Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Kin 2600 > Midterm 1 > Flashcards

Midterm 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 11 organ systems?

A

Integumentary
Skeletal
Muscular
Nervous
Endocrine
Cardiovascular
Lymphatic
Respiratory
Digestive
Urinary
Reproductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At which level does microscopic anatomy turn into macroscopic anatomy?

A

Tissue level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List 6 types of anatomy

A

Embryology
Developmental
Regional
Surface
Systemic
Clinical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 2 cavities within the dorsal cavity?

A

Cranial and spinal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 3 cavities within the ventral cavity?

A

Thoracic
Abdominal
Pelvic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where are the 3 serous membranes found in the body and what are their function?

A

Pleural
Pericardial
Peritoneal
- reduce friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 3 components that make up a serous membrane?

A

Visceral and parietal wall
Cavity with fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 3 germ layers that body tissues are derived from?

A

Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are 3 functions of epithelial tissue?

A

Protection
Control permeability
Produce secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many layers make up the epidermis?

A

4 layers, but 5 in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is unique about the superficial layer of the epidermis? 3

A
  • multiple layers of dead cells
  • enucleated
  • large amounts of keratin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of epithelia tissue is the deep and superficial dermis layer made of?

A

Superficial: areolar connective tissue
Deep: irregular connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 4 functions of bones?

A
  • support and protection
  • movement
  • hemopoiesis
  • storage of minerals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 2 overall ways that bones are classified?

A
  • location
  • shape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the 7 shapes of bone?

A
  • flat
  • sutural
  • pneumatized
  • long
  • irregular
  • sesmoid
  • short bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Condyle

A

Large, smooth, rounded articulating surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Facet

A

Small, smooth, shallow articulating surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Trochlea

A

Smooth, grooved, pulley-like articular process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do alveolus, fossa, and sulcus all have in common?

A

They are depression structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the structural function of a crest?

A

Provides attachment points for ligament and tendon attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ramus

A

Angular extension of a bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Spine

A

Pointed, slender process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tubercle

A

Small, round projection for tendon and ligament attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tuberosity

A

Large, rough projection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What 3 regions is the axial skeleton divided into?

A

Skull & associated bones
Vertebral column
Thoracic cage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the 8 cranial bones?

A

Occipital
Parietal
Frontal
Temporal
Sphenoid
Ethmoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 14 facial bones?

A

Maxillae
Palantine bones
Nasal bones
Inferior nasal conchae
Zygomatic bones
Lacrimal bones
Vomer
Mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

List the divisions and amount of vertebrae in the vertebral column

A

C: 7
T: 12
L: 5
S: 5
C: 1-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the primary curves in the vertebral column? Why are they primary?

A

Thoracic and sacral
Present during fetal development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the secondary curves in the vertebral column?

A

Lumbar and cervical curves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Kyphosis

A

Humpback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Lordosis

A

Swayback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Characteristics of vertebrae 3

A
  • pads of fibrocartilage
  • separates vertebral bodies
  • acts as shock absorbers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Main characteristic of C1/Atlas

A
  • no body or spinous process
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Characteristics of the sacrum

A
  • supports the vertebral column
  • site of attachment b/w axial skeleton and lower appendicular skeleton
  • apex is the tapering inferior end which has a facet for coccyx articulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the thoracic cage comprised of?

A
  • sternum
  • ribs
  • costal cartilage
  • 12 thoracic vertebrae and intervertebral discs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the 2 functions of the thoracic cage

A
  • protection for contents of the thoracic cavity
  • support and attachment for pectoral girdle and muscles of respiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

List the rib numbers for the true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs

A

True: 1-7
False: 8-10
Floating: 11-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What makes up the appendicular skeleton?

A

Shoulder girdle
Upper limbs
Pelvic girdle
Lower limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the structures of the clavicle that connect the scapula and the manubrium?

A

Acromion process (scapula) and clavicular notch (manubrium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which side do the radius and ulna lie on?

A

Radius - thumb side
Ulna - pinky side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the function of the pelvic girdle?

A

Protects viscera
Protects fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
A

A: superciliary arch
B: supraorbital notch
C: supraorbital margin
D: frontal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
A

A: supraorbital notch
B: frontal air cells
C: orbital surface
D: notch for ethmoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
A

A: mastoid process
B: styloid process
C: n/a
D: zygomatic process
E: external acoustic meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
A

A: internal acoustic meatus
B: Petronius part of temporal bone
C: zygomatic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
A

A: sphenoid
B: mandibular fossa
C: carotid canal
D: jugular foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
A

A: greater wing
B: n/a
C: optic canal
D: superior orbital fissure
E: foramen rotundum
F: foramen ovale
G: foramen spinosum
H: sella turcica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
A

A: foramen rotundum
B: foramen ovale
C: foramen spinosum
D: foramen lacerum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
A

A: sphenoidal sinus
B: orbital surface of greater wing
C: pterygoid process
D: medial plate
E: lateral plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
A

A: crista galli
B: cribiform plate
C: orbital plate
D: perpendicular plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
A

A: frontal process
B: infra-orbital foramen
C: body
D: alveolar process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
A

A: maxillary sinus
B: alveolar process
C: palatine bone
D: palatal process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
A

A: perpendicular plate
B: horizontal plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
A

A: nasal bones
B: zygomatic bones
C: frontal process
D: inferior nasal concha
E: maxillary process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
A

A: zygomatic arch
B: temporal process
C: lacrimal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
A

A: head
B: coronoid process
C: mandibular foramen
D: alveolar process
E: body
F: head
G: mandibular notch
H: ramus
I: angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
A

A: greater horn
B: lesser horn
C: body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
A

A: hammer
B: anvil
C: stirrup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
A

A: frontal bone
B: parietal bone
C: anterior fontanel
D: occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
A

A: mastoid fontanel
B: sphenoidal fontanel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
A

A: body
B: transverse process
C: spinous process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
A

A: pedicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
A

A: vertebral arch
B: pedicle
C: transverse foramen
D: lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
A

A: intervertebral foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
A

A: bifid spinous process
B: transverse foramina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
A

A: Acetabular notch
B: acetabulum
C: obturator foramen
D: ischial spine
E: greater sciatic notch
F: posterior inferior iliac spine (PIIS)
G: gluteal line
H: anterior superior iliac spine
I: anterior inferior iliac spine
J: pubic tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
A

A: iliac fossa
B: accurate line
C: anterior inferior iliac spine
D: anterior superior iliac spine
E: iliac tuberosity
F: auricular surface
G: posterior superior iliac spine
H: posterior inferior iliac spine
I: greater sciatic notch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
A

A: superior pubic ramus
B: pectineal line
C: pubic tubercle
D: pubic symphysis
E: inferior pubic ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
A

A: inferior ramus of pubis
B: pubic tubercle
C: superior ramus of pubis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
A

A: greater trochanter
B: lesser trochanter
C: head
D: neck
E: intertrochanteric line
F: shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
A

A: linea apera
B: neck
C: greater trochanter
D: lesser trochanter
E: intertrochanteric crest
F: pectineal line
G: gluteal tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
A

A: lateral epicondyle
B: patellar surface
C: lateral condyle
D: medial epicondyle
E: medial condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
A

A: linea apera
B: popliteal surface
C: lateral condyle
D: lateral epicondyle
E: adductor tubercle
F: medial epicondyle
G: medial condyle
H: intercondylar fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
A

A: lateral tibial condyle
B: medial tibial condyle
C: tibial tuberosity
D: head of fibula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
A

A: lateral malleolus
B: fibulae notch
C: medial malleolus
D: fibula
E: tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
A

A: calcaneus
B: talus
C: cuboid
D: navicular
E: lateral cuneiform
F: medial cuneiform
G: medial cuneiform

78
Q
A

A: phalanges
B: metatarsals
C: tarsals
D: calcaneus
E: talus
F: cuboid
G: lateral cuneiform
H: navicular
I: intermediate cuneiform
J: medial cuneiform
K: proximal phalanx
L: middle phalanx
M: distal phalanx

79
Q
A

A: longitudinal arch
B: calcaneus
C: talus
D: navicular
E: cuneiform bone
F: metatarsals
G: sustenaculum tali

80
Q

What is the most mobile joint and least mobile joint?

A

Glenohumeral and sutural

81
Q

What are the 2 ways that joints are classified?

A

Structural (organization)
Functional (ROM)

82
Q

Synarthoses

A

Immovable joints

83
Q

What are the 3 synarthroses joint types?

A

Suture
Synostosis
Synchondrosis

84
Q

How are suture joints connected?

A

Fibrous tissue

85
Q

How are synostosis joints connected and what is one example?

A

Fusion of bones
Frontal suture

86
Q

What type of cartilage is found in synchondrosis joints?
Where are 2 places they are found?

A

Hyaline cartilage
1st rib and sternum & epiphyseal plates

87
Q

What is the movement capability of amphiarthroses joints?

A

Slightly moveable

88
Q

What are the three specific joint types within the amphiarthroses category?

A

Gomphosis
Syndesmosis
Symphysis

89
Q

Gomphosis

A

Between teeth and bone

90
Q

Syndesmosis

A

Interosseous ligament (radius and ulna & tibia and fibula)

91
Q

How are symphysis joints connected? Where are 2 places they are found?

A

Connected by a fibrocartilage pad
Between pubic bones or between vertebrae

92
Q

What is the most freely moving classification of joints?

A

Diarthroses

93
Q

What are the 4 main components of a diarthrosis joint?

A

Articular cartilage
Joint capsule
Joint cavity
Synovial membrane

94
Q

What is the function of the articular cartilage?

A

Protects and cushions
Assists in sliding

95
Q

What is the function of the joint capsule?

A

Provides some stability and limits to ROM

96
Q

What does the synovial membrane produce and what is its function?

A

Produces synovia (fluid)
Lubrication, protection, and nutrition

97
Q

What are the 5 accessory structures of diarthrosis joints?

A

Cartilage
Fat pads
Ligaments
Tendons
Bursae

98
Q

What are bursae?

A

Pockets of synovial fluid
Cushioning

99
Q

What are the 4 factors that affect ROM and stability of joints (diarthrosis)?

A

Structures of bone
Strength of joint capsule and ligaments
Surrounding musculature
Menisci

100
Q

What are 2 injuries that can occur to diarthrosis joints?

A

Dislocation (luxation)
Subluxation (partial dislocation)

101
Q

What are the 2 ways that diarthrosis joints are classified?

A

Shape of the surface
Type of movement permitted

102
Q

What are the 3 types of motion in diarthrosis joints?

A

Linear (gliding)
Angular movement
Rotation

103
Q

What kind of movement is seen in a gliding or plane joint?

A

Linear movement; side to side & back and forth

104
Q

What are 3 examples of a gliding or plane joint?

A

AC joint
Intercarpal joints
Intertarsal joints

105
Q

What is the motion of a hinge joint?

A

Angular, uniaxial

106
Q

What is unique about the shape of hinge joints? What is an example of a hinge joint?

A

Contains a concave and convex surface
Elbow joint

107
Q

What type of movement is seen in a pivot joint?

A

Rotation, uniaxial

108
Q

What is an example of a pivot joint?

A

Proximal & distal radioulnar joint

109
Q

What kind of movement and how many DOF is seen in condyloid (knuckle) joints?

A

Angular & biaxial

110
Q

What are 2 examples of condyloid joints?

A

Metacarpophalangeal
Radiocarpal

111
Q

Why are saddle joints named as such?

A

Because it is two saddle shaped surfaces on top of each other

112
Q

What is an example of a saddle joint?

A

First carpometacarpal joint (thumb)

113
Q

What type of movement and how many DOF is the ball-and-socket joint?

A

Angular; 3 DOF

114
Q

What are the 2 ways of describing movement?

A

Moving a bone or region & moving a joint

115
Q

Pterion

A

Junction of the frontal, parietal, sphenoid, and temporal bones

116
Q

What is the significance of the pterion articulation?

A

Weakest part of the skull, major artery underneath

117
Q

What is unique about the cartilage found at the temporomandibular joint?

A

It is covered with fibrocartilage rather than hyaline

118
Q

How is the temporomandibular joint separated and what does each compartment do?

A

Separated by fibrocartilage pad
Upper: plane movements
Lower: hinge movements

119
Q

What ligament reinforces the lower part of the TMJ?

A

lateral (temporomandibular) ligament

120
Q

What type of joint is the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Diarthrosis condyloid

121
Q

What movements are seen in the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Flexion/extension and slight lateral motion

122
Q

What are the supporting ligaments of the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Anterior & posterior atlanto-occipital ligament

123
Q

What type of joint is the atlantoaxial joint?

A

Diarthrosis

124
Q

What are the two types of movement seen in the atlantoaxial joint?

A

Pivot and plane

125
Q

What are the supporting ligaments of the atlantoaxial joint?

A

Anterior and posterior atlantoaxial ligament

126
Q

What are the two categories of joints found in the intervertebral articulations?

A

Diarthrosis plane: between facets
Amphiarthroses symphysis: between vertebral bodies

127
Q

What is the nucleus pulposus and where is it found?

A

It is a gelatinous core within the intervertebral disc

128
Q

What are the 5 intervertebral ligaments?

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Ligamentum flavum
Interspinous ligament
Supraspinous ligament

129
Q

What does the ligamentum flavum connect?

A

Laminae in the spine

130
Q

What does the interspinous ligament connect?

A

Spinous processes

131
Q

What is the supraspinous ligament continuous with above C7?

A

Ligamentum nuchae

132
Q

How are vertebrocostal joints divided and what type of joint are they both?

A

Costovertebral
Costotransverse
Diarthrosis plane

133
Q

What does the costovertebral section of the vertebrocostal joint connect?

A

Head of rib with vertebral body

134
Q

What does the costotransverse section of the vertebrocostal joint connect?

A

Tubercle of the rib with transverse processes

135
Q

What type of joint is the costochondral joint?

A

Synathrosis synchondrosis

136
Q

What type of joint is the interchondral joint?

A

Diarthrosis plane

137
Q

What is another name for sternocostal

A

Chondrosternal

138
Q

What type of joint is the sternocostal articulation between the sternum & cartilage of 1st rib and the sternum & cartilage of ribs 2-7?

A

1st rib: synarthrosis synchondrosis
2-7: diarthrosis plane

139
Q

What type of joint is the sternoclavicular joint?

A

Diarthrosis saddle

140
Q

What are the 4 extracapsular ligaments of the sternoclavicular joint?

A

Anterior & posterior sternoclavicular lig
Interclavicular lig
Costoclavicular lig

141
Q

What type of joint is the AC joint?

A

Diarthrosis plane

142
Q

What type of joint is the shoulder joint?

A

Diarthrosis ball-and-socket

143
Q

What does the stability of the glenohumeral joint depend on?

A

Joint capsule
Ligaments
Biceps and rotator cuff muscles
Glenoid labrum

144
Q

What are the 2 joints that make up the elbow joint?

A

Humeroulnar
Humeroradial

145
Q

What landmarks are involved in the humeroulnar joint?

A

Trochlea of humerus and trochlear notch of ulna

146
Q

What landmarks are involved in the humeroradial joint?

A

Capitulum of humerus and head of radius

147
Q

What are the 3 joints that connect the radius and ulna?

A

Superior radio-ulnar joint: diarthrosis pivot
Middle radio-ulnar joint: amphiarthrosis syndesmosis
Inferior radio-ulnar joint: diarthrosis pivot

148
Q

What forms the SI joint?

A

Auricular surface of the sacrum and ilium

149
Q

What type of joint is the SI joint?

A

Diarthrosis plane

150
Q

What are 4 ligaments found to reinforce the SI joint?

A

Anterior sacroiliac lig
Posterior sacroiliac lig
Sacrospinous lig
Sacrotuberous lig

151
Q

What 2 ligaments reinforce the pubic symphysis?

A

Superior & inferior pubic ligaments

152
Q

What is another name for the hip joint?

A

Coxal or acetabulofemoral joint

153
Q

What is one reason why the hip joint is very stable?

A

It has a large capsule

154
Q

What is the angle of inclination?

A

The angle that is formed between the shaft and neck of the femur

155
Q

What is the difference between coxa vara and coxa valga?

A

Coxa vara: too small of an angle
Coxa valga: too big of an angle; head of femur too high

156
Q

What are the 2 classifications of joints that make up the knee joint?

A

Condyloid (femur and tibia)
Plane (patella on femur)

157
Q

How are the ligaments of the knee joint classified?

A

Intrinsic and extrinsic

158
Q

How is the talocrural joint subdivided?

A

Tibiotalar articulation
Fibulotalar articulation

159
Q

What is the movement permitted by the ankle joint?

A

Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

160
Q

What does the long plantar ligament connect?

A

Calcaneus to the cuboid

161
Q

Where does the short plantar ligament run?

A

Calcaneus to the inferior surface of the cuboid

162
Q

What joints are responsible for inversion and eversion?

A

Talocalcaneal joint
Transverse tarsal joint

163
Q

What are the types of connective tissue?

A

Proper
Supporting
Fluid

164
Q

What are the two subcategories within connective tissue proper and what types of tissues make up each?

A

Loose
- areolar
- adipose
- reticular
Dense
- irregular
- regular
- elastic

165
Q

What are the 3 germ layers and a system that arises from each?

A

Ectoderm: Nervous system
Mesoderm: Muscular system
Endoderm: Endocrine

166
Q

What germ layer does epithelia arise from?

A

All 3

167
Q

What germ layer does connective and muscular tissue arise from?

A

Mesoderm

168
Q

What germ layer does nervous tissue arise from?

A

Ectoderm

169
Q

What are the 6 characteristics of epithelia tissue

A

No extracellular matrix b/w cells
Polarity
Attachment to basement membrane
Avascular
Innervation
High regeneration capacity

170
Q

What are the 3 functions of epithelial tissue?

A

Physical protection
Control permeability
Produce secretions

171
Q

What is the least specialized type of loose connective tissue proper?

A

Areolar tissue

172
Q

What does dense irregular connective tissue proper form in the body?

A

Periosteum, perichondrium, joint and organ capsules

173
Q

What does elastic connective tissue proper form in the body?

A

Walls of blood vessels

174
Q

Where are chondrocytes found in the cartilage and what is their purpose?

A

They are found within the lacuna and they prevent the formation of blood vessels

175
Q

What is the most common and weakest type of cartilage?

A

Hyaline

176
Q

What are the 3 types of cartilage

A

Hyaline
Elastic
Fibrous

177
Q

Where can hyaline cartilage be found?

A

Synovial joints
B/w ribs and sternum

178
Q

Where can elastic cartilage be found?

A

Epiglottis

179
Q

Where can fibrous cartilage be found?

A

Menisci of knee
Pubic symphysis

180
Q

What is the extracellular matrix of bone made of? 2

A

Collagen and calcium salts

181
Q

What is the function of the axial skeleton? 3

A

Supports and protects organs
Protects special sense organs
Attachment site for muscles

182
Q

What arch of the foot is most important in shock absorption and is also the highest arch?

A

The medial longitudinal arch

183
Q

What makes up the transverse arch of the foot?

A

The cuneiforms, cuboid, and base of metatarsals

184
Q

What type of joints are within the synarthrosis category?

A

Suture
Synostosis
Synchondrosis

185
Q

What joints are within the amphiarthorsis?

A

Gomphosis
Syndesmosis
Symphysis

186
Q

What are the joint types within the diarthrosis category?

A

Hinge
Ball-and-socket
Pivot
Saddle
Condyloid/knuckle
Gliding/plane

187
Q

What are the 2 movements that the temporomandibular joint perform?

A

Upper: plane (translational)
Lower: hinge (rotational)

188
Q

What type of joint is the atlanto-occipital joint?

A

Diarthrosis condyloid

189
Q

What are the two types of joints seen in the spine (intervertebral articulations)?

A

Diarthrosis plane (b/w facets)
Amphiarthrosis symphysis b/w vertebral bodies

190
Q

What are the 2 articulations seen in the vertebrocostal joints?

A

Both diarthrosis
- costovertebral
- costotransverse

191
Q

What are the 2 joint types that make up the knee joint?

A

Condyloid: tibiofemoral
Plane: patella on femur

192
Q

What type of joints are the 3 areas between the tibia and fibula (superior, middle, and inferior)?

A

Superior: diarthrosis plane
Middle: amphiarthrosis syndesmosis
Inferior: diarthrosis plane

Kin 2600 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions