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BIOL 230 > midterm 1 > Flashcards

midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what category is the basic structural and functional unit of an organism?

A

cell

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2
Q

what body systems help eliminate waste?

A

(CUDI)
cardiovascular, urinary, digestive, integumentary

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3
Q

two or more tissue types that work together to perform a specific function

A

organ level

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4
Q

The formation of a muscle cell from a precursor cell is an
example of which of the six life processes in the human
body?

A

differentiation

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5
Q

T or F: homeostasis is a dynamic steady state

A

true

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6
Q

interstitial fluid and plasma make up?

A

extracelullar fluid (ECF)

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7
Q

which (neg or pos feedback systems) are more common for regulating conditions over longer periods of time or that are more commonly occuring?

A

neg feedback loops

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8
Q

disorder vs disease

A

disorder = abnormal function or structure

disease = signs/symptoms, an illness, causes harm

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9
Q

similarities and differences btw pos and neg feedback loops

A
  • both response to stimuli and have receptors, input, control center, output, effector, response
  • neg will act to reverse OG change to variable while pos will enhance it
  • neg more common
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10
Q

describe the pathway a nutrient takes into a body cell

A

A nutrient moves from the external environment into the plasma via the digestive system, then into the interstitial fluid, and then to a body cell.

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11
Q

what is interstitial fluid?

A

ECF found between cells

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12
Q

what is the body’s internal environment made of?

A

ECF cuz it surrounds all the cells in the body

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13
Q

what 2 systems are primarily regulating homeostasis?

A

endocrine and nervous

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14
Q

what discovery was considered to be the beginning of modern experimental physiology?

A

Harvey’s discovery of blood circulation

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15
Q

what are the 4 steps of the scientific method?

A
  1. observation
  2. hypothesis
  3. experiment
  4. interpret data
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16
Q

catabolism and anabolism

A

cat: breakdown of complex substances into simpler pieces, digestive process breaking down foods into amino acids

ana: formation of complex substances, using amino acids made in digestion to form new proteins to make body structures like muscles

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17
Q

cycle of events in which a controlled variable is monitored, evaluated, changed, re-monitored, etc

A

feedback system

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18
Q

events that occur in anticipation of an event happens in a ?

A

feedFORWARD system
ex: salivating when smelling food in anticipation of eating

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19
Q

all the chemical rxns that occur in a human

A

metabolism

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20
Q

set point

A

the narrow range in which a controlled variable should be kept

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21
Q

subjective changes in body function that arent observable to anyone else

A

symptoms

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22
Q

what 4 elements make up 96% of the body?

A

oxygen
carbon
hydrogen
nitrogen

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23
Q

long polymer of nucleotides

A

nucliec acid

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24
Q

Ligand–protein binding exhibits four properties:

A

specificity, affinity, saturation, and competition.

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25
Q

what are the 3 categories of cellular messengers?

A

hormones, neurotransmitters, local mediators

HNL

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26
Q

what are the 3 METHODS of cell to cell communication?

A
  • gap junctions
  • cell to cell binding
  • extracellular chemical messengers
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27
Q

plasma membrane is highly permeable to ?

A

nonpolar molecules

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28
Q

____ signalling can also be put under ____ signalling category

A

synaptic signalling is also a type of local signalling

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29
Q

endocrine signalling = ? chemical messengers

A

hormones

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30
Q

synaptic signalling involves ? messengers

A

neurotransmitters

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31
Q

local signalling uses ? messengers

A

local mediators

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32
Q

paracrine or autocrine signalling fall under which of the three types of messengers>

A

local mediators / local signalling

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33
Q

endocrine signalling goes with which of the three types of messengers?

A

hormones

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34
Q

which type of messengers use chemical AND electrical signalling?

A

neurotransmitters

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35
Q

which local mediator is involved in cellular growth and differentitation?

A

cytokines

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36
Q

the capability to change based on experience

A

plasticity

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37
Q

which types of neurons can repair their axons and which cannot.

why is this?

A
  • neurons of the PNS can repair themselves while CNS neurons can’t
  • this is because the CNS neurons lack Schwann cells, they just have oligodendrocytes which create myelin that prevents regeneration
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38
Q
A
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39
Q

two main types of neurotransmitter receptors

A

onotropic and Metabotropic

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39
Q

two main types of synapses

A

electrical or chemical

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40
Q

T or F: there is a refractory period in both action and graded potentials

A

FALSE

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41
Q

T or F: a neurotransmitter is either excitatory or inhibitory, never both

A

false

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42
Q

temporal vs spacial summation

A

temporal = same location DIFF TIMES

Spatial: DIFF LOCATION, same time

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43
Q

satellite cells of the PNS are similar to what glial cells of the CNS? and what is the satellite cell function

A

satellite = they surround and support neurons in the PNS

similar to the astrocytes of the CNS (support and anchor nuerons to blood supply)

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43
Q

which type of synapse uses gap junctions to transmit the signal

A

electrical synapses

44
Q

2 advantages of electrical synapses

A

faster (conduction thru gap junctions)

synchronization (large # of neurons or muscle fibres can produce APs in unison if connected w gap junctions)

44
Q

3 ways neurotransmitters are removed from cleft

A
  1. diffusion
  2. enzymatic degradation
  3. uptake by cells
45
Q

neuromodulators can work on both pre and postsynaptic cells and cause alteration in the strength of a synaptic response

A

true

45
Q

agonist

A

initiates a response

45
Q

which meninges layer is useful for shock absorption and suspension?

A

subarachnoid space (btw arachnoid mater and pia mater)

45
Q

spinal nerves are part of cns or pns?

A

PNS

46
Q

which root is involved in conducting action potentials from the CNS at towards effectors?

A

the ventral root connecting spinal nerves to the spinal cord

47
Q

spinal nerves are sensory/motor/mixed nerves?

A

mixed

48
Q

out of the 31 pairs of spinal nerves, which are cervical, thoracic, sacral, etc?

A

(8, 12, 5, 5, 1)

8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal

49
Q

which is correct: gray matter surround inner core of white matter or white matter surrounds inner core of grey matter?

A

white matter surrounds the inner core of grey matter

50
Q

what are the the 6 levels of organization in order from most basic to largest

A
  • Chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
50
Q

acids dissociate into ___ and ____

they are proton _____

A

acids dissociate into H+ and ANIONS (-) and acids are proton DONORS as they are releasing H+ when they are in solution

50
Q

organic compounds always have ______ (a certain atom) and _____ bonds

A

carbon
covalent bonds (sharing e-)

51
Q

plasma is a solution and a _____ (define the term too)

A

colloid
solute particles in the solution are big enough to scatter light or make the solution/colloid appear translucent / opaque

52
Q

bases dissociate into ___ and ____ and they are proton _____

A

bases dissociate into OH- and ANIONS (+) and they are proton ACCEPTORS as they will take the H+ in solution (make h2o)

53
Q

acidosis in blood occurs at pH lower than ?

A

lower than 7.35

54
Q

alkalosis in blood occurs at pH higher than ?

A

higher than 7.45

55
Q

a large molecule formed by covalent bonding of identical monomers, made thru dehydration synthesis ( H taken from one molecule and OH from the other – a H2O leaves so monomers bind)

  • it can be broken down by adding water, called hydrolysis
    o these rxns occur during digestion
A

ploymers

56
Q

which physiology branch look at DNA and how / why / when genes are activated?

A

molecular physiology

57
Q

A student’s ability to think about the answers to questions on an exam is an example of:

an emergent property
the hierarchy of body organization
the system level of body organization
the chemical level of body organization

A

an emergent property

58
Q

Which level contains atoms and molecules?

Organismal level
Chemical level
Cellular level
Organ level

A

Chemical level

59
Q

Your answer is correct.
Any abnormality of structure or function is called a(n) _____.

disease
illness
disorder
sign

A

disorder

60
Q

If a person is found to have a body fluid percentage of 45%, what tissue type is that person likely to have in excess?

epithelial
muscle
endothelial
adipose

A

adipose (fat)

this is because more water (fluid) is retained in muscle cells)

61
Q

Eating a sandwich involves the interaction of which systems?

Muscular and respiratory
Digestive and nervous
Digestive and respiratory
Digestive and Integumentary

A

Digestive and nervous

62
Q

Your home is equipped with a temperature regulation system. You accidentally leave a window open on a blistering hot and humid day. The home’s temperature regulation system recognizes that the window is open and that the temperature in the home will rise. In response to this, the AC is turned up to keep the home cool. This is analogous to _______.

feedback system
feedback control
homeostasis
feedforward control

A

feedforward control

forward because the system recognizes that the heat will rise BEFORE it does (anticipates and acts on a future change in the controlled variable)

63
Q

Which of the following fluid compartments contains most of the total body fluid volume?

Extracellular fluid
Interstitial fluid
Intracellular fluid
Blood plasma

A

intracellular fluid

64
Q

A patient’s blood pressure reads 150/110, which is well above normal. To a physician, this blood pressure reading would be considered a/an

sign
illness
symptom
disorder

A

sign

65
Q

The study of functional changes associated with aging and disease is called

developmental biology
immunology
pathophysiology
endocrinology

A

pathophysiology

66
Q

Compared to ionic and covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds are

found only in inorganic molecules
weaker
found only in organic molecules
stronger

A

weaker

67
Q

How does the binding of an allosteric activator affect the protein to which it binds?

  • the allosteric activator does not cause a conformational change in the protein, but it does increase the affinity for the ligand
  • the allosteric activator causes a conformational change in the protein, thereby increasing the affinity for the ligand

-the allosteric activator does not cause a conformational change in the protein, but it decreases the ligand’s affinity.

  • the allosteric activator causes a conformational change in the protein, thereby decreasing the affinity for the ligand
A
  • the allosteric activator causes a conformational change in the protein, thereby increasing the affinity for the ligand
68
Q

where does the energy come from when ATP is broken down?

A

from the breaking of 2 phosphate groups

69
Q

The development of heart disease can be attributed to a diet high in saturated or unsaturated fats?

A

saturated

The fatty acids found in dietary fats are primarily saturated. Because these saturated fatty acids lack double bonds in their hydrocarbon chains, they can closely pack together and solidify at room temperature

70
Q

Which of the following would NOT form ionic bonds?

Na
Ca
C
K

A

C

carbon is not involved in ionic bonds

71
Q

Which of the following requires charged atoms or molecules to work?

covalent bonding
van der Waals interactions
ionic bonding
hydrogen bonding

A

ionic

72
Q

Compounds that have the general formula CH2O are

lipids
carbohydrates
proteins
nucleotides

A

carbs

73
Q

In oxidation-reduction reactions, the oxidized substance loses electrons and releases _____.

A

energy

74
Q

Organic compounds make up _____ percent of the human body?

25 - 48
38 - 44
55 - 60
95 - 100

A

38 - 44

75
Q

what is this: insoluble in water, do not taste sweet, storage and structural carbohydrates

A

polysaccharides

76
Q

a hydrocarbon chain with a carboxyl group attached is a/an

A

fatty acid

76
Q

Which of the following would be MOST likely to gain electrons in a chemical reaction?

hydrogen
potassium
chlorine
sodium

A

H

Hydrogen bonds result from the attraction of oppositely charged parts of molecules and would, therefore, be the most likely to gain electrons in a chemical reaction.

77
Q

The functional group SH is used to stabilize the structure of

A

proteins

78
Q

Identify the functional group ─COOH.

A

carboxyl

79
Q

Which of the following are double-ringed purines?

adenine and cytosine
adenine and guanine
cytosine and guanine
adenine and thymine

A

adenine and guanine

PURE AS GOLD

p = a + g

80
Q

The crystalline structure of NaCl is attributed to

A

the opposite charges of the Na and Cl ions

81
Q

If an atom has an atomic number of 9, which charge would be correct when the atom becomes an ion?

A

-1

has 7 valence e- and will therefor regain one more e- to complete that shell making the charge -1

82
Q

what holds together double-stranded DNA?

A

H bonds between nucleotides

83
Q

nucleoli / nucleolus

A

a spherical structure found in the cell’s nucleus whose primary function is to produce and assemble the cell’s ribosomes.

84
Q

blood is what tissue type?

A

blood is a liquid connective tissue

85
Q
A
86
Q

which connective tissue cell type secretes antibodies?

A

plasma cells

87
Q
A
88
Q
A
89
Q

which connective cell type is involved in the inflammatory response, producing histamine which works to dilate blood vessels?

A

mast cell

90
Q

oxidases add ______, kinases add _________, dehydrogenases remove _______, ATPases split ___, anhydrases remove _____, proteases break down ______, and lipases break down _______

A

oxidases add oxygen, kinases add phosphate, dehydrogenases remove hydrogen, ATPases split ATP, anhydrases remove water, proteases break down proteins, and lipases break down triglycerides

91
Q
  • when oxygen is present, all four phases occur: glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain
  • if oxygen is not available or is present at a low concentration, the pyruvic acid generated during glycolysis is converted to a substance called lactic acid
A

true

92
Q

The immune system recognizes cell-identity markers that are found on the plasma membrane. These markers are often made of

A

glycoproteins and glycolipids

93
Q

metabolic pathway

A

the situation where the product of one reaction is the substrate for the next reaction

94
Q

the process where lipids are broken down to make ATP

A

beta-oxidation

95
Q

To produce ATP, fatty acids are broken down for use in what process?

A

Krebs cycle

To produce ATP, fatty acids are broken down for use in the Krebs cycle. This is done through beta-oxidation with CoA in the mitochondrial matrix.

96
Q

where does the energy go that is released during catabolism?

A

40% of the energy is used for cellular functions. The remaining 60% is released as heat which helps with thermoregulation.

97
Q

Keto acids are a product of amino acid deamination. Which of the following might serve as a fate for keto acids?

A

pyruvic acid and Acetly-CoA

think abt ATP production thru cell resp, can me made into glucose or used to make fatty acids (acetly-coa first)

98
Q

What is the purpose of lipoproteins?

A

Lipoproteins transport cholesterol and other lipids

99
Q

what percentage of ATP in the body is allocated to active transport?

A

40%

100
Q

the more _____ a substance is, the more permeable it is across the lipid membrane

A

more HYDROPHOBIC

more hydrophobic = more lipid soluble

101
Q

T or F: exocytosis of substances such as hormones require energy from the breakdown of ATP?

A

true

exocytosis needs energy to allow larger molecule to leave the cell

102
Q

the mechanism that maintains low intracellular Ca2+ concentrations is _____ _______

A

active transport

103
Q
A

BIOL 230 (4 decks)

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