MIDTERM Flashcards

1
Q
Hemoglobin solubility results and hemoglobin electrophoresis have resulted in a diagnosis of sickle cell anemia in an African American infant. The parents of the child should be aware that their child is at a significant risk for which of the following health problems? Select all that apply.
A. Respiratory disease
B. Autoimmune disease
C. Acute pain
D. Fractures
E. Stroke
A

Respiratory disease
Acute pain
Stroke

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2
Q

A patient who has anemia and a severe GI absorption disorder has been ordered iron dextran (INFeD). What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient related to the administration of this drug?
A) Acute pain related to drug administration
B) Deficient knowledge regarding drug therapy
C) Risk for injury related to CNS effects
D) Disturbed body image related to drug staining of teeth

A

Ans: A
Feedback:
Iron dextran is a parenteral form of iron. It is given intramuscularly and must be given by the Z-track method. It can be very painful. Certainly, deficient knowledge and risk for injury are appropriate diagnoses for this patient but would not be related to the administration of the drug. Because this medication is not given orally, tooth staining would not be a concern.

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3
Q
A postsurgical client who is recovering in the postanesthetic recovery unit states that she is "freezing cold." Which of the following measures is likely to be initiated in the client's hypothalamus in an effort to reduce heat loss?
A) Opening of arteriovenous (AV) shunts
B) Reduced exhalation of warmed air
C) Contraction of pilomotor muscles
D) Decreased urine production
A

C) Contraction of pilomotor muscles

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4
Q
The patient is taking a drug that  affects the body by increasing cellular activity. Where does this drug work on the cell?
A. Receptor sites
B. Cell membrane
C. Golgi boy
D. Endoplasmic reticulum
A

Receptor Sites

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5
Q

Which of the following clients is most likely to be susceptible to developing a neurogenic fever? A client who has:
A. Become delirious after the administration of benzodiazepine?
B. Stage II Alzheimer disease
C. Begun taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression
D. Sustained a head injury in a bicycle crash

A

Ans: sustained a head injury in a bicycle crash

Neurogenic fever is the result of damage to the hypothalamus caused by central nervous system trauma, intracerebral bleeding, or an increase in intracranial pressure. All these problems may be precipitated by a head injury. Alzheimer disease and drug administration are not typical causes of a neurogenic fever

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6
Q
A patient is being discharged home on warfarin. The discharge teaching by the nurse should include a warning to avoid what?
A. St. Johns Wort
B. Saw Palmetto
C. Tarragon
D. Ginkgo
A

Ans: D. Ginkgo

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7
Q

The nurse evaluates teaching about warfarin is successful when the patient makes what statement?
A. I will increase the dark green leafy vegetables in my diet.
B. I will check with the pharmacist before taking any herbal supplements
C. If I miss a dose, I will take two pills that next day
D. I will take a multivitamin daily.

A

Ans: B. I will check with the pharmacist before taking any herbal supplements

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8
Q

A client is undergoing a diagnostic workup to rule out multiple myeloma. Which of the following diagnostic findings would confirm the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
A) Plasma cells greater than 10% on bone marrow biopsy
B) Decreased production of bone osteoblasts
C) T-cell lymphocyte level of 34% (normal)
D) Immunoglobulin A level of 200 mg/dL (normal)

A

Ans: A) Plasma cells greater than 10% on bone marrow biopsy

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9
Q
By what route will the nurse administer the antihemophilic agent to the patient with hemophilia following a car accident?
A. Topical
B. Sublingual
C. IV
D. Oral
A

Ans: C

Feedback:

All antihemophilic agents are administered IV and are not available for administration by any other route.

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10
Q

A public health nurse is conducting a health promotion campaign under the auspices of the local community center. Which of the following measures that the nurse is promoting are likely to influence the participants risk of hypercoagulability disorders? Select all that apply.
A. cholesterol screening and management
B. Smoking cessation
C. Blood glucose screening
D. Daily dose of vitamins and minerals
E. Eliminating consumption all alcoholic beverage

A

Answer:
A. cholesterol screening and management
B. Smoking cessation
C. Blood glucose screening

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11
Q
The angiogenesis process, which allows tumors to develop new blood vessels, is triggered and regulated by tumor-secreted:
A. Growth factors
B. Attachment factors
C. Procoagulants
D. Proteolytic enzymes
A

Ans: A. Growth factors

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12
Q
What anemia does the nurse classify as a type of hemolytic anemia?
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
A

Ans: A. Sickle cell anemia

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13
Q

A 12yr old boys severe wound that he received from a dog bite has begun to heal and currently shows no signs of infection. Which of the following process occurred first during this process of repair by connective tissue disposition?
A. Deposition of the extracellular matrix
B. Angiogenesis
C. Emigration of fibroblast to the wound site
D. Reorganization of fibrous tissue.

A

Ans: B. Angiogenesis

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14
Q
The patient has been diagnoses with rheumatoid arthritis. She also reports pain in various muscle groups secondary to a diagnosis of fibromyalgia and dysmenorrhea with painful cramping during menses. What drug would be most effective in treating all three of this patients problems:
A. Etanercept (Enbrel)
B. Naproxen
C. Acetaminophen
D. Sodium hyaluronate
A

B. Naproxen

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15
Q

Which of the following wounds is most likely to heal by secondary intention?
A. A boys “road rash” that he got by falling off his bicycle
B. The incision from a teenagers open appendectomy
C. A needle stick injury that a nurse received when injecting a client medication
D. A finger laceration that a cook receiving while cutting up onions.

A

Ans: A. A boys “road rash” that he got by falling off his bicycle

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16
Q

A client ask, “ What do these basophils and mast cells do in the body?” The health care provider responds that they:
A. help your body produce immune responses
B. Help your body to eliminate parasitic infections
C. are involved when you have an allergic reaction
D. Stiffen your cell membranes so bacteria cannot enter.

A

Ans: C. are involved when you have an allergic reaction

17
Q
A 77 yr old woman has been brought to the emergency department by her daughter because of sudden and unprecedented onset of confusion. The client admits to ingesting large amounts of baking soda this morning to treat some "indigestion". How will the woman's body attempt to resolve this disruption in acid-base balance?
A. Hypoventilation
B. Increase the depth of inspiration
C. Increase renal HC03 reabsorption
D. Increasing renal H+ excretion
A

A. Hypoventilation

18
Q
A client has been diagnosed with gram-negative pneumonia of the lower lobe. Knowing that gram-negative bacteria have a lipopolysaccharide endotoxin on their outer cell membrane, the health care provider should be assessing the client for which pathophysiological end result?
A. Activation of the p53 protein
B. Damage to cellular mitochondria
C. Increased ATP levels
D. Apoptosis
A

Ans: D. Apoptosis

19
Q
The nurse teaches the patient taking warfarin to minimize foods high in vitamin K including what type of food?
A. Citrus fruits
B. Eggs
C. Green leafy vegetables
D. Dairy products.
A

Ans: C. Green leafy vegetables

20
Q

The nursing instructor teaches the students that antineoplastic drugs are often carcinogens. The students are surprised to hear this and ask why. The instructors best response includes what information?
A. Palliative therapy promotes the growth of new cancer cells because it is not strong enough
B. If the patient remains cancer free for 2 yrs then cancer is found, it is caused by the drugs
C. The drugs kill cells resulting in a need for more cellular growth with risk of a mutant cell
D. These drugs do so much damage to so many human cells that the patient is debilitated.

A

Ans: C. The drugs kill cells resulting in a need for more cellular growth with risk of a mutant cell

21
Q

A client presents to the emergency clinic not feeling well. Which of the following complaints leads the health care provider to suspect the client may have acute leukemia?
A. Muscle aches and pains in large muscle groups, especially while lying in bed
B. Bleeding from the gums, not related to brushing the teeth
C. Frequent nausea and vomiting for the past week
D. Severe headache with associated photophobia

A

Ans: B. Bleeding from the gums, not related to brushing the teeth

22
Q

Following a lecture on hemostasis, a nursing student accidentally cuts her hand while preparing supper for her family. She watches the laceration very closely. Sure enough, the first thing she notes is:
A. Initially, it takes a few seconds for blood to appear as a result of vessel spasm.
B. Clot retraction by pushing serum out of the clot and joining the edges of the broken vessel.
C. Small hair like strands form a blood fibrin clot.
D. Limited bleeding initially as response to the small vessel walls being sealed by a platelet plug.

A

Ans: A. Initially, it takes a few seconds for blood to appear as a result of vessel spasm.

23
Q
A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking an anticholinergic drug to decrease the tremors and drooling caused by the disease process. The patient complains that he is having trouble voiding. The nurse would explain that this is what?
A. Primary action of the drug
B. A secondary action of the drug
C. An allergic action of the drug
D. A hypersensitive action of the drug
A

Ans: B. A secondary action of the drug

24
Q
The nurse admits a child to pediatric unit who has an abnormally high serum iron level. What chelating agent will be appropriate to treat this child?
A. Succimer
B. Calcium disodium edetate
C. Deferoxamine
D. Dimercaprol
A

Ans: C. Deferoxamine
Deferoxamine is given IM, IV, or subcutaneously to treat elevated iron levels. Calcium disodium edetate and succimer are used to treat elevated lead levels. Dimercaprol treats arsenic, gold, and mercury poisoning.

25
Q

Aerobic metabolism, also known as oxidative metabolism, provides energy to the body by:
A. Breaking down glucose to form lactic acid
B. Removing phosphate bonds from ATP
C. Activating pyruvate stored in the cytoplasm
D. Combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water.

A

Ans: D. Combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water.

26
Q
When NSAIDS are combined with loop diuretics, there is potential for what?
A. Anaphylactoid reactions
B. Lithium toxicity
C. Increased antihypertensive effect
D. Decreased diuretic effect.
A

Ans: D. Decreased diuretic effect.

27
Q
The patient is taking low dose aspirin daily for his heart. The nurse knows only a portion of the medication taken actually reaches the tissues due to what process?
A. Reduced absorption
B. Distribution
C. Gastrointestinal circulation
D. First pass effect.
A

Ans: D. First pass effect.

28
Q

Which of the following factors differentiates chronic leukemias from acute leukemias?
A. The prevalence among individuals with down syndrome is high
B. Leukemic cells are disseminated throughout the body by the circulatory system.
C. They are cancers of the hematopoietic progenitor cells
D. The leukemic cells are more fully differentiated than in acute leukemias.

A

Ans: D. The leukemic cells are more fully differentiated than in acute leukemias.

29
Q

Megaloblastic anemias caused by folic acid or vitamin B12 deficiencies can seriously affect RBC production. Which of the following lab results would correlate with this diagnosis?
A. Iron level of 70g/dl
B. Platelet count of 200,000
C. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCV) 120 fL (high)
D. Reticulocyte count of 3.6% (high)

A

Ans: C. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCV) 120 fL (high)

30
Q

Following peripheral blood testing and a bond marrow biopsy, a client has been diagnosed with chronic myelogenous leukemia. Which of the following is most likely to have preceded the clients diagnosis?
A. Radiation exposure
B. Exposure to Epstein Barr virus
C. Down Syndrome
D. The presence of a Philadelphia chromosome.

A

Ans: D. The presence of a Philadelphia chromosome.

31
Q
A patient has been prescribed epoetin alfa.  The nurse determines the drug is contraindicated as a result of what finding in the patients history?
A. Hypertension
B. IBS
C. Asthma
D. Shortness of breath
A

Ans: A. Hypertension

32
Q
A patient presents at the emergency department complaining of dizziness, mental confusion and difficulty hearing. What should the nurse suspect is wrong with the patient?
A. Salicylism
B. Acetaminophen toxicity
C. Anakinra toxicity
C. Ibuprofen Toxicity
A

Ans: A. Salicylism