase

143
Q

Where does transcription and translation take place in prokaryotes?

A

cytoplasm

144
Q

Most bacteria use carbon as an energy source.

A

true

145
Q

In protein synthesis, what type of RNA serves as the template for amino acid sequence?

A

mRNA

146
Q

Which of the following pairs are not complementary?

A

A-G

146
Q

match the following terms with their definition:

A

 syphilis grow in cultures that contain living human cells
 natural media growing in nature in oceans, lakes, and soil
 laboratory media synthetic media

147
Q

what enzyme is responsible for unzipping double-stranded DNA into single strands?

A

helicase

148
Q

All bacteria are capable of forming endospores?

A

false

149
Q

In DNA replication, which strand is discontinuous?

A

lagging

150
Q

Select all of the ways in which bacterial growth can be measured.

A

 Dry wet measurement
 Most probable number

151
Q

What are the 3 types of RNA that participate in transcription/translation? (select 3 answers)

A

 mRNA
 tRNA
 rRNA

152
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?

A

when a organism divides at its most rapid rate

153
Q

What method estimates organism numbers by running a known volume of water or air through a filter then growing on a solid medium?

A

filtration

154
Q

What is the term for a cloudy appearance indicating the presence of organisms?

A

turbidity

155
Q

If you count 52 colonies on a plate and had a dilution factor of 10⁴. What is the count in CFU/ml?

A

5.2 x 10⁵

156
Q

I have a pH of a 2 and a pH of a 5. How much more acidic is the 2? (choose the correct answer)

A

1000x

157
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of ribosomal RNA? (select all that apply)

A

 This RNA serves as the site for protein synthesis
 Eukaryotic ribosomes consist of 40S and 60S subunits
 Prokaryotic ribosomes consist of 30S and 50S subunits

157
Q

Blood agar is often used to observe changes in the appearance of the agar around the colonies growing on this medium. What would we call this type of media?

A

differential

158
Q

A facultative organism is one that must have a specified environmental condition

A

false

159
Q

What is the stationary phase of cell growth?

A

when cell division equals cell death

160
Q

The synthesis of mRNA from DNA is known as translation, and the synthesis of protein from mRNA is transcription.

A

false

161
Q

Each tRNA has a three-base ___ that is complementary to a particular mRNA codon.

A

anticodon

162
Q

If you had a dilution factor of 100,000 and you counted 7 colonies on your plate, what is the bacterial growth?

A

7 x 10 CFU/ml

163
Q

What are the three temperature classifications for bacteria? (select 3)

A

 Thermophiles
 Mesophiles
 Psychrophiles

164
Q

The negative stain can be used for what type of cells? (select all that apply)

A
  • Cells that are too delicate to be heat fixed
  • Cells that are difficult to stain
  • Cells that are being prepared for electron microscopy
164
Q

When performing the zig-zag method, you must sterilize the inoculating loop between each drag from number to number.

A

true

165
Q

How do you determine total magnification of an image with a compound microscope?

A

Multiply the power of the objective by the power of the eyepiece.

166
Q

What bacterial sample did you use to inoculate your slant?

A

Rest of the colony left over from the gram stain

166
Q

Black absorbs all colors.

A

true

167
Q

In the below picture of the microscope, what is the function of the structure indicated by the letter C?

A

It converges the light beam so they pass through the specimen

168
Q

What is the 40x objective lens called?

A

high

168
Q

What are the two groups that gram staining differentiates between? (select 2 answers)

A
  • Gram negative
  • Gram positive
169
Q

According to proper handwashing guidelines, how much of your hands/arms should you wash?

A

hands and at least 4 inches above the wrists

170
Q

What is the purpose of the iodine step in a gram stain?

A

it fixes the crystal violet to the bacterial cell wall

171
Q

If you have a 10X eyepiece and a 10X objective lens, what is the total magnification?

A

100x

172
Q

In the below picture of the microscope, what is the function of the structure indicated by the letter H?

A

coarse focus

173
Q

How do you stop or slow down the growth in a slant?

A

place in the fridge

174
Q

If you have properly prepared your nigrosin smear, what color will it be?

A
175
Q

When performing the zig-zag method, you should draw your line all the way from 4 back to 1?

A

false

176
Q

How long do you need to let an inoculating loop cool after sterilizing in a microincinerator?

A
177
Q

What is used as the decolorizer in a Gram stain? (select all that apply)

A
  • Acetone
  • Ethanol
178
Q

What surface does the stain adhere to in a negative stain?

A

surface of the glass slide

179
Q

What is the ideal temperature range for growing cultures?

A

70 - 95F

180
Q

What is used to prevent a slant from drying out?

A

screw cap top

181
Q

What do gram negative cells contain in their cell wall that allows the challenge rinse to penetrate the cell and rinse out the stain?

A

lipid

182
Q

Magnification alone is sufficient to achieving a good image under a microscope.

A

false

183
Q

You should never leave the flame of a Bunsen burner unattended.

A

true

184
Q

All of the cells in a bacterial colony are the same stain

A

true

184
Q

In bright field microscopy, a sample’s contrast comes from the scattering of light by the sample.

A

false

185
Q

What is standard agar made from?

A

red algae

186
Q

What motion are you using to inoculate your slant?

A

zig-zag

187
Q

What is the name of the container specialized for growing bacteria?

A

petri dish

188
Q

You should clean the lab bench before and after each lab session.

A

true

189
Q

When performing a gram stain, how long should you leave the primary stain on the slide?

A

1 minute

190
Q

In the below picture of the microscope, what is the function of the structure indicated by the letter G?

A

it holds the slide and moves it around

191
Q

Where do you want to store your bacterial to grow?

A

incubator

192
Q

In the below picture of the microscope, what is the function of the structure indicated by the letter F?

A

it connects the body tube to the base

193
Q

What types of dyes are used for negative stains?

A

acidic dyes

194
Q

When performing the zig-zag method, you will close the dish and resterilize the inoculating loop between each line.

A

true

195
Q

What dye is used for negative staining?

A

nigrosine dye

196
Q

What color is nigrosine dye?

A

black

197
Q

Use the picture below along with the dichotomous key to identify the unknown bacterium.
(picture is of red stained circular bacteria)

A

neisseria meningitides

198
Q

How do you know when the microincinerator is ready for use?

A

it will have an orange glow

199
Q

What types of lenses can be found in a compound microscope? (select all that apply)

A
  • Objective lens
  • Ocular lens
200
Q

How is a slant made?

A

while liquid agar is still hot, it is poured in a test tube and allowed to solidify in a tilted position

201
Q

What is the standard growth medium used for culturing bacteria, mold and yeast?

A

agar

202
Q

What color are bacteria on a negative stain?

A

clear/colorless

203
Q

When should an inoculated slant be placed to grow?

A

incubator

204
Q

What is resolving power?

A

the ability to measure the separation of images that are close together

205
Q

What is the purpose of solidifying the agar at a slant in the tube?

A

to increase surface area

206
Q

Before putting away your microscope, you should rotate the lenses back to the scanning objective.

A

true

207
Q

To heat fix cells, you will pass the slide (smear side up) through a flame 2-3 times

A

true

208
Q

How should you incubate your slant?

A

agar up

Microbiology (8 decks)

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