midterm Flashcards

1
Q

1) On the lower limbs, more evident on the right leg, where a red, elevated, burelet is present. The
sentence above is the definition of which disease?
A) Erysipelas
B) Erythema nodosum
C) Lipomatosis
D) Pemphigus

A

A) Erysipelas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2) Which skin lesion shows full-thickness loss of the epidermis with damage into the dermis, heals
with scarring?
A) Scale
B) Ulcer
C) Erosion
D) Scar

A

ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3) Persons with chronic alcohol consumption have risks for many diseases, such as
I- Liver cirrhosis
II- Chronic alcoholic hepatitis
III- Duodenal ulcers
A) I
B) I and II
C) II and III
D) I, II and III

A

D) I, II and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4) Which of the following is not a rheumatologic disease?
A) Osteoarthritis
B) Scleroderma
C) Osteoporosis
D) Gout

A

C) Osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5) Which of the following is not a secondary skin lesion?
A) Fissure
B) Papule
C) Ulceration
D) Squames

A

B) Papule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1) Which of the following is not a differential criterion for gynecomastia?
A) Obesity
B) Thyroid disease
C) Hypertension
D) liver disease

A

) Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

I- Next is semi-tandem with the heel of one foot positioned next to the arch of the other foot
II- If the patient is unable to maintain each position for 10 seconds he or she is at increased risk of
falls.
III- Have patient stand with feet together side by side.
IV- full tandem with one foot in front of the other with the heel of the front foot touching the toes of
the back foot.
How should the sequence be for the Three-Stage balance test?
A) III, I, IV, II
B) I, II, III, IV
C) III, II, IV, I
D) IV, I, III, II

A

A) III, I, IV, II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3) A simple technique to evaluate for incontinence is the _____.
A) Cough test
B) Gait and balance test
C) Romberg test
D) Timed up and go test

A

cough test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

4) Which of the following occurs at stage 4 in the pressure ulcer?
A) The skin is broken, and the area is tender and painful.
B) The ulcer has extended into the subcutaneous tissue.
C) Muscle and bone can be seen.
D) Skin is intact and may be warm or tender. Skin color change can be seen

A

C) Muscle and bone can be seen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

5) The usual rate in adults is about __ to __ breaths per minute, and this does not change in normal
aging.
A) 12 to 18
B) 8 to 12
C) 18 to 24
D) 8 to 16

A

A) 12 to 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1) Which is not the cause of edema?
A) Compensatory retention of sodium and water by the kidney
B) Efficiency of venous and lymphatic flow
C) Regulation of capillary flow by the precapillary sphincter
D) Normal amount of fluid that has accumulated under the skin

A

D) Normal amount of fluid that has accumulated under the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2) Which is an example of peripheral edema associated with systemic process?
A) Lymphatic obstruction
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Insect bite
D) Chronic lymphangitis

A

B) Congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3) Which one is not a common cause of generalized edema?
A) Venous obstruction
B) Chronic kidney disease
C) Local trauma
D) Heart failure

A

local trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4) Which one is the cause of both localized and generalized edema?
A) Lymphatic obstruction
B) Localized malignancy
C) Excessive intravenous fluids
D) Soft tissue infection

A

B) Localized malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

5) Which are not symptoms of late pregnancy inferior vena cava syndrome?
A) Intense pain in right side
B) Muscle twitching
C) Hypotension
D) Hypertension

A

D) Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1) Which of the following reasons for excessive testing is justifiable?
A) Lack of experience
B) Inadequate educational feedback
C) Clinicians’ unawareness about costs
D) Monitoring disease progression

A

D) Monitoring disease progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

2) Which one is not one of the Diabetes Mellitus Diagnostic Tests?
A) Fasting Blood Sugar (FAC)
B) Lactose Tolerance Test
C) Random Blood Sugar (RBG)
D) Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)

A

B) Lactose Tolerance Test

18
Q

3) Which of the following is not an example of macrocytic anemia?
A) Leukemias
B) Folate deficiency anemia
C) B12 deficiency anemia
D) Hypothyroidism

A

A) Leukemias

19
Q

4) Which of the following is incorrect?
A) Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): The measure of RBC size (80 to 100 micromillimeter)
B) Peripheral smear gives information regarding abnormality in size, shape, color, counts, and
composition (inclusions) of cells compared to normal.
C) High platelet count occurs in thrombocytopenia.
D) If all cell lines are decreased, it is called pancytopenia.

A

C) High platelet count occurs in thrombocytopenia.

20
Q

5) Which of the following is false regarding anemia?
A) If a single line is affected, then the approach is different e.g., low RBCs is called anemia, and a
specific approach is followed.
B) Clinical features include fatigue, weakness, shortness of breath, palpitations, dizziness, headache,
and decreased exercise tolerance.
C) Thalassemia is an example of Microcytic hypochromic anemia.
D) Normocytic normochromic anemia is the type of anemia in which the circulating RBCs are
smaller and in size and contain less hemoglobin than normal cells.

A

D) Normocytic normochromic anemia is the type of anemia in which the circulating RBCs are
smaller and in size and contain less hemoglobin than normal cells.

21
Q

1) Which one of the following is modifiable risk factor of hypertension?
A) Increased age
B) Weight loss
C) Cardiovascular disease
D) Diabetes

A

B) Weight loss

22
Q

2) Which one of the following is not a hand gesture associated with probability of cardiac chest pain?
A) Levine sign
B) Waving sign
C) Arm sign
D) Palm sign

A

waving sign

23
Q

3) Which one of the following is not a traditional anticoagulant?
A) Warfarin
B) Aspirin
C) Coumarin
D) Heparin

A

aspirin

24
Q

4) If a patient came to your clinic with chest pain or dyspnea caused by exertion or stress, what
would be your diagnosis for this case?
A) Cardiac ischemia
B) Stable angina
C) Cholecystitis
D) Musculoskeletal chest pain

A

B) Stable angina

25
Q

5) Which of the following is the accurate measurement of blood pressure?
A) After 5 minutes of rest, use the correct size cuff, support the arm, we take only 1 measurement.
B) After 5 minutes of rest, use the correct size cuff, support the arm, we take more than 1
measurement at separate visits.
C) When the patient come, immediately use the correct size cuff, support the arm and we take more
than 1 measurement at separate visits.
D) When the patient come, immediately use the correct size cuff, support the arm and we take only 1
measurement.

A

B) After 5 minutes of rest, use the correct size cuff, support the arm, we take more than 1
measurement at separate visits.

26
Q

6) What is the most common symptom of high blood pressure?
A) Racing heartbeat
B) It has no symptoms that you notice
C) High body temperature
D) Fatigue

A

B) It has no symptoms that you notice

27
Q

1) Which of the following is not a symptom of arthritis?
A) pain in the joint
B) Limited ROM
C) Nausea
D) Redness

A

C) Nausea

28
Q

2) Which of the following is not a type of soft tissue rheumatism?
A) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Fibromyalgia syndrome
C) Fasciitis
D) Adhesive capsulitis

A

A) Rheumatoid arthritis

29
Q

3) Fibromyalgia is characterized by:
A) Acute Pain
B) Trigger points
C) Regional muscle tenderness
D) Tender points

A

D) Tender points

30
Q

4) Arthralgia is defined as joint pain. Is this statement true or false?
A) True
B) False

A

t

31
Q

1) Which one of the following is not a symptom of hypercalcemia?
A) Kidney stones
B) Dysphagia
C) Abdominal groans
D) Psychiatric moans

A

B) Dysphagia

32
Q

2) What are the most common ECG findings of hypercalcemia?
A) Long QT interval
B) Short QT interval
C) Depressed ST segment
D) Elevated ST segment

A

B) Short QT interva

33
Q

3) Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by:
A) Parathyroid hormone
B) Parathyroid hormone - related protein
C) Calcitonin
D) Interleukin – 6

A

B) Parathyroid hormone - related protein

34
Q

4) What part of the body is responsible for regulating Calcium levels in the blood stream?
A) Thyroid gland
B) Parathyroid glands
C) Adrenal glands
D) Pituitary gland

A

B) Parathyroid glands

35
Q

5) A patient’s lab work shows that they have a high parathyroid hormone level. Which condition is
the patient at risk for?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hyperkalemia

A

B) Hypercalcemia

36
Q

1) Which of the following is a side effect of taking metformin for diabetes patient?
A) Vitamin K deficiency
B) Anemia
C) Vitamin B12 deficiency
D) Arrhythmias

A

C) Vitamin B12 deficiency

37
Q

2) A 44-year-old patient came for regular checkup, her HbA1c was 10.5%. The patents already take
metformin medication. What other medication should be given to the patient?
A) Warfarin
B) Insulin
C) NSAIDs
D) Heparin

A

B) Insulin

38
Q

3) Which of the following is a sort of cancer?
A) Follicular
B) Abscess
C) Hashimoto thyroiditis
D) Parathyroid adenoma

A

A) Follicular

39
Q

4) Which of the following is not a risk factor of osteoporosis?
A) Postmenopausal women
B) History of fragility fracture
C) Tobacco and alcohol consumption
D) DXA score is -2.3

A

D) DXA score is -2.3

40
Q

5) The presence of polydipsia and polyuria can suggest which disease?
A) Ankylosis spondylitis
B) Fibromyalgia
C) Congestive heart failure
D) Diabetic mallitus

A

D) Diabetic mallitus