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Chapter 38 39 40 24 25. 26 And 27 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the area of the kidneys that contains the glomeruli and portions of the tubules called?

A

a. Medulla
b. Cortex *****
c. Pyramids
d. Columns

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2
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney called?

A

a. Glomerulus
b. Nephron *****
c. Collecting duct
d. Pyramid

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3
Q

What is the only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area called?

A

a. Proximal convoluted tubules ***
b. Distal tubules
c. Ascending loop of Henle
d. Descending loop of Henle

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4
Q

What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?

A

a. Macula densa
b. Visceral epithelium
c. Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) ****
d. Filtration slits

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5
Q

Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves?

A

a. Peripheral nerves
b. Parasympathetic fibers ****
c. Sympathetic nervous system
d. Tenth thoracic nerve roots

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6
Q

How much urine accumulates in the bladder before the mechanoreceptors sense bladder fullness?

A

a. 75 to 100 mL
b. 100 to 150 mL
c. 250 to 300 mL ***
d. 350 to 400 mL

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7
Q

What is the trigone?

A

a. A smooth muscle that comprises the orifice of the ureter
b. The inner mucosal lining of the kidneys
c. A smooth triangular area between the openings of the two ureters and the urethra *****
d. One of the three divisions of the loop of Henle

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8
Q

The glomerular filtration rate is directly related to which factor?

A

a. Perfusion pressure in the glomerular capillaries ****
b. Diffusion rate in the renal cortex
c. Diffusion rate in the renal medulla
d. Glomerular active transport

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9
Q

On average, what percent of cardiac output do the kidneys receive?

A

a. 10% to 20%
b. 15% to 20%
c. 20% to 25% *****
d. 30% to 35%

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10
Q

What are blood vessels of the kidneys innervated by?

A

a. Vagus nerve
b. Sympathetic nervous system **
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system

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11
Q

When renin is released, it is capable of which action?

A

a. Inactivation of autoregulation
b. Direct activation of angiotensin II
c. Direct release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d. Formation of angiotensin I **

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12
Q

A student asks the professor to explain what effect natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates. Which response by the professor is best?

A

a. Stimulates antidiuretic hormones
b. Inhibits antidiuretic hormones
c. Stimulates renin and aldosterone
d. Inhibits renin and aldosterone****

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13
Q

What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?

A

a. Sodium retention
b. Sodium excretion **
c. Water retention
d. Water excretion

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14
Q

What term is used to identify the movement of fluids and solutes from the tubular lumen to the peritubular capillary plasma?

A

a. Tubular secretion
b. Ultrafiltration
c. Tubular reabsorption ****
d. Tubular excretion

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15
Q

A patient’s urinalysis came back positive for glucose. What does the healthcare professional expect the patient’s blood glucose to be at a minimum?

A

a. 126 mg/dL
b. 150 mg/dL
c. 180 mg/dL **
d. 200 mg/dL

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16
Q

Which hormone is required for water to be reabsorbed in the distal tubule and collecting duct?

A

a. Antidiuretic hormone ***
b. Aldosterone
c. Cortisol
d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

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17
Q

Which glycoprotein protects against urolithiasis?

A

a. Uromodulin ***
b. Nephrin
c. Urodilatin
d. Cystatin

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18
Q

What is the end product of protein metabolism that is excreted in urine?

A

a. Glucose
b. Ketones
c. Bile
d. Urea ****

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19
Q

What is the action of urodilatin?

A

a. Urodilatin causes vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles.
b. It causes vasodilation of the efferent arterioles.
c. Urodilatin inhibits antidiuretic hormone secretion.
d. It inhibits salt and water reabsorption.*****

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20
Q

The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?

A

a. Posterior pituitary ***
b. Thyroid
c. Parathyroid
d. Anterior pituitary

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21
Q

What does the healthcare professional understand about urodilatin?

A

a. Urodilatin inhibits sodium chloride and water reabsorption in the medullary part of the collecting duct.
Hey
b. It inhibits antidiuretic hormone (ADH) to prevent water reabsorption in the medullary part of the collecting duct.
c. Urodilatin is stimulated by a rise in blood pressure and an increase in extracellular volume. *******
d. It is stimulated by a fall in blood pressure and a decrease in extracellular volume

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22
Q

What substance stimulates renal hydroxylation in the process of producing vitamin D?

A

a. Erythropoietin
b. Thyroid hormone
c. Calcitonin
d. Parathyroid hormone*****

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23
Q

Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys?

A

a. Antidiuretic hormone
b. Aldosterone
c. Erythropoietin****
d. Angiotensinogen

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24
Q

The student wants information about a patient’s renal function. What test does the healthcare professional tell the student to evaluate?

A

a. Glomerular filtration rate **
b. Hourly urine output
c. Serum blood urea nitrogen and creatinine
d. The specific gravity of the solute concentration of the urine

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25
Q

Which renal change is found in older adults?

A

a. Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
b. Sharp decline in renal blood flow
c. Decrease in the number of nephrons ***
d. Decrease in urine output

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26
Q

A healthcare professional is caring for an older adult. Understanding age-related renal changes, what urinalysis finding would the professional view as normal for an older patient?

A

a. pH 5.2
b. Moderate protein
c. Specific gravity 1.003****
d. Positive for white cell casts

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27
Q

What process allows the kidney to respond to an increase in workload?

A

a. Glomerular filtration
b. Secretion of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3
c. Increased heart rate
d. Compensatory hypertrophy *****

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28
Q

Which process makes it possible for ureters to be transplanted successfully?

A

a. Compensatory hypertrophy
b. Erythropoietin secretion
c. Peristalsis *******
d. Collateral circulation

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29
Q

How does progressive nephron injury affect angiotensin II activity?

A

a. Angiotensin II activity is decreased.
b. Angiotensin II activity is elevated. ****
c. Angiotensin II activity is totally suppressed.
d. Angiotensin II activity is not affected.

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30
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with a renal stone. Based on knowledge of common stone types, what self-care measure does the healthcare professional plan to teach the patient when stone analysis has returned?

A

a. Increase water intake.
b. Decrease soda intake.
c. Restrict animal protein in the diet.
d. Ingest 1000 mg of calcium a day.*******

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31
Q

The student asks the professor to explain the role of pyrophosphate, potassium citrate, and magnesium in the formation of kidney stones. What response by the professor is best?

A

a. They inhibit crystal growth. ***
b. They stimulate the supersaturation of salt.
c. They facilitate the precipitation of salts.
d. They enhance crystallization of salt crystals

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32
Q

Hypercalciuria is primarily attributable to which alteration?

A

a. Defective renal calcium reabsorption
b. Intestinal hyperabsorption of dietary calcium **
c. Bone demineralization caused by prolonged immobilization
d. Hyperparathyroidism

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33
Q

Detrusor hyperreflexia develops from neurologic disorders that originate where?

A

a. Spinal cord between C2 and C4
b. Spinal cord between S2 and S4
c. Above the pontine micturition center **
d. Below the cauda equina

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34
Q

A patient has overactive bladder syndrome. Which classification of drug does the healthcare professional plan to teach the patient about?

A

a. B-Adrenergic blocking medications
b. a-Adrenergic blocking medications ***
c. Parasympathomimetic medications
d. Anticholinesterase medications

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35
Q

Bladder cancer is associated with the gene mutation of which gene?

A

a. c-erbB2
b. Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)
c. TP53 *******
d. myc

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36
Q

A female patient has been diagnosed with an uncomplicated urinary tract infection. What self care measure does the healthcare provider teach the patient that is specific to this type of infection?

A

a. Drink at least eight glasses of water a day.
b. Take medication if you have a fever.
c. Rest as much as you can in the next few days.
d. After using the bathroom, wipe from front to back.****

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37
Q

A healthcare professional is assessing a patient who could have either pyelonephritis or cystitis. Which differentiating sign would assist the professional in making this diagnosis?

A

a. Difficulty starting the stream of urine
b. Spasmodic pain that radiates to the groin
c. Increased glomerular filtration rate
d. Urinalysis confirmation of white blood cell casts ***

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38
Q

An 85-year-old person has a urinary tract infection. What clinical manifestation does the healthcare professional expect to see in this person?

A

a. Confusion and poorly localized abdominal discomfort ***
b. Dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain
c. Hematuria and flank pain
d. Pyuria, urgency, and frequency

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39
Q

Pyelonephritis is usually caused by which type of organism?

A

a. Bacteria ***
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Parasites

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40
Q

Which abnormal laboratory value is found in glomerular disorders?

A

a. Elevated creatinine concentration***
b. Low blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
c. Elevated immunoglobulin A (IgA)
d. Low serum complement

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41
Q

Which glomerular lesion is characterized by thickening of the glomerular capillary wall with immune deposition of immunoglobulin G (IgG) and C3?

A

a. Proliferative
b. Membranous **
c. Mesangial
d. Crescentic

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42
Q

Goodpasture syndrome is an example of which of these?

A

a. Antiglomerular basement membrane disease **
b. Acute glomerulonephritis
c. Chronic glomerulonephritis
d. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy

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43
Q

A patient exhibits symptoms including hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria exceeding 3 to 5 g/day, with albumin as the major protein. What diagnostic test or treatment regime does the healthcare professional educate the patient on?

A

a. Intravenous pyelogram
b. Oral antibiotics
c. Renal biopsy **
d. Cyclophosphamide

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44
Q

Hypothyroidism, edema, hyperlipidemia, and lipiduria characterize which kidney disorder?

A

a. Nephrotic syndrome *******
b. Acute glomerulonephritis
c. Chronic glomerulonephritis
d. Pyelonephritis

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45
Q

A patient who has a history of mildly decreased renal function is admitted to the hospital for IV antibiotics. Which antibiotics would the healthcare professional avoid in this patient?

A

a. Penicillin and ampicillin
b. Vancomycin and bacitracin
c. Gentamicin and tobramycin *****
d. Cefazolin and cefepime

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46
Q

Which urine characteristics are indicative of acute tubular necrosis (ATN) caused by intrinsic (intrarenal) failure?

A

a. Urine sodium >30 mEq/L ****
b. Urine osmolality >500 mOsm
c. Fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) <1%
d. Urine sediment has no cells, some hyaline casts

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47
Q

How are glucose and insulin used to treat hyperkalemia associated with acute renal failure?

A

a. Glucose has an osmotic effect, which attracts water and sodium, resulting in more dilute blood and a lower potassium concentration.
b. When insulin transports glucose into the cell, it also carries potassium with it.**
c. Potassium attaches to receptors on the cell membrane of glucose and is carried into the cell.
d. Increasing insulin causes ketoacidosis, which causes potassium to move into the cell in exchange for hydrogen.

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48
Q

Creatinine is primarily excreted by glomerular filtration after being constantly released from what type of tissue?

A

a. Nervous system
b. Kidneys
c. Muscle **
d. Liver

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49
Q

A professor has taught a student about skeletal alterations seen in chronic kidney disease. Which statement by the student indicates the professor needs to give more information?

A

a. Parathyroid hormone is no longer effective in maintaining serum phosphate levels.
b. The parathyroid gland is no longer able to secrete sufficient parathyroid hormone. *****
c. The synthesis of 1,25-vitamin D3, which reduces intestinal absorption of calcium, is impaired.
d. The effectiveness of calcium and phosphate resorption from bone is impaired.

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50
Q

A patient who has chronic kidney disease has hemoglobin of 7.2 mg/dL. What treatment does the healthcare professional prepare the patient for?

A

a. Intrinsic factor
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin D
d. Erythropoietin ***

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51
Q

When the right kidney is obstructed, how will the glomeruli and tubules in the left kidney compensate?

A

a. Increase in number
b. Increase in size ****
c. Develop collateral circulation
d. Increase speed of production

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52
Q

What medical term is used to identify a functional urinary tract obstruction caused by an interruption of the nerve supply to the bladder?

A

a. Neurogenic bladder **
b. Obstructed bladder
c. Necrotic bladder
d. Retrograde bladder

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53
Q

The functional kidney is associated with which embryonic organ?

A

a. Metanephros**
b. Mesonephros
c. Pronephros
d. Endonephros

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54
Q

When does urine formation and excretion begin?

A

a. At birth
b. By 3 months’ gestation ***
c. By 6 months’ gestation
d. By 8 months’ gestation

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55
Q

Compared with an adult, an infant has a greater content of extracellular fluid, as well as a greater rate of fluid exchange. What effect does this have on the fluid balance of a child compared with that of an adult?

A

a. Edema development is less of a problem.
b. Overhydration is not difficult to manage.
c. Daily fluid requirements are greater.
d. The control of dehydration is more difficult.****

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56
Q

What term is used to identify the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is located on the undersurface of the penis?

A

a. Hypospadias ****
b. Epispadias
c. Hyperspadias
d. Chordee

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57
Q

What initiates inflammation in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

a. Lysosomal enzymes
b. Endotoxins from Streptococcus
c. Immune complexes *******
d. Immunoglobulin E (IgE)–mediated response

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58
Q

Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) may be accompanied by a positive throat or skin culture for which bacteria?

A

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Streptococcus ****
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Haemophilus

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59
Q

A child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is voiding smoky, brown-colored urine and asks the healthcare professional to explain what causes it. What explanation by the professional is best?

A

a. Presence of red blood cells ***
b. Presence of urobilinogen
c. Slough from the collecting tubules
d. Protein in the urine

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60
Q

In immunoglobulin G (IgG) nephropathies such as glomerulonephritis, IgG is deposited in which location?

A

a. Juxtamedullary nephrons
b. Glomerulus basement membranes *******
c. Mesangium of the glomerular capillaries
d. Parietal epithelium

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61
Q

What is the pathophysiologic process responsible for the autoimmune disorder of hemolyticuremic syndrome (HUS)?

A

a. Immunoglobulin A (IgA) coats erythrocytes that are destroyed by the spleen, and remnants are excreted through the kidneys.
b. Verotoxin from Escherichia coli is absorbed from the intestines and damages erythrocytes and endothelial cells. ****
c. Endotoxins from E. coli block the erythropoietin produced by the kidneys, which reduces the number of erythrocytes produced by the bone marrow.
d. Failure of the nephron to filter urea increases the blood urea nitrogen, which binds to erythrocytes that are subsequently destroyed by the spleen.

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62
Q

What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children?

A

a. Periorbital edema *******
b. Scrotal or labial edema
c. Frothy urine
d. Ascites

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63
Q

Bacteria gain access to the female urinary tract by which means?

A

a. Systemic blood that is filtered through the kidney
b. Bacteria traveling from the lymph adjacent to the bladder and kidneys
c. Bacteria ascending the urethra into the bladder**
d. Colonization of the bladder when urine is static

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64
Q

What causes vesicoureteral reflux to occur in children?

A

a. Children do not ask for help in urinating in a timely manner, and urine is forced up into the ureters.
b. The submucosal segment of a child’s ureter is short, making the antireflux mechanism inefficient. **
c. The trigone lying between the opening to the ureters and the urethra is underdeveloped in children.
d. As the bladder fills in infants and children, it pulls the smooth lining of the transitional epithelium away from the ureters, making the reflux valves ineffective.

65
Q

What is the mechanism for developing Wilms tumor?

A

a. It involves tumor-suppressor genes located on chromosome 11. ***
b. Development involves an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern.
c. Wilms tumor is an autoimmune disorder.
d. The development of a Wilms tumor is a congenital anomaly.

66
Q

Which anomaly is often associated with Wilms tumor?

A

a. Renal anaplasia
b. Aniridia ***
c. Anemia
d. Hypothyroidism

67
Q

A healthcare professional has taught a parent group about the causes of enuresis. What statement by a parent indicates the professional needs to give more information?

A

a. A maturational lag may cause enuresis.
b. Enuresis may be related to increased light sleep.
c. Obstructive sleep apnea may be a symptom of enuresis.
d. Elevated nocturnal levels of vasopressin may cause enuresis. *******

68
Q

When does an individual have their full complement of renal nephrons?

A

a. At birth***
b. At 6 months of age
c. At puberty
d. Between the ages 18 and 21 years

69
Q

The initial reproductive structures of the male and female embryos appear the same until which week of gestation?

A

a. Third
b. Seventh *******
c. Twentieth
d. Thirtieth

70
Q

The absence of which major hormone is a determinant of sexual differentiation (Wolffian system) in utero?

A

a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Growth hormone
d. Testosterone *******

71
Q

Which gland produces the associated hormones that are found in high levels in a female fetus?

A

a. Posterior pituitary excretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
b. Hypothalamus excretes luteinizing hormone (LH) and gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
c. Anterior pituitary produces follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). **
d. Hypothalamus excretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) and folliclestimulating hormone (FSH).

72
Q

A mother reports that her young teens have voracious appetites. The healthcare professional would explain that which hormone is linked to an increase in appetite during puberty?

A

a. Inhibin
b. Leptin ***
c. Activin
d. Follistatin

73
Q

The Skene glands are located on either side of which structure?

A

a. Introitus
b. Urinary meatus ****
c. Clitoris
d. Vestibule

74
Q

What is the function of the mucus secreted by the Bartholin glands?

A

a. Enhancement of the motility of sperm ***
b. Lubrication of the urinary meatus and vestibule
c. Maintenance of an acid-base balance to discourage infection
d. Enhancement of the size of the penis during intercourse

75
Q

Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?

A

a. The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8.
b. A thin squamous epithelial lining develops.
c. Vaginal pH becomes more acidic. **
d. Estrogen levels are low.

76
Q

What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty?

A

a. It becomes thinner.
b. It becomes thicker. **
c. It assumes a neutral pH.
d. It undergoes atrophy.

77
Q

Which structure is lined with columnar epithelial cells?

A

a. Perimetrium
b. Endocervical canal ***
c. Myometrium
d. Vagina

78
Q

Where is the usual site of fertilization of an ovum?

A

a. Trumpet end of the fallopian tubes
b. Fimbriae of the fallopian tubes
c. Ampulla of the fallopian tubes***
d. Os of the fallopian tubes

79
Q

Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?

A

a. Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina.
b. Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus.
c. Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus.
d. Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina. *******

80
Q

Having ejected a mature ovum, what does the ovarian follicle develop into?

A

a. Atretic follicle
b. Theca follicle
c. Corpus luteum ****
d. Functional scar

81
Q

The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?

A

a. IgA **
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

82
Q

A surge of which hormone causes the corpus luteum to produce progesterone?

A

a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone *******
c. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
d. Estrogen

83
Q

What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?

A

a. Gradual decrease in estrogen levels
b. Sudden increase of LH *******
c. Sharp rise in progesterone levels
d. Gradual increase in estrogen levels

84
Q

Which anatomic structure secretes follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?

A

a. Hypothalamus
b. Ovaries
c. Anterior pituitary ***
d. Adrenal cortex

85
Q

A woman attempting to conceive tells the healthcare professional that she and her partner have intercourse when her basal body temperature (BBT) is around 37C (98F) without getting pregnant. What information does the professional give the woman?

A

a. Maybe you need a fertility workup.
b. That’s a normal temperature, but during ovulation BBT decreases.
c. Temperature alone is not the most accurate way to predict ovulation. ****
d. BBT rises consistently above 37.8C (100F) with ovulation.

86
Q

What structure in the male lies posterior to the urinary bladder?

A

a. Seminal vesicles****
b. Prostate glands
c. Cowper glands
d. Parabladder glands

87
Q

When do penile erections begin?

A

a. Before birth ****
b. Shortly after birth
c. Shortly before puberty
d. After puberty

88
Q

What does the student learn regarding the major difference between male and female sex hormone production?

A

a. Luteinizing hormone has no apparent action in a man.
b. In a man, sex hormone production is relatively constant.*******
c. Estradiol is not produced in a man.
d. In a man, gonadotropin-releasing hormone does not cause the release of follicle stimulating hormone

89
Q

Where in the male body does spermatogenesis occur?

A

a. Epididymis
b. Rete testis
c. Seminiferous tubules *******
d. Vas deferens

90
Q

A healthcare professional is discussing breast feeding with a pregnant woman. Which beneficial substance does the professional tell the mother is found in breast milk?

A

a. IgA ***
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgM

91
Q

Which hormone promotes the development of the lobular ducts in the breasts?

A

a. Progesterone
b. Prolactin
c. Oxytocin
d. Estrogen****

92
Q

What causes the vasomotor flushes (hot flashes) that are associated with declining ovarian function with age?

A

a. Decreased estrogen levels
b. Absence of estrogen
c. Increased estrogen levels
d. Rapid changes in estrogen levels ***

93
Q

When does the male body begin to produce sperm?

A

a. Before birth
b. Shortly after birth
c. At puberty **
d. When erection is possible

94
Q

The human zygote has a total of how many chromosomes?

A

a. 23
b. 25
c. 46***
d. 50

95
Q

Which hormone promotes the development of testosterone in both males and females?

A

a. Progesterone
b. Prolactin****
c. Oxytocin
d. Estrogen

96
Q

Which hormone relaxes the myometrium and prevents lactation until the fetus is born?

A

a. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
b. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
c. Progesterone ****
d. Estrogen

97
Q
  1. In the majority of children experiencing delayed puberty, what is the problem caused by?
A

a. Disruption in the hypothalamus
b. Disruption of the pituitary
c. Deficit in estrogen or testosterone
d. Physiologic delays in maturation***

98
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in girls?

A

a. Breast enlargement *****
b. Growth of pubic hair
c. Menstruation
d. Vaginal discharge

99
Q

Which type of precocious puberty causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex?

A

a. Mixed ****
b. Partial
c. Isosexual
d. Central

100
Q

A person has been diagnosed with primary dysmenorrhea and wants to know why ibuprofen is a good choice for pain control. What response by the health care professional is best?

A

a. “It inhibits the release of leukotrienes in your system.”
b. “It reduces the production of prostaglandins in your body.” **
c. “It enhances the effects of bradykinin release.”
d. “It contributes to a higher C reactive protein in your blood.”

101
Q

A woman has been diagnosed with compartment II primary amenorrhea. The healthcare professional helps prepare the woman for what type of diagnostic testing?

A

a. Genetic testing ****
b. CT scan of the anterior pituitary
c. Blood work for hypothalamic function
d. Vaginal speculum exam

102
Q

Which condition is considered a clinical cause of amenorrhea?

A

a. Disorder in the endometrium
b. Obstruction of the fallopian tubes
c. Lack of physical exercise
d. Failure to ovulate ***

103
Q

Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?

A

a. Premenstrual syndrome
b. Abnormal uterine bleeding ***
c. Polycystic ovary syndrome
d. Primary dysmenorrhea

104
Q

A woman has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome but is confused because her pelvic ultrasound (US) was read as “normal” and did not show cysts. What response by the health care professional is most appropriate?

A

a. “We will schedule another US in 3 months to check again.”
b. “The cysts may be too small to see right now.”
c. “Maybe that diagnosis was incorrect; let’s schedule more testing.”
d. “You do not need to have cysts on your ovaries to have this condition.”*******

105
Q

A woman reports bloating, anxiety, irritability, and feeling depressed before each of her monthly menstrual cycles. What medication classification does the healthcare professional educate this woman on?

A

a. NSAIDs
b. Estrogen
c. SSRIs****
d. Progesterone

106
Q

A student is learning about pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). What information does the student clarify with a study partner as being correct?

A

a. An episode of mild PID can decrease the possibility of a successful pregnancy by 80%.
b. Such an inflammation results in permanent changes to the ciliated epithelium of the fallopian tubes. **
c. PID has not been associated with an increased risk of an ectopic pregnancy.
d. Contracting this infection increases the risk of cervical cancer.

107
Q

A healthcare professional reads in a woman’s chart that she has a grade 2 uterine prolapse. What assessment finding does the professional correlate with this condition?

A

a. Uterus halfway to the hymen
b. Uterus reaches the hymen *******
c. Uterus protruding from the vagina
d. Uterus and rectum protruding

108
Q

Which term is used to identify the descent of the posterior bladder and trigone into the vaginal canal?

A

a. Rectocele
b. Vaginocele
c. Cystocele **
d. Enterocele

109
Q

What type of cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated but no dominant follicle develops and completes the maturity process?

A

a. Follicular
b. Corpus luteum
c. Corpus albicans
d. Benign ovarian *****

110
Q

Which term is used to identify benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium and are commonly called uterine fibroids?

A

a. Endometrial polyps
b. Myometrial polyps
c. Leiomyomas *****
d. Myometriomas

111
Q

What theory is used to describe the cause of endometriosis?

A

a. Obstruction within the fallopian tubes prevents the endometrial tissue from adhering to the lining of the uterus.
b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones.**
c. Inflammation of the endometrial tissue develops after recurrent sexually transmitted diseases.
d. Endometrial tissue lies dormant in the uterus until the ovaries produce sufficient hormone to stimulate its growth.

112
Q

In order to help prevent a preadolescent girl from developing later cervical cancer, which virus does the healthcare professional recommend vaccination against to the parent?

A

a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) ****
b. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
c. Herpes simplex II virus (HSV)
d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

113
Q

A woman has been diagnosed with cervical carcinoma in situ and asks the healthcare professional to explain it to her. What description by the professional is best?

A

a. It involves the full epithelial thickness of the cervix. **
b. It involves abnormal cells growing on the cervix.
c. It is when cancer has spread to the peritoneum.
d. It is when only the top layer of the cervix is affected.

114
Q

Which factor increases the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40 years?

A

a. Never having children ***
b. Oral contraceptive use
c. Multiple pregnancies
d. Prolonged lactation

115
Q

Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after how many months of unprotected intercourse with the same partner?

A

a. 6
b. 12 ***
c. 18
d. 24

116
Q

A woman has been diagnosed with galactorrhea. Which condition would the healthcare provider be least likely to assess the woman for?

A

a. Proliferation of the lactiferous ducts of the breast****
b. Hypothyroidism, resulting from a decrease in thyroid-releasing hormone
c. Excess prolactin secretion from the pituitary
d. Drugs such as phenothiazines

117
Q

A woman’s chart reveals she has superficial breast cysts. What assessment finding does the healthcare professional correlate with this condition?

A

a. Hard, painful lump
b. Reddened skin surrounding the lump
c. Squishy feeling and easily palpated**
d. Dimpling on the surface of the breast

118
Q

A woman has been diagnosed with a simple fibroadenoma. What treatment does the healthcare provider educate the woman about?

A

a. A repeat biopsy in 6 months
b. More frequent mammograms
c. Nothing; no treatment is needed.*******
d. Rapid surgical excision and chemotherapy

119
Q

What are the majority of the small percentage of ovarian cancers that are associated with a known pattern of inheritance associated with?

A

a. Mutation of the BRCA1 gene****
b. Mutations of the BRCA2 gene
c. Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) syndrome
d. Low progesterone levels

120
Q

In the 95% of boys with delayed puberty, the problem is caused by which condition?

A

a. Disruption in the hypothalamus
b. Disruption of the pituitary
c. Deficit in estrogen or testosterone
d. Physiologic hormonal delays **

121
Q

What is the first sign of puberty in boys?

A

a. Thickening of the scrotal skin
b. Growth of pubic hair
c. Enlargement of the testes ****
d. Change in voice

122
Q

A student reads in a chart that a child has been diagnosed with mixed precocious puberty and asks for an explanation. What explanation by the healthcare professional is most accurate?

A

a. When a child develops some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex **
b. When a child does not develop any identifiable external sex organs
c. When early puberty occurs due to multiple, integrated causative effects
d. When early puberty has signs of physical and hormonal abnormalities

123
Q

A healthcare professional sees a patient in the clinic who reports that his foreskin cannot be retracted back over the glans penis. What term does the professional use to document this condition?

A

a. Paraphimosis
b. Priapism
c. Prephimosis
d. Phimosis**

124
Q

A student in the medical clinic is reviewing a patient’s medical record and sees the diagnosis of Peyronie’s disease and asks the healthcare professional for an explanation of this disorder. What statement by the professional is most accurate?

A

a. When the man’s foreskin is retracted and cannot go back over the glans
b. When the man’s foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis
c. A very painful condition of prolonged erection seen in some diseases
d. A fibrotic condition that leads to curvature of the penis and sexual dysfunction *******

125
Q

A man has balanitis. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?

A

a. Educate the man on the side effects of chemotherapy.
b. Perform a finger stick for a blood glucose reading. ****
c. Administer pain medication before retracting the foreskin.
d. Prepare the man for a needle aspiration of the corpus

126
Q

A 7-year-old child has cryptorchidism. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?

A

a. Educate the child and parents on orchiectomy.
b. Instruct the parents to give the child all the antibiotics. c. Describe skin precautions used during radiation therapy.
* d. Describe the correct administration of GnRH. *****

127
Q

What is the most common infectious cause of orchitis in postpubertal boys?

A

a. Herpes
b. Escherichia coli
c. Mumps **
d. Cytomegalovirus

128
Q

The risk of which cancer is greater if the man has a history of cryptorchidism?

A

a. Penile
b. Testicular ****
c. Prostate
d. Epididymal

129
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of testicular cancer?

A

a. Firm, nontender testicular mass***
b. Painful, mobile, firm testicular mass
c. Painful fluid-filled testicular mass
d. Soft, nontender testicular mass

130
Q

How does the epididymis become infected?

A

a. The pathogenic microorganisms ascend the vasa deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder.****
b. The pathogenic microorganisms are attached to sperm that travel through the genital tract.
c. The pathogenic microorganisms from the tunica vaginalis are transported to the epididymis.
d. The pathogenic microorganisms from the prostate fluid ascend to the epididymis.

131
Q

A healthcare professional is educating a community men’s group on symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The professional relates that most symptoms are a result of which pathophysiologic condition?

A

a. Infection of the prostate
b. Obstruction of the urethra
c. Ischemia of the urethra
d. Compression of the urethra *****

132
Q

A man reports to the healthcare professional that he had a sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and perineal pain with high fever and chills, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention. What action by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?

A

a. Assess the man’s recent sexual history.
b. Recommend heat and acetaminophen for back pain.
c. Prepare the man for prostatic massage.
d. Assist the man in obtaining a urine sample.**

133
Q

Priapism has been associated with the abuse of what substance?

A

a. Marijuana
b. Alcohol
c. Cocaine ****
d. Heroin

134
Q

Which age group should be targeted for testicular cancer education and screening?

A

a. 15 to 35 year olds ****
b. 20 to 45 year olds
c. 30 to 55 year olds
d. 45 to 70 year olds

135
Q

What is the reason breast cancer in men has such a poor prognosis?

A

a. Breast cancer is extremely aggressive in men.
b. Treatment is usually delayed as a result of late detection.***
c. Chemotherapies are not as effective in men.
d. Breast tumors tend to be small and hard to isolate.

136
Q
  1. What unique factor causes adolescent girls to have a high risk for sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?
A

a. They are in an experimental phase and believe they are resistant to developing STIs.
b. The position of susceptible cells on the adolescent cervix is different than in older women.***
c. The length of the vaginal canal is short in adolescents
d. In adolescent girls, the anus to the vaginal introitus is in close proximity.

137
Q

How is gonorrhea transmitted from a pregnant woman to her fetus?

A

a. Unbound in the blood via the placenta
b. Attached to immunoglobulin G (IgG) via the placenta
c. By direct inoculation with the fetal scalp electrodes exposed to maternal body fluids
d. Predominately through infected cervical and secretions during the birth process ***

138
Q

A healthcare professional is learning about how gonococci ascend into a woman’s uterus and fallopian tubes. Which statement is inconsistent about the factors that facilitate this ascent?

A

a. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the cervical plug disintegrates during menstruation.
b. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the vaginal pH decreases to 2 or 3. ***
c. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the uterine contractions may cause retrograde menstruation into the fallopian tubes.
d. Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the bacteria may adhere to sperm and be transported to the fallopian tubes.

139
Q

In women, what is the usual site of original gonococcal infection?

A

a. Endocervical canal**
b. Vagina
c. Fallopian tube
d. Labia majora

140
Q

A male comes to the health clinic and reports a recent exposure to gonorrhea. Where should the healthcare professional focus the physical exam on as the priority?

A

a. Epididymis
b. Lymph nodes
c. Urethra ***
d. Prostate

141
Q

Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic man?

A

a. Ligase chain reaction (LCR)
b. Gram-stain technique***
c. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
d. DNA testing

142
Q

How does an established gonococcal infection usually express itself in newborns?

A

a. Generalized skin rash 4 to 6 days after birth
b. Systemic infection with fever
c. Bilateral corneal ulceration **
d. Yellow vaginal or penile discharge approximately 10 days after birth

143
Q

A healthcare professional wants to join a research team working on treatments for gonococci infections. What is the major concern regarding the treatment the professional will likely work on?

A

a. Antibiotic resistance****
b. Changes in virulence
c. Changes in pathogenicity
d. Mutations into different strains

144
Q

Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?

A

a. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex virus
c. Chlamydia*******
d. Chancroid

145
Q

During which stage of syphilis do bloodborne bacteria spread to all the major organ systems?

A

a. Primary
b. Secondary*****
c. Latent
d. Tertiary

146
Q

In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin, bone and soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, and neurosyphilis?

A

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Latent
d. Tertiary****

147
Q

Which organism is responsible for the development of syphilis?

A

a. Neisseria syphilis
b. Treponema pallidum ***
c. Haemophilus ducreyi
d. Chlamydia trachomatis

148
Q

Which is a characteristic lesion of secondary syphilis?

A

a. Condylomata lata ***
b. Gummas
c. Chancroid
d. Donovan bodies

149
Q

By which method is the organism that causes syphilis best identified?

A

a. Acid-fast stain
b. Gram-stained slide
c. In vitro culture
d. Dark-field microscopy**

150
Q

A patient reports small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days. What treatment does the healthcare professional educate the patient about?

A

a. Acyclovir (Zovirax) **
b. Three injections of penicillin
c. One time dose of azithromycin
d. Test of cure

151
Q

A healthcare professional had taught a pregnant woman about the risk of transmitting herpes simplex virus (HSV) from her to her fetus. What statement by the woman indicates the professional needs to provide more information?

A

a. Neonatal infection with HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period.**
b. The risk is higher in women who have a primary HSV infection.
c. The risk is higher in women who experience prolonged ruptured membranes.
d. The risk is higher when internal fetal monitoring devices are used.

152
Q

During the latent period of a herpes virus infection, where in the host cell is the genome of the virus maintained?

A

a. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes
c. Nucleus **
d. Cytoplasm

153
Q

During reactivation, herpes virus genomes are transported through which nerves to the dermal surface?

A

a. Somatic
b. Peripheral sensory **
c. Autonomic
d. Peripheral motor

154
Q

A healthcare professional is teaching a high school group about STIs. Which statement by the professional provides the most accurate information regarding the transmission of herpes simplex virus (HSV)?

A

a. HSV is transmitted only when vesicles are present.
b. HSV is transmitted only while lesions are present.
c. The use of condoms prevents the transmission of HSV.
d. The risk of transmission is present even during latent periods.*****

155
Q

Which of these causes condylomata acuminata or genital warts?

A

a. Chlamydia
b. Adenovirus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV)**
d. Herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1)

156
Q

A patient is found to have “strawberry spots” on the vagina and cervix. Which medication does the healthcare professional discuss with the patient?

A

a. Metronidazole**
b. Acyclovir
c. Lindane 1% cream
d. Tetracycline

157
Q

A woman diagnosed with trichomoniasis asks if her sexual partner should be treated as well. What is the appropriate response by the healthcare professional?

A

a. Sexual partners should be treated only if symptoms are present.
b. Sexual partners should be treated even if they are asymptomatic.*******
c. Infections in men are self-limiting even without treatment.
d. Sexual partners should be treated to prevent infection.

158
Q

Which hepatitis virus is most commonly known to be sexually transmitted?

A

a. A
b. B *****
c. C
d. D

test test test (5 decks)

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