Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A. Pathophysiology 1 / Spring 2014 > miderm study guide > Flashcards

miderm study guide Flashcards

0
Q

MCHC is related to the _____ of RBCs

A

color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

MCV is related to _____ of RBCs

A

size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

RDW is related to the _____ of RBCs

A

shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what do we call the percentage of a person’s blood that consists of RBCs

A

hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the borderline percentages for men and women as diagnostic criteria for anemia

A

men < 40

women < 37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

why is hct count higher for men

A

because of the higher levels of androgen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do we diagnose for inflammation

A

look at ESR rates for C-reactive protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

EPO comes from what organ

A

KD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

if cells are small and pale, we call this

A

microcytic and hypochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the most common type of anemia

A

iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what do we suspect is going on inside the body if one has iron deficiency anemia

A

chronic bleeding (undiagnosed blood loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are typical presentations of iron deficiency anemia

A

pica, pagophagia, koilonychia, bare tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how do we diagnose for iron deficiency anemia

A

TIBC test

test will come back low - rbcs are pale and small (micrcytic and hypocromic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which two forms of anemia include macrocytic or megaloblastic cells

A

folate deficiency anemia & B12 deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which form of anemia will we see neurological difficulties

A

B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what happens if we mistake B12 deficiency anemia for folate deficiency anemia and treat with folate supplementation?

A

the anemia itself may improve but the neurological deficits in the patient due to the B12 deficiency will worsen and or become irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when RBCs are large this is what kind of a problem

A

DNA problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when RBCs are small, this is what kind of a problem

A

hemoglobin problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what type of anemia is pernicious anemia

A

deficient formation B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is the pathogenesis for pernicious anemia

A

auto-immune atrophic gastritis causing poor absorption of B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

if we suspect pernicious anemia, what would we suggest the patient do? what would we ask them?

A

Ask them about their digestion and send them to a GI specialist for an endoscopy. We can also use a hemogram and immunology exam as a diagnostic tool.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

sickle cell anemia results in…

A

premature hemolysis of cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the pathogenesis of sickle cell anemia

A

hemolysis with thrombosis and ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

if we see a high level of reticulocytes, what does this indicate

A

there are not enough RBCs and the person is experiencing hypoxia
we also suspect chronic bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

if we see bandemia, what does this indicate

A

acute bacterial infection unless proven otherwise.

could also be from burns, pregnancy, etc…but have to diagnose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

red bone marrow can be found within which type of bones

A

flat bones of axial skeleton - skull, ribs, sternum, pelvis, spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the #1, 2, & 3 reasons for lymphocytosis

A 
#1 acute viral infection
#2 auto immune disorder
#3 cancers (will see signs of fatigue, sudden nose bleeds, rashes, bruises...etc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

dehydration, profuse diaphoresis, emesis, diarrhea, heat exhaustion, burns and vomiting are all related to which kind of polycythemia

A

relative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

renal cell carcinoma is related to which kind of polycythemia

A

absolute - secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

polycythemia rubra vera is associated with which kind of polycythemia

A

absolute - primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

bone marrow malignancy is associated with which type of polycythemia

A

absolute - primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

smoking, chronic CO or CO2 poisoning are associated with which kind of polycythemia

A

absolute - secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the most common hemophilia

A

hemophilia A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

hemophilia A is a deficiency of…

A

factor XIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

hemophilia B is a deficiency of…

A

factor IX

christmas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how do we diagnose hemophilia or other bleeding disorders

A

with plasmaelectrophoesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the most common genetic bleeding disorder

A

von willebrand disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

which type of leukemia is responsible for 80% of all childhood leukemias

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which form of leukemia is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells are found in what kind of lymphoma

A

Hodgkin’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how do we diagnose for Non-Hogkin’s and Hogkin’s

A

Non-Hogkins: CBC & Hemogram; this lymphoma is in blood

Hogkins: biopsy of lymph node or bone marrow; can’t do a blood test because this is a solid cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the most common cause of L CHF

A

systemic arterial HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is the most common cause of R CHF

A

1 left CHF, followed by cor pulmonale

43
Q

what is the pathogenesis of portal HTN

A

chronic smoking –> COPD –> pulmonary HTN = stagnation in RT HT = cor pulmonale –> LV is compromised –> portal HTN

44
Q

cor pulmonale

A

R CHF due to COPD

45
Q

when there is no medical cause found to explain one’s high blood pressure, we call this:

A

essential/primary/idiopathic hypertension

46
Q

when high blood pressure is a result of another condition, we call this:

A

secondary hypertension

47
Q

what is the most common cause of secondary hypertension

A

KD pathology

48
Q

If we have a young patient with HTN, would we suspect primary or secondary HTN?

A

We would suspect secondary HTN. We would have to investigate the underlying cause because most of the time young people who develop HTN have an underlying pathology.

49
Q

what are major risk factors for ischemic heart disease

A 
male
age
family history
htn
high LDL
smoking
diabetes mellitus
50
Q

if a person feels squeezing, crushing and heavy chest pain, we suspect…

A

stable angina pectoris

51
Q

sudden chest pain (spasm-like) is related to which type of ischemic heart diease

A

prinzmetal angina

52
Q

what are the 3 diagnostic tools for MI

A

ECG
cardiac enzymes: troponin, creatine, MB
clinical presentation

53
Q

what is the most common complication after an MI

A

reactive preicarditis - due to POST MI; inflammation spills into pericardium

54
Q

if a patient experiences sharp, stabbing pain worse when lying down, we suspect:

A

pericardial pathology

55
Q

a chronic auto-immune disease due to/triggered by streptococcal infection is…

A

rheumatic fever

56
Q

what type of shock:

low volume of blood/failure of fluids

A

hypovolemic

57
Q

what type of shock:

heart cannot pump due to pericarditis, myocarditis, or MI; failure of the pump

A

cardiogenic

58
Q

what type of shock:

blood being redistributed and returned to HT is sluggish; failure of the tubes

A

distributive

59
Q

what category of shock are septic and anaphylactic

A

distributive

60
Q

what are the causes of atherosclerosis

A

high levels of LDL and endothelial inflammation

61
Q

how do we diagnose atherosclerosis

A

angiogram

62
Q

how do we remove blood or fluids due to pericardial effusion

A

pericardiocentesis

63
Q

pulse pressure =

A

systolic - diastolic

64
Q

128/85 vs 140/90

A 
128/85 = prehypertensive
140/90 = beginning of HTN
65
Q

S1 is sound of…

A

closure of atrioventricular valves - systole

66
Q

S2 is sound of…

A

closure of semilunar valves - diastole

67
Q

the amount if time it takes for the atria to depolarize

A

P wave

68
Q

wave of depolarization going through the ventricles

A

QRS wave

69
Q

repolarization of ventricles

A

T wave

70
Q

Arrhythmia Blocks:
1st
2nd
3rd

A

1st: PR interval is extended
2nd: 1 QRS complex will be randomly missed
3rd: several QRS complexes will be missed in a row

71
Q

serious, chaotic beating of ventricles

A

ventricular fibrillations

72
Q

irregularly-irregular rhythm, common in geriatric patients, can lead to stroke and MI

A

atrial fibrillations

73
Q

what is the most common type of cardiomyopathy

A

dilated

74
Q

is preload increased or decreased in the following types of cardiomyopathy:
dilated
hypertrophic
restrictive

A

dilated - increased
hypertrophic - decreased
restrictive - decreased

75
Q

why do people have ectopic arrythmias

A

because of hypoxia

76
Q

what are the causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

40% we do not know; the other 60% is familial, increased where there is alcoholism, diabetes, pregnancy, and those on anti-cancer meds

77
Q

narrowing of the root of the pulmonary artery as it departs from the right ventricle

A

pulmonary stenosis

78
Q

the root of the aorta is positioned over the septal inter-ventricular defect

A

dextra-position of the aorta (aka: overriding aorta)

79
Q

what are the 4 heart malformations associated with tetralogy of fallot

A

pulmonary stenosis
hypertrophy of the right ventricle
inter-ventricular foramen (right to left shunt)
dextra-position of the aorta

80
Q

inter-ventricular foramen (right to left shunt) - what kind of blood is moving in what direction?

A

deoxygenated blood is moving from the right side of the heart into the left side circulation

81
Q

what is the major source of pulmonary embolism

A

DVT (deep venous thrombosis)

82
Q

what is this disease? recurring inflammation and thrombosis of small and medium arteries and veins of the hands and feet?
strongly associated with smoking

A

Buerger’s disease AKA thromboangitis obliterans

83
Q

1,2, 3, 4 site of aneurysms

A 
# 1 circle of willis
# 2 abdominal aorta
# 3 thoracic aorta
# 4 popliteal artery
84
Q

what conditions are likely to put someone in danger of rupture or infection associated with aneurysms

A

systemic arterial hypertension & adult polycystic kidney disease

85
Q

decrease in BP upon changing from supine to upright position

A

orthostatic hypotension

86
Q

what is the difference between portal HTN and systemic arterial HTN?

A

portal - amongst the system of portal veins: GI tract and lower extremities (venous circulation)

systemic - arterial circulation

87
Q

location of KDs

A

retroperitoneal and extend anywhere from T12-L3 (L4 on right side bc of liver)

88
Q

filtering unit of the KD

A

glomerulus

89
Q

part of the KD where electrolytes and minerals are reabsorbed

A

proximal convoluted tubule

REMEMBER ALDOSTERONE HERE

90
Q

in what part of the KD is urine concentrated and diluted

A

loop of henle

91
Q

which parts of the KD reabsorb water

A

distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

REMEMBER ADH HERE FOR DCT

92
Q

what is the best index of GFR

A

serum creatinine

93
Q

specific gravity

A

concentration of urine / concentration of plasma

measures how well the tubules are concentrating urine

94
Q

what should the normal urinary output be

A

700mL - 2L per 24 hours

95
Q

which hormone makes tubules able to absorb more sodium in proximal convoluted tubule by sodium potassium pump

A

aldosterone

96
Q

what are normal constituents of urine

A

bilirubin, electrolytes, ammonia, hormones, creatinine, epithelium

97
Q

what are abnormal constituents in urine

A

proteins, glucose, formed elements of blood, albumins

98
Q

adult polycystic kidney disease is classified as:

A

an autosomal dominant disorder

99
Q

what are the most common kinds of KD stones

A

calcium oxalate stones

100
Q

what are the #1 and #2 causes of calcium oxalate stones

A 
#1 hypercaliurea --> too much Ca+ in urine (unexplained by bio-med)
#2 hypercalcemia --> too much Ca+ in blood -
(caused by: hyperfunction of parathyroid gland or cancer)
101
Q

struvite stones are produced by and contain

A

urea-splitting bacteria

magnesium, ammonium, phosphate stones

102
Q

difference in appearance between calcium stones and struvite stones

A

calcium stones are opaque

struvite stones are translucent and mushy

103
Q

what is the major cause of UTIs

A

obstruction of stones in urinary tract

104
Q

what are the clinical presentations of acute nephrolithiasis

A

renal colic - colicky pain; “loin to groin”

stones are moving with obstruction to urinary tract

A. Pathophysiology 1 / Spring 2014 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions