midterm !

Question 1

QUINOLONES

used for uncomplicated gonorrhea

Answer 1

norfloxacin

in 800 mg single oral dose

Question 2

QUINOLONES

• its primary use is for uncomplicated gonococcal urethritis and chancroid
• also an enzyme inhibitor of CYP1A2

Answer 2

enoxacin

Question 3

QUINOLONES

has the best distribution among quinolones

the only quinolone distributed in the cerebrospinal fluid

Answer 3

ciprofloxacin

Question 4

QUINOLONES

agent of choice for bacterial gastroenteritis

Answer 4

ciprofloxacin

Question 5

QUINOLONES

agent of choice for the management of inhalational antharax

Answer 5

ciprofloxacin

Question 6

QUINOLONES

this quinolone is incompatible with drugs that are alkaline

Answer 6

ciprofloxacin

Question 7

QUINOLONES

use of ciprofloxacin + doxycycline

Answer 7

gonococcal urethritis

Question 8

QUINOLONES

use of ciprofloxacin + ceftriaxone

Answer 8

disseminated gonorrhea

Question 9

QUINOLONES

• this quinolone is not effective in syphilis
• supplied as racemate

Answer 9

ofloxacin

Question 10

QUINOLONES

indicated for acute bacterial exacerbations caused by H. influenzae or M. catarrhalis

Answer 10

lomefloxacin

Question 11

QUINOLONES

it has halogen in C-8 which causes phototoxicity

Answer 11

lomefloxacin

Question 12

QUINOLONES

the only quinolone which once-daily oral dosing suffices

Answer 12

lomefloxacin

Question 13

QUINOLONES

• has long elimination half-life
• used for bacterial gastroenteritis and cholecystitis
• has the lowest incidence of phototoxicity because of the amino portion at C-5

Answer 13

sparfloxacin

Question 14

QUINOLONES

main AEs of quinolones

Answer 14

• arrthythmia: torsades de pointes
• CI: ages <18, pregnant or breastfeeding women
• arthopathy, chondrotoxicity
• phototoxicity

Question 15

NITROFURANS

where should the nitro portion of nitrofurans be attached to have its antimicrobial activity?

Answer 15

C-5

Question 16

NITROFURANS

• bactericidal
• antiprotozoal, only against G. lamblia

Answer 16

furazolidone

Question 17

NITROFURANS

• disrupts bacterial enzyme system
• colors the urine brown
• designed using large crystalline form to improve GI tolerance

Answer 17

nitrofurantoin

Question 18

METHENAMINE AND ITS SALTS

what is the active agent of methenamine?

Answer 18

formaldehyde

Question 19

METHENAMINE AND ITS SALTS

urease inhibitor used with methenamine

Answer 19

acetohydroxamic acid

Question 20

METHENAMINE AND ITS SALTS

has the ability to furnish its own acidity thus avoid gastric disturbance

Answer 20

methenamine mandelate

Question 21

METHENAMINE AND ITS SALTS

• readily absorbed
• concentrated in the urinary bladder

Answer 21

methenamine hippurate

Question 22

URINARY ANALGESIC

• brick red in color
• has local analgesic effect
• combined with urinary antiseptics

Answer 22

phenazopyridine HCl

Question 23

ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS

isoniazid is:
* ____ against replicating mo
* ____ against non-replicating mo

Answer 23

• bactericidal
• bacteriostatic

Question 24

ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS

MOA of isoniazid

Answer 24

• metabolized to isonicotinic acid
• inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

Question 25

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS what is the **major metabolite of isoniazid**?

Answer 25

N-acetylisoniazid

Question 26

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS AEs of isoniazed: * in **fast** acetylators * in **slow** acetylators

Answer 26

* hepatotoxicity, hepatitis * peripheral neuritis | tx for peripheral neuritis: **pyridoxine (vit. b6)**

Question 27

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS **alternative** for **isoniazid**

Answer 27

ethionamide

Question 28

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS **active metabolite** of **pyrazinamide**

Answer 28

pyrazinoic acid

Question 29

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS MOA of **ethambutol**

Answer 29

inhibits **arabinosyl** transferase

Question 30

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS MOA of **p-aminosalicylic acid**

Answer 30

inihibits **folic acid** synthesis

Question 31

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS * treatment of **leprosy** especially **dapsone-resistant** forms * treats skin **lesions caused by *M. ulcerans***

Answer 31

clofazimine

Question 32

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS its adverse effects is the following: * **retrobulbar** neuritis * **green-red** color blindness

Answer 32

ethambutol

Question 33

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS * **binds** to DNA-dependent RNA polymerase * **most active agent** in clinical use **for tuberculosis** * has **higher hepatotoxicity with** isoniazid

Answer 33

rifampin

Question 34

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS * enzyme **inducer** * is an **orange to reddish-brown** crystalline powder

Answer 34

rifampin

Question 35

# ANTITUBERCULAR AGENTS