MID TERM Flashcards
The cellular uptake of the nutrient cholesterol depends on which process?
c. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
With a mucous glands so creates a new substance from previously observed material, this process is known ass which specialized cellular function?
D . Secretion
What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?
b. Albumin
What is the effect of low plasma albumin?
d. Osmotic pressure decreases; thus water moves from the capillaries to the interstitium.
- What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?
c. 100 to 120
What does the student learn about erythrocytes?
C.. Erythrocytes have the ability to change shape to squeeze through microcirculation.
- What are granulocytes that contain granules of vasoactive amines, such as histamine, called?
d. Basophils
- Which of these are formed elements of the blood that are not cells but are disk-shaped cytoplasmic fragments essential for blood clotting?
b. Platelets
What are blood cells that differentiate into macrophages known as?
a. Monocytes
Without prior exposure to an antigen, which cells are able to destroy some types of tumor cells and some virus-infected cells?
D.. Natural killer (NK) cells
What is the life span of platelets (in days)?
A.10
Fetal hematopoiesis occurs primarily in which structure?
b. Spleen
What is the consequence of a splenectomy?
c. The number of defective cells in circulation increases
A professor explains to a class that the reason lymph nodes enlarge and become tender during infection is because of what reason?
a. B lymphocytes proliferate.
Which hemoglobin is made from oxidized ferric iron (Fe3+) and lacks the ability to bind oxygen?
c. Methemoglobin
A patient has pernicious anemia and asks the healthcare professional to explain the disease. Which statement by the professional is most accurate?
b. Your body cannot absorb vitamin B12.
By which structure are mature erythrocytes removed from the bloodstream?
. D.Spleen
A patient has chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure. What substance does the healthcare professional tell the patient is needed to treat this anemia?
b. Erythropoietin
What is the role of thromboxane A (TXA2) in the secretion stage of hemostasis?
c. Stimulates platelet aggregation.
Which of these is the role of nitric oxide (NO) in hemostasis?
d. Controls platelet activation through in concert with prostacyclin.
The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes?
a. Inhibiting thrombin and antithrombin III (AT-III)
What is plasmin’s role in the clotting process?
d. Degrades the fibrin within blood clots.
Soon after birth, a newborn has cord blood drawn which shows hemoglobin of 28.2 mg/dL. What does the healthcare professional understand about this finding?
a. The baby suffered from hypoxia in utero.
Where are Kupffer cells located?
b. Liver
The student learns that Langerhans cells are only found in which organ?
a. Skin
What does the student learn about the role of collagen in the clotting process?
b. Activates platelets
Which form of iron (Fe) can be used in the formation of normal hemoglobin
b. Fe2+
What change to the hematologic system is related to age?
b. Lymphocyte function decreases
What is the function of erythrocytes?
a. Tissue oxygenation
What term is used to describe the capacity of some erythrocytes to vary in size, especially in relationship to some anemias?
c. Anisocytosis
What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia?
c. Hypoxia
The paresthesia that occurs in vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is a result of which of these?
b. Myelin degeneration in the spinal cord
- Which of these describes how the body compensates for anemia?
a. Increasing rate and depth of breathing
Which of these classified as a megaloblastic anemia?
b. Pernicious
The students learn that deficiencies in folate and vitamin B12 alter the synthesis of which of these?
c. DNA
A patient has defective secretion of the intrinsic factor leading to anemia. What treatment option does the healthcare professional discuss with the patient?
b. Vitamin B12 injections initially given once a week
After a person has a subtotal gastrectomy for chronic gastritis, which type of anemia will result?
d. Pernicious
Which condition resulting from untreated pernicious anemia (PA) is fatal?
c. Heart failure
How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured?
a. Reticulocyte count
A healthcare professional has educated a student on folic acid. Which statement by the student indicates that more teaching is needed?
a. Folic acid absorption is dependent on the enzyme folacin
Which anemia produces small, pale erythrocytes?
c. Iron deficiency
A patient in the healthcare clinic reports fatigue, weakness, and dyspnea, as well as pale conjunctiva of the eyes and brittle, concave nails. What assessment by the healthcare professional is most appropriate for the suspected anemia?
b. Oral mucus membranes and tongue
A healthcare professional in an urban clinic is seeing a patient who has iron deficiency anemia (IDA). What question by the professional is most appropriate to assess for the cause of IDA?
b. “Have you ever noticed any blood in your stool?”
A healthcare professional works with recent refugees. A mother brings in her children who have been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. What action by the professional is most appropriate?
b. Arrange to test for parasitic infections.
A patient has hepatomegaly, bronze-colored skin, and cardiac dysrhythmias. What condition does the healthcare professional prepare to teach the patient about?
c. Hereditary hemochromatosis
A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s laboratory results and sees that the patient has a low reticulocyte count and a high iron level. Which type of anemia does the professional associate these findings with?
a. Folate deficiency anemia
In aplastic anemia (AA), pancytopenia develops as a result of what?
b. Suppression of the bone marrow to produce adequate amounts of erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes
A student asks the professor what the most common pathophysiologic process is that triggers aplastic anemia (AA). What response by the professor is most accurate?
a. Autoimmune disease against hematopoiesis by activated cytotoxic T (Tc) cells
An allogenic bone marrow transplantation remains the preferred method for treating which anemia?
b. Aplastic
What does the student learn about warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
c. Erythrocytes are bound to macrophages and sequestered in the spleen.
A student asks the professor to explain the jaundice that accompanies hemolytic anemia. Which statement is by the professor is most accurate?
b. Heme destruction exceeds the liver’s ability to conjugate and excrete bilirubin.
Shortened erythrocyte life span, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia?
c. Anemia of chronic disease
A patient has polycythemia vera and presents to the Emergency Department with plethora and neurological changes. The student asks the healthcare professional to explain the primary cause of these symptoms. What response by the professional is best?
c. Increased blood viscosity
What does treatment for polycythemia vera involve?
a. Therapeutic phlebotomy and radioactive phosphorus
An adult patient has been hospitalized with thrombocytopenia with a platelet count of 8000/mm3. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
a. Tell the patient not to get out of bed without assistance.
A patient in the hospital has been receiving heparin injections. The platelet count on admission was 222,000/mm3 and four days later is 113,000/mm3. What action by the healthcare professional is best?
c. Switch the heparin to lepirudin
A patient is 8 hours postoperative after a long orthopedic procedure. The student asks why this patient is at particular risk of developing a thromboembolism. What response by the healthcare professional is best?
a. Patients tend to have venous stasis from orthopedic operations.
A patient has been hospitalized for a large deep vein thrombosis and states he is the third person in his family to have this condition in the last 2 years. What response by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
b. “We can test your blood for factor V Leiden.”
In infectious mononucleosis (IM), what does the Monospot test detect?
b. Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
A patient has been diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) and asks the healthcare professional to describe it. What description by the professional is most accurate?
a. ALL is a progressive neoplasm defined by the presence of greater than 30% lymphoblasts in the bone marrow or blood.
Which description is consistent with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?
d. The translocation of genetic material from genes 9 and 22 creates an abnormal, fused protein identified as BCR-ABL1.
A patient is admitted to the hospital with multiple myeloma (MM). Which diagnostic test should the healthcare professional assess as the priority?
b. Serum calcium level
Local signs and symptoms of Hodgkin disease-related lymphadenopathy are a result of what?
b. Pressure and obstruction
Which virus is associated with Burkitt lymphoma in African children?
d. Epstein-Barr virus
A hospitalized patient’s lab work is as follows: WBC 2000, bands 14.8%, and segmented neutrophils 5. The healthcare professional calculates the patient’s absolute neutrophil count ANC). What action does the professional take next?
a. Implements protocols to prevent life-threatening infections
. A person has been diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) that is positive for the Philadelphia chromosome. What statement by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
c. “We are planning to get your disease in remission, but it will be hard.
A person comes to the healthcare clinic and reports night sweats and fever. The healthcare professional obtains a chest x-ray which shows a mediastinal mass. What other assessment or diagnostic test does the professional provide as a priority?
a. Listen to heart sounds.
- What is the cause of polycythemia in the fetus?
c. Increased erythropoiesis occurs in response to the hypoxic intrauterine environment.
Why does fetal hemoglobin have a greater affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin?
c. Fetal hemoglobin interacts less readily with diphosphoglycerate (DPG), which inhibits hemoglobin-oxygen binding.
Which blood cell type is elevated at birth and through the preschool years, but decreases to adult levels afterward?
a. Monocytes
In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days.
b. 60 to 80
What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children?
b. Iron deficiency
How does hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) cause acquired congenital hemolytic anemia?
b. HDFN is an alloimmune disease in which the mother’s immune system produces antibodies against fetal erythrocytes, which are recognized as foreign and removed from circulation.
How is erythroblastosis fetalis defined
b. Alloimmune disease in which maternal blood and fetal blood are antigenically incompatible
A newborn displays pallor, tachycardia, and has a systolic murmur. What hemoglobin value does the healthcare professional correlate with these manifestations?
d. 5 g/dL
A child has iron deficiency anemia. In addition to iron supplements, what else does the healthcare professional educate the parents on giving the child?
c. Vitamin C
Which mother does the healthcare professional prepare to administer Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) to?
b. Is Rh-negative and the fetus is Rh-positive
When diagnosed with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN), why does the newborn develop hyperbilirubinemia after birth but not in utero?
a. Excretion of unconjugated bilirubin through the placenta into the mother’s circulation is no longer possible.
The healthcare professional is caring for a woman whose baby died of hydrops fetalis. How does the professional explain this condition to a student?
d. Severe intrauterine anemia that leads to edema of the entire body
What is the name of the disorder in which levels of bilirubin remain excessively high in the newborn and are deposited in the brain?
a. Kernicterus
An infant was born with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN). What treatment does the healthcare professional anticipate for this baby?
b. Replacement transfusion of Rh-positive blood not contaminated with anti-Rh antibodies
The healthcare professional explains to a student that glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is what type of inherited disorder?
b. X-linked recessive
A healthcare professional is teaching a community group about inherited disorders. What pattern of inheritance does the professional describe for sickle cell disease?
b. Inherited autosomal recessive disorder
Hemoglobin S (HbS) is formed in sickle cell disease as a result of which process?
c. Genetic mutation in which one amino acid (glutamate) is replaced by another (valine).
A child has sickle cell disease (SCD). What treatment or therapy does the healthcare professional discuss with the parents and child?
a. Hydroxyurea
Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are associated with sickle cell disease (SCD) in children?
b. Edema of the hands and feet
A couple who both carry the sickle cell trait wish to have children. What does the healthcare professional tell them is the chance that each pregnancy will result in a child who has sickle cell disease (SCD)?
b. 25%
A patient has microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Which type of treatment or procedure does the healthcare professional discuss as a potential cure with the patient?
a. Cord blood transplantation
A patient has thalassemia major. After receiving multiple blood transfusions over the last several months, what complication does the healthcare professional assess the patient for?
a. Hemochromatosis
. The alpha- and beta-thalassemias are considered what types of inherited disorder?
a. Autosomal recessive
Hemophilia B is caused by a deficiency of which clotting factor?
c. IX
A student asks the professor why hemophilia A is seen mostly in men. The professor explains that hemophilia A is considered to be what type of inherited disorder?
c. X-linked recessive
Which disease is an autosomal dominant inherited hemorrhagic disease?
b. von Willebrand disease
A patient has primary immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) and is hospitalized after a bleeding episode. What treatment does the healthcare provider anticipate being ordered for this patient?
b. Infusion of IVIG
When does fetal erythrocyte production shift from the liver to the bone marrow?
b. Fifth month of gestation
A healthcare professional educates parents to monitor their child’s dietary intake for sufficient iron during which period of time as the priority
b. Between 6 months and 2 years
A patient has leukemia. The healthcare professional explains to a patient about the significance of hyperdiploidy. What statement by the professional is most accurate?
a. It indicates a good prognosis.
What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?
c. Cilia
Which term is used to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs?
b. Ventilation
When an individual aspirates food particles, where would the healthcare professional expect to hear decreased or absent breath sounds?
b. Right lung
Air passage among alveoli is collateral and evenly distributed because of the function of which structures?
b. Pores of Kohn
Where in the lung does gas exchange occur?
c. Alveolocapillary membrane
Surfactant produced by type II alveolar cells facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by which mechanism?
c. Decreasing surface tension in the alveoli
Which part of the brainstem provides basic automatic rhythm of respiration by sending efferent impulses to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles?
b. Ventral respiratory group (VRG)
Which structures secrete surfactant?
b. Type II alveolar cells
Which describes the pressure in the pleural space?
b. Below atmospheric
A healthcare professional wants to determine the adequacy of a person’s alveolar ventilation. What assessment finding is most important for the professional to consider?
d. Arterial blood gas shows a PaCO2 of 44 mmHg.
Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system?
c. Stiffening of the chest wall
How is most of the oxygen in the blood transported?
b. Bound to hemoglobin
Stretch receptors and peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to which location in the brain?
c. Dorsal respiratory group (DRG) in the medulla oblongata
If a patient develops acidosis, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to react in which manner?
a. Shift to the right, causing more oxygen (O2) to be released to the cells
The sternocleidomastoid and scalene muscles are referred to as which group?
d. Accessory muscles of inspiration
A newborn has alveolar collapse, decreased lung expansion, increased work of breathing, and severe gas-exchange abnormalities and the student asks the healthcare professional for an explanation of what is happening. What response by the professional is best?
D.. Lack of surfactant leading to increased alveolar surface tension and fluid collection
The student asks the professor to explain what characteristic is demonstrated by lungs with decreased compliance?
c. Stiffness
The lung is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve?
a. Vagus
What event is characteristic of the function in Zone 1 of the lung?
c. The capillary bed collapses, and normal blood flow ceases.
Hypoventilation that results in the retention of carbon dioxide will stimulate which receptors in an attempt to maintain a normal homeostatic state?
b. Central chemoreceptors
What is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction?
a. Low alveolar partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2)
A healthcare professional tells the student that a properly placed endotracheal tube for mechanical ventilation is 5 to 7 cm above the tracheal bifurcation. Where does this bifurcation occur?
c. Carina
How low must the partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) drop before the peripheral chemoreceptors influence ventilation?
c. Below 70 mmHg
Which receptors are located in the smooth muscles of airways?
b. Stretch receptors
. Which receptors are located near the respiratory center?
c. Central chemoreceptors
. Which receptors are located in the aortic bodies, aortic arch, and carotid bodies?
d. Peripheral chemoreceptors
A patient is having a spirometry measurement done and asks the healthcare professional to explain this test. What response by the professional is best?
b. To measure the volume and flow rate during forced expiration
Besides dyspnea, what is the most common characteristic associated with pulmonary disease?
c. Cough
A patient reports needing to sit up at night in order to breathe. What term does the healthcare professional document about this condition?
b. Orthopnea
Kussmaul respirations as a respiratory pattern may be associated with which characteristic(s)?
d. Slightly increased ventilatory rate, large tidal volumes, and no expiratory pause
Respirations that are characterized by alternating periods of deep and shallow breathing are a result of which respiratory mechanism?
a. Decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata
A hospitalized patient is complaining of shortness of breath, but the student does not notice cyanosis. The patient’s hemoglobin is 9 g/dL, so the student asks the healthcare professional to explain. The professional tells the student that what amount of hemoglobin must be desaturated before cyanosis occurs?
b. 5
What does the student learn about ventilation?
c. Hyperventilation causes hypocapnia.
A patient has long-standing pulmonary disease and chronic hypoxia. The student assesses the patient’s fingertips and notices bulbous enlargement of the distal segment of the digits. How does the student document this finding?
b. Clubbing
The student asks the healthcare professional to explain how pulmonary edema and pulmonary fibrosis cause hypoxemia. What description by the professional is best?
d. Impairs alveolocapillary membrane diffusion
High altitudes may produce hypoxemia through which mechanism?
c. Decreased inspired oxygen
Which condition is capable of producing alveolar dead space?
b. Pulmonary emboli
A patient has pulmonary edema. For what condition should the healthcare professional assess the patient as the priority?
b. Left-sided heart failure
A patient has a pulmonary capillary wedge pressure of 30mmHg. What assessment finding by the healthcare professional would be most consistent with this reading?
b. Pink, frothy sputum
A patient has a lung problem caused by dysfunction in the pores of Kohn. What action by the healthcare professional is best?
c. Have the patient do breathing exercises.
In what form of bronchiectasis do both constrictions and dilations deform the bronchi?
a. Varicose
A patient is brought to the Emergency Department with a gunshot wound to the chest. The healthcare professional assesses an abnormality involving a pleural rupture that acts as a oneway valve, permitting air to enter on inspiration but preventing its escape by closing during expiration. What action by the healthcare professional is the priority?
b. Assist with a chest tube insertion.
. A patient has a transudative pleural effusion but has minimal symptoms. What action by the healthcare professional is best?
c. Facilitate a blood draw to check protein stores.
Which condition involves an abnormally enlarged gas-exchange system and the destruction of the lung’s alveolar walls?
b. Emphysema
A patient has been diagnosed with pneumoconiosis and asks the healthcare professional to explain this disease. What description by the professional is best?
b. Inhalation of inorganic dust particles
A patient has been diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). For what other health condition should the healthcare professional assess this patient for as the priority?
b. Pneumonia
Which structure(s) in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) release inflammatory mediators such as proteolytic enzymes, oxygen-free radicals, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and platelet-activating factor?
d. Neutrophils
Pulmonary edema in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is the result of an increase in what?
b. Capillary permeability
In acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), alveoli and respiratory bronchioles fill with fluid as a result of which mechanism?
c. Inactivation of surfactant and the impairment of type II alveolar cells
Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a volume of air?
b. Obstructive
Which immunoglobulin (Ig) may contribute to the pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma?
b. IgE
A healthcare professional is educating a patient about asthma. The professional states that good control is necessary due to which pathophysiologic process?
b. Uncontrolled inflammation leads to increased bronchial hyperresponsiveness and eventual scarring.
A patient comes to the Emergency Department with inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea. What treatment does the healthcare professional anticipate for this patient as the priority?
d. Inhaled bronchodilator
A healthcare professional is educating a patient on asthma. The professional tells the patient that the most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with which action?
a. Avoidance of the causative agent
. Which factor contributes to the production of mucus associated with chronic bronchitis?
c. Increased Goblet cell size
A patient with emphysema comes to the clinic and reports increased, productive cough. What diagnostic test should the healthcare professional facilitate as the priority?
a. Chest x-ray
A patient has been diagnosed with primary emphysema but claims there is no history of smoking. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
a. Facilitate genetic testing on the patient.
Which of these is the most common route of lower respiratory tract infection?
a. Aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions
A patient has recently been diagnosed with emphysema. What initial step in management of this disease does the healthcare professional discuss with the patient?
c. Cessation of smoking
The student asks a professor to explain how tuberculosis (TB) can remain dormant in some people. What explanation by the professor is best?
b. The bacilli can become isolated within tubercles in the lungs.
Pulmonary artery hypertension (PAH) results from which alteration?
a. Narrowed pulmonary capillaries
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is best described as a tumor that causes which alterations?
b. Pneumonia and atelectasis
A patient is diagnosed with a pneumothorax and asks the healthcare professional to explain this condition. What statement by the professional is most accurate?
b. Air in the pleural space
A patient has been diagnosed with an empyema. What does the healthcare professional tell the patient about this condition?
a. We will have to drain the pus out of your pleural space.
Fluid in the pleural space characterizes which condition?
a. Pleural effusion
A patient has silicosis. Which medication classification does the healthcare professional educate the patient about?
a. Corticosteroids
What medical term is used for a condition that results from pulmonary hypertension, creating chronic pressure overload in the right ventricle?
d. Cor pulmonale
Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants?
a. Infants are obligatory nose breathers
The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation?
d. 30 and 36 weeks
A healthcare professional is educating a community parent group and informs them that which type of croup is most common?
b. Viral
What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
c. Surfactant deficiency
What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
c. Atelectasis
Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by what type of infection?
a. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?
c. IgE
Which T-lymphocyte phenotype is the key determinant of childhood allergic asthma?
b. CD4 T-helper Th2 lymphocytes
A student asks the healthcare professional why researchers are trying to link specific genes to specific asthma phenotypes. What response by the professional is best?
c. It can lead to personalized approaches to treatment
Which statement by the healthcare professional accurately describes childhood asthma?
a. An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
A 7 year-old-child presents to the clinic where parents report signs and symptoms consistent with asthma. What does the healthcare professional do in order to confirm this diagnosis?
c. Measure expiratory flow rate with spirometry testing
Which statement by the professor best describes acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
b. A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and the presence of bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray imaging
When assessing for the signs and symptoms of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the absence of which condition is considered characteristic?
d. Heart failure
. Parents bring a 5-year-old to the Emergency Department and report sudden onset of high fever, drooling, and they describe a “hot potato voice.” What action by the healthcare professional takes priority?
b. Allow the child to remain in the parent’s lap.
Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?
c. Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferen
Parents of a child with cystic fibrosis want to know the chance of their next baby having this disease. What response by the healthcare professional is most accurate?
a. Each child will have a 25% chance of having the disease.
What abnormalities lead to the mucus plugging seen in children with cystic fibrosis (CF)?
c. Defective chloride secretion and excess sodium absorption thicken the mucus.
Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur?
b. 2 and 4
What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children?
b. Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
Which statement best describes the cellular function of metabolic absorption?
c. Cells can take in and use nutrients
Where is most of a cell’s genetic information, including RNA and DNA, contained?
c. Nucleolus
Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidative reaction?
b. Peroxisomes
Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury?
d. Lysosomes
Which cAMP-mediated response is related to antidiuretic hormone?
c. Increased retention of water
During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized?
b. S
What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps?
c. Proteins
Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases?
b. Autoimmune and malignant disorders
Which structure prevents water-soluble molecules from entering cells across the plasma membrane?
d. Lipid bilayer
. A student asks for an explanation of the absolute refractory period of the action potential. What response by the professor is best?
b. No stimulus is able to evoke another response at this time.
Which form of cell communication is used to communicate within the cell itself and with other cells in direct physical contact?
b. Plasma membrane-bound signaling molecules
Which mode of chemical signaling uses blood to transport communication to cells some distance away?
d. Hormonal
Which mode of chemical signaling uses local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized?
A. Paracrine
Neurotransmitters affect the postsynaptic membrane by binding to which structure?
d. Receptors
How do cells receive communication from the extracellular fluid surrounding them
d. Chemical messengers such as ligands
Which molecule provides the second messenger necessary for extracellular communication to be activated?
b. Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
Under anaerobic conditions, what process provides energy for the cell?
b. Glycolysis
What is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids is transferred to adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
Passive transport is best described with which statement?
a. Being driven by osmosis, hydrostatic pressure, and diffusion
Which is the best example of active transport?
b. Movement requiring the expenditure of metabolic energy
Which method of transport uses transmembrane proteins with receptors with a high degree of specificity for the substance being transported?
b. Mediated
The movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary is an example of which fluid movement process?
a. Hydrostatic pressure
A student asks why osmolality is preferred over osmolarity as the measurement of osmotic activity in the clinical assessment of individuals. What response by the professor is most accurate?
c. More of the weight of plasma is influenced by solutes rather than by water.
A patient who has diarrhea receives a 3% saline solution intravenously to replace the sodium and chloride lost in the stool. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells? a
c. Shrink
The transport of glucose from the blood to the cell is accomplished by which process?
d. Mediated transport
What transports potassium and sodium across plasma membranes?
c. Adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) enzyme
What occurs during exocytosis?
a. Macromolecules can be secreted across eukaryotic cell membranes
The cellular uptake of the nutrient cholesterol depends on which process?
c. Receptor-mediated endocytosis
What causes the rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action potential?
b. Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive.
The action of platelet-derived growth factor is to stimulate the production of which cells?
c. Connective tissue cells
What role do cytokines play in cell reproduction?
a. Provide growth factor for tissue growth and development
What is the process of cellular reproduction?
c. Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, have been formed.
Which statement is true about eukaryotic cells?
b. They contain compartments called organelles.
Which statement is true about phagocytosis?
c. Phagocytosis involves the ingestion of bacteria.
A muscle cell possesses which specialized function?
a. Movement
When a mucous gland cell creates a new substance from previously absorbed material, this process is known as which specialized cellular function?
d. Secretion
All cells are capable of what process?
a. Excretion
What is the best description of cell cycle arrest?
a. The cell cycle is stopped due to damaged DNA.
Which type of cell adaptation occurs when normal columnar ciliated epithelial cells of the bronchial lining have been replaced by stratified squamous epithelial cells?
b. Metaplasia
What does the loss of the adenosine triphosphate (ATP) during ischemia cause cells to do?
c. Swell because of the influx of sodium chloride (NaCl)
The mammary glands enlarge during pregnancy primarily as a consequence of what hormonal process?
b. Hyperplasia
Free radicals play a major role in the initiation and progression of which diseases?
a. Cardiovascular diseases such as hypertension and ischemic heart disease.
How do free radicals cause cell damage?
d. Giving up an electron, which causes injury to the chemical bonds of the cell membrane
What is a consequence of plasma membrane damage to the mitochondria?
b. Influx of calcium ions halts ATP production.
What is a consequence of leakage of lysosomal enzymes during chemical injury?
a. Enzymatic digestion of the nucleus and nucleolus occurs, halting DNA synthesis
Lead causes damage within the cell by interfering with the action of what?
c. Calcium
A health professions student asks the professor to explain apoptosis. What response is most accurate?
a. Programmed cell death
A healthcare professional is assessing a child whose parents report poor grades in school, trouble paying attention, and “naughty” behaviors that have become so frequent the child is always in trouble. For which health condition should the professional facilitate testing?
b. Lead poisoning
A student asks why carbon monoxide causes tissue damage. What response by the professor is best?
b. Binds to hemoglobin so that it cannot carry oxygen
A healthcare professional is working with a person who drinks several 6-packs of beer a week. What testing does the professional encourage the person to get?
a. Hepatic function
During cell injury caused by hypoxia, why does an increase in the osmotic pressure within the cell occur?
c. Sodium chloride enters the cell.
Which statement is true regarding the difference between subdural hematoma and epidural hematoma?
c. A subdural hematoma is often the result of shaken baby syndrome, whereas an epidural hematoma rapidly forms as a result of a skull fracture.
A healthcare professional is working at the health tent during a marathon. A runner is brought to the tent complaining of nausea and weakness. What is the first thing the professional should do?
b. Have the person lie down.
In hypoxic injury, why does sodium enter the cell and cause swelling?
b. ATP is insufficient to maintain the pump that keeps sodium out of the cell.
What is the most common site of lipid accumulation?
c. Liver
What mechanisms occur in the liver cells as a result of lipid accumulation?
b. Increased synthesis of triglycerides from fatty acids and decreased synthesis of apoproteins
Hemoprotein accumulations are a result of the excessive storage of what?
a. Iron, which is transferred from the cells to the bloodstream
A patient suffered multiple traumatic injuries and received many blood transfusions within a few days of the injuries. For which medical condition should the healthcare professional monitor the patient for?
c. Hemosiderosis
What is the cause of free calcium in the cytosol that damages cell membranes by uncontrolled enzyme activation?
d. Depletion of ATP normally pumps calcium from the cell.
What two types of hearing loss are associated with noise?
a. Acoustic trauma and noise-induced
What type of necrosis results from ischemia of neurons and glial cells?
b. Liquefactive
What type of necrosis is often associated with pulmonary tuberculosis?
b. Caseous
What type of necrosis is associated with wet gangrene?
b. Liquefactive
After ovulation, the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen. This process is an example of what hormonal process?
a. Hyperplasia
What is the abnormal proliferation of cells in response to excessive hormonal stimulation?
d. Pathologic hyperplasia
Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing which compensatory process?
c. Hyperplasia
What is the single most common cause of cellular injury?
a. Hypoxic injury
In decompression sickness, emboli are formed by bubbles of what?
b. Nitrogen
. Which is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure?
c. DNA aberrations
What is dysplasia?
c. Modification in the shape of a specific cell type
Why are infants most susceptible to significant losses in total body water?
c. Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses
Why does obesity create a greater risk for dehydration in people?
a. Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
A patient’s blood gases reveal the following findings: pH 7.3; bicarbonate (HCO3) 27 mEq/L; carbon dioxide (CO2) 58 mm Hg. What is the interpretation of these gases?
c. Respiratory acidosis
Water movement between the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment and the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is primarily a function of what?
a. Osmotic forces
In addition to osmosis, what force is involved in the movement of water between the plasma and interstitial fluid spaces?
d. Hydrostatic pressure
