Chapter 44 45 46 47 and 48 Flashcards
1
Q
Which bone cells produce osteocalcin when stimulated by 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D and synthesize osteoid?
A
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteocytes
c. Fibrocytes
d. Osteoblasts ***
2
Q
What happens to the original bone during the second phase of bone remodeling?
A
a. The original bone is replaced.
b. It hardens.
c. The original bone is resorbed.***
d. It is synthesized.
3
Q
Which cells function to maintain bone matrix?
A
a. Osteoclasts
b. Osteocytes **
c. Osteoblasts
d. Osteophytes
4
Q
Which bone cells are large and multinucleated and contain lysosomes filled with hydrolytic enzymes?
A
a. Osteoblasts
b. Osteoclasts ***
c. Osteocytes
d. Fibrocytes
5
Q
Which bone cell secretes hydrochloric acid to help dissolve bone minerals and collagenase, thus aiding in the digestion of collagen?
A
a. Osteocytes
b. Osteoblasts
c. Osteoclasts **
d. Osteophytes
6
Q
Which glucoprotein is believed to inhibit calcium phosphate precipitation and play a part in bone resorption by recruiting osteoclasts?
A
a. Osteocalcin **
b. Osteonectin
c. Laminin
d. Osteopontin
7
Q
Which glucoprotein is thought to transport essential elements such as hormones, ions, and other metabolites to and from the bone cells?
A
a. Osteocalcin
b. Osteonectin
c. Laminin
d. Bone albumin ***
8
Q
How is the work function of a muscle usually calculated?
A
a. Muscle type
b. Calculating force X distance**
c. Foot pounds
d. Kilograms
9
Q
What is the basic structural unit in compact bone?
A
a. Small channels called canaliculi
b. Osteocytes within the lacunae
c. Tiny spaces within the lacunae
d. Haversian system *******
10
Q
Which part of an injured joint becomes insensitive to pain and regenerates slowly and minimally?
A
a. Synovium
b. Articular cartilage****
c. Bursa
d. Tendon
11
Q
The outer layer of the periosteum contains blood vessels and nerves that penetrate the inner structures of the bone by way of which structure?
A
a. Volkmann canals****
b. Canaliculi
c. Sharpey canals
d. Trabeculae
12
Q
What is the function of Sharpey fibers?
A
a. To anchor the outer layer of the periosteum to the inner layer
b. To contain blood vessels and nerves on the outer layer of the periosteum
c. To help attach tendons and ligaments to the periosteum *******
d. To attach muscles to the periosteum
13
Q
The student learns that after puberty, the epiphyseal plate calcifies and the epiphysis merges with which structure?
A
a. Epiphyseal line
b. Epiphyseal plate
c. Metaphysis ****
d. Articular cartilage
14
Q
The stage of healing in the bone that involves procallus formation entails which process?
A
a. Formation of a hematoma that allows the development of a fibrin network
b. Production of granulation tissue by fibroblasts, capillary buds, and osteoblasts ***
c. Development of a primitive bone matrix termed woven bone
d. Remodeling of the periosteal and endosteal bone surfaces
15
Q
The professor asks a student to describe the movement of a diarthrosis joint. What answer by the student is best?
A
a. Immovable joint
b. Slightly moveable
c. Variable movement
d. Freely moveable *******
16
Q
Which type of joint holds teeth in the maxilla or mandible?
A
a. Amphiarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis
c. Synarthrosis
d. Gomphosis*******
17
Q
The hyaline cartilage joints between the ribs and sternum are examples of which type of joint?
A
a. Synchondrosis***
b. Symphysis
c. Gomphosis
d. Syndesmosis
18
Q
The joint that contains a synovial membrane that lines the inner joint capsule is an example of which type of joint?
A
a. Amphiarthrosis
b. Diarthrosis*******
c. Synarthrosis
d. Biarthrosis
19
Q
What is the function of the synovial membrane’s type A cells within the intima?
A
a. To release mast cells, initiating the inflammatory process after joint injury
b. To ingest and remove bacteria and debris by phagocytosis in the joint cavity*****
c. To secrete hyaluronate, a binding agent that gives synovial fluid its viscous quality
d. To store fat cells and glycogen, providing adenosine triphosphate for joint activity
20
Q
The professor is quizzing student on synovial fluid. Which statement shows the students need further instruction?
A
a. It contains protein polysaccharides to repair the synovial membrane after injury. ****
b. It lubricates the joint surfaces, allowing ease of movement.
c. It nourishes the pad of the articular cartilage.
d. It contains leukocytes to phagocytize joint debris and microorganisms.
21
Q
What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone?
A
a. Sharpey fibers
b. Collagen fibers **
c. Glycoproteins
d. Elastin fibers
22
Q
What controls the movement of synovial fluid through cartilage?
A
a. Cartiloregulins
b. Hyaluronate
c. Proteoglycans **
d. Chondroitin
23
Q
Which statement indicates that a student needs more information about muscles?
A
a. Muscle comprises 50% of an adult’s body weight and 40% of a child’s body weight. *******
b. Muscle is 75% water, 20% protein, and 5% organic and inorganic compounds.
c. Muscle contains 32% of all protein stores for energy and metabolism.
d. Muscles are encased in fascia.
24
Q
Which characteristic of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers does the student learn?
A
a. Slow contraction speed
b. Fast conduction velocities **
c. Profuse capillary supply
d. Oxidative metabolism
25
As the innervation ratio of a particular organ increases, what other property also increases?
a. Control
b. Movement
c. Coordination
d. Endurance *********
26
Which statement describes a neuroregulin?
a. Chemical mediator that initiates signals from the anterior horn cell of the spinal card to the axon of motor nerve branches of groups of muscle fibers
b. Neurotransmitter that provides
a means of reporting changes in length, tension, velocity, and tone in muscles
c. Proteoglycan secreted by neurons, which increases acetylcholine receptors *************
d. Mechanoreceptor that lies parallel to muscle fibers and responds to muscle stretching
27
Which four-step process correctly describes muscle contraction?
a. Coupling, contraction, relaxation, excitation
b. Contraction, relaxation, excitation, coupling
c. Relaxation, excitation, coupling, contraction
d. Excitation, coupling, contraction, relaxation*******
28
Which type of ion directly controls the contraction of muscles?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium ********
d. Magnesium
29
In which type of contraction does the muscle maintain a constant tension as it moves?
a. Isotonic *******
b. Isometric
c. Hypertonic
d. Hypotonic
30
Which term is used to identify a functional muscle contraction in which the muscle contracts but the limb does not move?
a. Isotonic
b. Isometric *********
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric
31
A student has learned about aging and the musculoskeletal system. What statement by the student indicates a need for more study on the topic?
a. Haversian system erodes, the canals nearest the marrow cavity widen, and the endosteal cortex converts to spongy bone.**************
b. The remodeling cycle increases because of a decreased ability of the basic multicellular units to resorb and deposit bone.
c. Cartilaginous rigidity increases because of decreasing water content and decreasing concentrations of glycosaminoglycans.
d. Muscle ribonucleic acid (RNA) synthesis declines, although the regenerative function of muscle tissue is reportedly normal in older adults.
32
Which component is found in synovial fluid?
a. Protein polysaccharides
b. Water
c. Leukocytes ********
d. Chondrocytes
33
What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?
a. Procallus
b. Joint capsule*********
c. Hematoma
d. Elastin fibers
34
1. The health care professional is caring for a person who has a pathologic fracture. The patient asks the professional to explain the condition. What response by the professional is best?
a. The outer surface of the bone is disrupted, but the inside is intact.
b. A stable fracture where the cortex of the bone bends but doesn’t break.
c. A fracture that happens at the site of an abnormality already in that bone. *********
d. It was caused by the cumulative effects of stress on the bone over time
35
A health care professional is providing education to a group of seasonal athletes. What type of fracture does the professional warn them to avoid?
a. Stress *******
b. Greenstick
c. Insufficiency
d. Pathologic
36
A patient has a temporary displacement of two bones causing the bone surfaces to partially lose contact with each other. What treatment does the health care professional prepare the patient for?
a. Internal fixation
b. Reduction and immobilization ******
c. Calcium phosphate cement
d. Low-density ultrasound
37
Improper reduction or immobilization of a fractured femur can result in which outcome after cast removal?
a. The muscles around the fracture site are weak.
b. The fracture requires 6 to 8 weeks of physical therapy.
c. The skin under the cast is dry and flaky.
d. The bone is not straight. ********
38
Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone?
a. Tendon**********
b. Ligament
c. Bursa
d. Mesentery
39
What is the tear in a ligament referred to as?
a. Fracture
b. Strain
c. Disunion
d. Sprain ******
40
A patient seen in the clinic has tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon. What diagnosis does the health care professional document?
a. Lateral epicondylopathy ***********
b. Medial epicondylopathy
c. Bursitis
d. Lateral tendinitis
41
A patient in the Emergency Department has either a tendon or ligament injury. What pain description from the patient would the health care professional associate with these injuries?
a. Dull and diffuse, persisting over the distribution of the tendon or ligament
b. Sharp and localized, persisting over the distribution of the tendon or ligament **********
c. Pins-and-needle sensations that occur distal to the injury with movement
d. Intermittent and aching, occurring over the distribution of the tendon or ligament
42
A student asks for an explanation of rhabdomyolysis. What response by the professor is best?
a. Paralysis of skeletal muscles, resulting from an impaired nerve supply
b. Smooth muscle degeneration, resulting from ischemia
c. Lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of the complement cascade
d. Release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells *********
43
Which pathophysiologic alteration precedes crush syndrome after prolonged muscle compression?
a. Muscle ischemia
b. Myoglobinuria*******
c. Volkmann contracture
d. Neural injury
44
By the time osteoporosis is visible on an x-ray examination, up to what percent of bone has been lost?
a. 30% **************
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%
45
A patient has a bone density T score of -2.8. What diagnosis does the health care professional educate the patient on?
a. Osteoplasia
b. Osteoporosis **************
c. Osteopenia
d. Osteomalacia
46
Which type of osteoporosis would a person develop after having the left leg in a cast for 8 weeks to treat fracture of the tibia and fibula?
a. Iatrogenic
b. Regional ********
c. Idiopathic
d. Osteoblastic
47
In osteoporosis, the receptor activator of nuclear factor kB (RANK) activates what?
a. Osteoclast apoptosis
b. Osteoblast survival
c. Osteoprotegerin
d. Osteoclast survival ***********
48
A health care professional who works with older women understands that which changes are believed to play a significant role in the development of age-related bone loss?
a. Increased oxidative stress and increased intracellular reactive oxygen species *********
b. Hypoparathyroidism
c. Increased body weight
d. Decreased formation and short life span of osteoclasts
49
Which hormone exerts antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts?
a. Parathyroid hormone
b. Glucocorticoid
c. Growth hormone
d. Estrogen ********
50
A patient is brought to the Emergency Department after being found by neighbors. The patient says she has been lying on the floor in the house for 3 days. What action by the health care professional is best?
a. Order a serum creatine kinase (CK) level ********
b. Obtain an x-ray of the patient’s hips
c. Arrange for the patient to have a DXA scan
d. Perform the Fracture Risk Assessment
51
The health care professional teaches a group of seniors that the most common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis is which of these?
a. Bone deformity *****
b. Bone pain
c. Pathologic fracture
d. Muscle strain
52
A patient has been diagnosed with Paget disease. What explanation of the disease does the health care professional provide the patient?
a. “It is a severe infection in your bones.”
b. “It is a problem with bone resorption and formation.”*******
c. “It is a condition in which your bones become soft.”
d. “It’s a disorder of altered energy production in muscle.”
53
A health care professional determines that the student needs more education when the student makes which statement about treating bone infection?
a. Bone contains multiple microscopic channels that are impermeable to the cells and biochemicals of the body’s natural defenses.
b. Microcirculation of bone is highly vulnerable to damage and destruction by bacterial toxins, leading to ischemic necrosis of bone.
c. Bone cells have a limited capacity to replace bone destroyed by infections.
d. Bacteria are walled off by macrophages and T lymphocytes; consequently, the antibiotics cannot penetrate the infected area.******
54
Bone death as a result of osteomyelitis is due to what?
a. Formation of immune complexes at the site of infection
b. Localized ischemia******
c. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a) and interleukin 1 (IL-1)
d. Impaired nerve innervation at the site of infection
55
A student studying osteomyelitis and asks for an explanation of the term “sequestrum.” What response by the professor is best?
a. An area of devascularized and devitalized bone********
b. An enzyme that phagocytizes necrotic bone
c. A subperiosteal abscess
d. A layer of new bone surrounding the infected bone
56
A patient in the clinic had a femur x-ray that was read as having a “moth-eaten” appearance. What treatment option does the health care professional discuss with the patient?
a. Limb-salvaging surgery *******
b. Amputation
c. Oral bisphosphonates
d. Calcium and vitamin D supplements
57
Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of osteosarcoma?
a. Slow-growing tumor that begins in the bone marrow and infiltrates the trabeculae
b. Solitary tumor that most often affects the metaphyseal region of the femur or tibia
c. Aggressive tumor most often found in the bone marrow of long bones **********
d. Tumor that infiltrates the trabeculae in spongy bone and implants in surrounding tissue by seeding
58
A professor has taught the class about giant cell bone tumors. Which statement by a student would require the professor to review the material?
a. Giant cell tumors are an overexpression of genes including osteoprotegerin ligand (OPGL).
b. The tumors are malignant, solitary, and irregularly shaped. **********
c. Giant cell tumors are typically located in the epiphysis in the femur, tibia, radius, and humerus.
d. They are slow-growing tumors that extend over the articular cartilage.
59
Which patient finding would lead the health care professional to assess the patient for inflammatory joint disease?
a. Unilateral joint involvement
b. Normal joint synovial fluid
c. Absence of synovial membrane inflammation
d. Systemic symptoms of inflammation *******
60
What is a primary defect in osteoarthritis?
a. Stromelysin and acid metalloproteinase breakdown articular cartilage.*******
b. Immunoglobulin G (IgG) destroys the synovial membrane.
c. Synovial membranes become inflamed.
d. Cartilage-coated osteophytes create bone spurs.
61
A patient reports joint stiffness with movement and joint pain in weightbearing joints that is usually relieved by rest. What treatment option does the health care professional discuss with the patient?
a. Ways to decrease serum uric acid
b. Administration of oral methotrexate
c. Exercise and weight reduction *******
d. Rapid intravenous hydration
62
A patient has ankylosing spondylitis. Which description of this condition by the health care professional is most accurate?
a. Chronic inflammatory disease with stiffening and fusion of the spine and sacroiliac joints*******
b. Chronic systemic inflammatory disease that affects many tissues and organs
c. State of abnormal and excessive bone resorption and formation
d. Wide-spread and deep chronic muscle pain, fatigue, and tender points
63
What is the primary pathologic alteration resulting from ankylosing spondylitis (AS)?
a. Inflammation of the bursa
b. Inflammation of the long bones
c. Inflammation of fibrocartilaginous joints of the vertebrae ******
d. Inflammation of the small hand and feet bones
64
A person in the health care clinic has gout. In order to prevent a common complication, what self-care measure does the health care professional teach the person about?
a. Drinking plenty of water*****
b. Splinting affected joints
c. Eating more protein
d. Avoiding hot weather
65
What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?
a. Reduced excretion of purines
b. Overproduction of uric acid ******
c. Increase in the glycosaminoglycan levels
d. Overproduction of proteoglycans
66
The pathophysiologic presentation of gout is closely linked to the metabolism of which chemical?
a. Purine ******
b. Pyrimidine
c. Vitamin E
d. Amino acid
67
A patient in the clinic is worried about having fibromyalgia. For which symptoms should the health care professional assess the patient for?
a. Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally b. Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles
c. Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps
d. Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue*******
68
A health care professional is teaching a group of college women about increasing calcium in the diet to prevent osteoporosis. A participant asks at what age is peak bone mass is reached in women. What response is best?
a. 15 years
b. 20 years
c. 30 years*******
d. 35 years
69
What event is associated with the beginning of bone loss in women?
a. Puberty
b. Sexual activity
c. Childbirth
d. Menopause******
70
A patient in the clinic has calcium crystals that are associated with chronic gout. How does the professional document this finding?
a. Stones
b. Spurs
c. Tophi ********
d. Nodes
71
1. Until the skeleton matures and adult stature is reached, where does growth in the length of bone occur?
a. Epiphyseal line
b. Physeal plate *****
c. Epiphyseal cartilage
d. Metaphyseal plate
72
A healthcare professional is educating an expectant parent class. Which skeletal deformity does the professional tell them is normal at birth but generally disappears by years of age?
a. Genu varum (bowleg)******
b. Genu valgum (knock knee)
c. Equinovarus (clubfoot)
d. Pes planus (flat feet)
73
A healthcare professional wants to estimate the total mass of muscle in a patient’s body. What serum laboratory test should the professional evaluate?
a. Albumin
b. Blood urea nitrogen
c. Creatinine *******
d. Creatine
74
A healthcare professional working with children learns that which is the most common congenital skeletal defect of the upper extremity?
a. Vestigial tabs
b. Paget disease
c. Rickets
d. Syndactyly *******
75
What diagnosis is given to parents when their infant’s hip maintains contact with the acetabulum but is not well seated within the hip joint?
a. Dislocatable hip
b. Subluxated hip *******
c. Dislocated hip
d. Subluxable hip
76
Which sign or symptom is a very late indication of developmental dysplasia of the hip?
a. Asymmetry of the gluteal or thigh folds
b. Leg-length discrepancy
c. Waddling gait
d. Pain ********
77
To assess for osteogenesis imperfecta, which laboratory result would the healthcare professional expect to find?
a. Increased phosphorus
b. Decreased calcium
c. Increased alkaline phosphatase ************
d. Decreased total protein
78
A child has a disorder that resulted in the failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity. What treatment plan does the healthcare professional discuss with the parents?
a. Extremely careful handling
b. Increasing vitamin D intake *********
c. Revascularization
d. Containment and motion therapy
79
An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
a. C
b. B12
c. B6
d. D********
80
A child has scoliosis with a 40-degree curvature of the spine, and the parent is worried about pulmonary involvement. What statement by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
a. “Scoliosis is a bone disorder and does not affect the lungs.”
b. “Yes, we should obtain pulmonary function studies soon.”
c. “Scoliosis severe enough to involve the lungs would be fatal.”
d. “The lungs aren’t affected until the curvature is over 80 degrees.” ***********
81
In osteomyelitis, bacteria gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis. What factor makes this route the easiest for bacteria to gain access to this area?
a. Cortex of the bone in this area is porous or mazelike.*******
b. Blood supply to the metaphysis is easily compromised.
c. Macrophages and lymphocytes have limited access to the subperiosteal space.
d. Bacteria usually spread down the medullary cavity of the bone.
82
The student wants to know how the clinical manifestations and onset of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) differ from those of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in adults. What answer by the healthcare professional is best?
a. JIA begins insidiously with systemic signs of inflammation.
b. JIA predominantly affects large joints. **********
c. JIA has more severe joint pain than adult RA.
d. JIA has a rapid onset of generalized aches as the first symptom.
83
An adolescent has been diagnosed with osteochondrosis. How does the healthcare professional describe the pathophysiology to the teen?
a. Imbalance between calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
b. Nutritional deficiency of calcium and phosphorus
c. Bacterial infection of the bone
d. Vascular impairment and trauma to bone *********
84
Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
a. Heads of the femur ********
b. Distal femurs
c. Heads of the humerus
d. Distal tibias
85
What does the student learn about the pain experienced with Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
a. Elbow and upper and lower arm pain is aggravated by activity and relieved by rest.
b. Knee, inner thigh, and groin pain is described as a continuous ache and relieved by antiinflammatory drugs.
c. Knee, inner thigh, and groin pain is aggravated by activity and relieved by rest.**********
d. Elbow and upper and lower arm pain is described as a continuous ache and relieved by antiinflammatory drugs.
86
The healthcare professional directs a student to assess a teen who has Osgood-Schlatter disease. What assessment finding does the student anticipate for this disorder?
a. Lateral epicondylitis of the elbow
b. Inflammation of the anterior cruciate ligament
c. Bursitis of the subscapular bursa in the glenohumeral joint
d. Tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon********
87
At birth, the diagnosis of cerebral palsy (CP) may be made based on what factor?
a. Brain trauma
b. Prematurity
c. Major brain malformation *******
d. Genetic defect
88
A child has Duchenne muscular dystrophy and the parents want to know how this occurred. Which statement by the healthcare professional is most accurate?
a. X-linked recessive inheritance ************
b. Common SMN1 gene abnormality
c. Autosomal dominant inheritance
d. Inheritance is not well defined
89
Which protein, absent in muscle cells of Duchenne muscular dystrophy, mediates the anchoring of skeletal muscle fibers to the basement membrane?
a. Syntrophin
b. Laminin
c. Dystrophin *******
d. Troponin
90
A child has Duchenne muscular dystrophy. What complication does the healthcare professional teach the parents is most important to control?
a. Respiratory infection ***********
b. Joint contractures
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Fractures from falling
91
Generally, what is the first symptom of facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy?
a. Inability to open the eyes completely
b. Difficulty standing
c. Drooping shoulders ********
d. Facial pain
92
What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood?
a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Fibrosarcoma
c. Ewing Sarcoma
d. Osteosarcoma *******
93
Molecular analysis has demonstrated that osteosarcoma is associated with which gene?
a. TP53
b. src*****
c. myc
d. TSC2
94
A child has osteosarcoma and the healthcare team is assessing for metastases. What diagnostic study would be the priority?
a. Pancreatic enzyme analysis
b. Liver biopsy
c. Chest x-ray or CT scan*********
d. Brain MRI
95
What does a Ewing sarcoma arise from?
a. Bone marrow*******
b. Bone-producing mesenchymal cells
c. Metadiaphysis of long bones
d. Embryonal osteocytes
96
Rhabdomyosarcoma can develop in which type of muscle?
a. Cardiac
b. Smooth
c. Involuntary
d. Striated *******
97
A newborn is diagnosed with osteomyelitis. What organism does the healthcare professional prepare to treat?
a. Staphylococcus aureus ***********
b. Escherichia coli
c. Group B streptococcus
d. Bacillus anthracis
98
A student asks what the cause of structural scoliosis is. What explanation by the professor is accurate?
a. Poor posture
b. Vertebral rotation*******
c. Poor calcium absorption
d. Intrauterine trauma
99
Which component of the epidermis initiates immune responses and provides a defense against environmental antigens?
a. Langerhans cells*****
b. Merkel cells
c. Keratinocytes
d. Melanocytes
100
Which cells of the dermis release histamine and play a role in the hypersensitivity reactions of the skin?
a. Histiocytes
b. Fibroblasts
c. Mast cells*********
d. Macrophages
101
Which cells of the dermis secrete connective tissue matrix?
a. Macrophages
b. Mast cells
c. Fibroblasts********
d. Histiocytes
102
Which gland releases secretions that are important in thermoregulation and cooling of the body through evaporation?
a. Sebaceous
b. Apocrine
c. Eccrine *********
d. Exocrine
103
Which receptors of the sympathetic nervous system regulate heat loss through the skin?
a. Cholinergic
b. B-Adrenergic
c. a-Adrenergic********
d. Anticholinergic
104
The healthcare professional is assessing four patients for pressure ulcer formation. What is the first change in the skin that the professional would note if a patient were developing a pressure ulcer?
a. Blanchable erythema of intact skin
b. Nonblanchable erythema of intact skin *********
c. Blister at the site of pressure
d. Reddish-purple discoloration
105
Which type of dressings should the healthcare professional apply to pressure ulcers?
a. Flat and dry
b. Flat, moisture-retaining ********
c. Bulky and dry
d. Bulky, moisture-retaining
106
What term is used to identify skin lesions that are elevated, rounded, and firm with irregular clawlike margins that extend beyond the original site of injury?
a. Psoriasis
b. Dermatitis
c. Acne
d. Keloid ******
107
Keloids are caused by excessive amounts of which substance in the corneum during connective tissue repair?
a. Elastin
b. Collagen *****
c. Stroma
d. Reticular fibers
108
In allergic contact dermatitis, which cells possess the antigens and present them to T cells?
a. Langerhans cells*********
b. Merkel cells
c. Keratinocytes
d. Macrophages
109
In latex allergies, which immunoglobulin (Ig) is associated with an immediate reaction?
a. IgA
b. IgE *****
c. IgG
d. IgM
110
A patient in the clinic is diagnosed with dermatitis. The patient states that a previous healthcare professional diagnosed eczema. What response by the healthcare professional is best?
a. “Both are general terms for a specific inflammatory response in the skin.”********
b. “Eczema is an older, outdated term. The preferred term is dermatitis.”
c. “No, it’s not eczema. Eczema has yellowish scaly plaques.”
d. “If it were eczema, it would have blisters that go away on their own.”
111
What clinical manifestations do allergic contact and stasis dermatitis have in common?
a. Petechiae and hyperpigmentation
b. Edema and vesicular lesions
c. Scaling and crusting of lesions
d. Erythema and pruritus ********
112
Lesions on the elbows and knees that are well demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly, and erythematous characterize which type of psoriasis?
a. Plaque*******
b. Inverse
c. Guttate
d. Erythrodermic
113
A healthcare professional assesses a patient who presents with a single lesion on the trunk that is circular, demarcated, and salmon pink. The lesion measures approximately 3 to 4 cm in diameter. What treatment option does the professional educate the patient about?
a. Narrow-band ultraviolet light therapy
b. Oral erythromycin regime********
c. Keratolytic agent application
d. Consistent photoprotection
114
A patient shows the healthcare professional a collection of infected hair follicles on the back of the neck is red, painful, and draining. What condition does the professional educate the patient on?
a. Erysipelas
b. Furuncles
c. Carbuncles*******
d. Boils
115
The healthcare professional educates a community group that chickenpox (varicella) may be followed years later by which disorder?
a. Erysipelas
b. Cytomegalovirus
c. Warts
d. Herpes zoster ******
116
A child has been diagnosed with ringworm and the parent asks how to get rid of this parasite. What response by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
a. “We have several antibiotics that can be used.”
b. “Ringworm is actually a fungal infection of the skin.”*******
c. “Actually, ringworm is an old name for pemphigus.”
d. “Inexpensive topical antifungals often work well.”
117
Cutaneous vasculitis develops from the deposit of which substance?
a. Immune complexes *******
b. Immunoglobulin E (IgE)
c. Complement proteins
d. T lymphocytes
118
The student learns that which skin lesion is mediated by the immunoglobulin E (IgE)-stimulated release of histamine, bradykinin, or kallikrein from mast cells?
a. Dermatitis
b. Scleroderma
c. Urticaria **********
d. Cutaneous vasculitis
119
A patient with scleroderma asks the healthcare professional how this condition was acquired. What response is best?
a. X-linked recessive gene
b. X-linked dominant gene
c. Virus
d. Autoantibodies *********
120
A healthcare professional assesses a patient who has elevated lesions on the face that are waxy and yellowish. What condition does the professional discuss with the patient?
a. Basal keratosis
b. Seborrheic keratosis *******
c. Keratoacanthoma
d. Actinic keratosis
121
Lesions that usually have depressed centers with rolled borders and are frequently located on the face and neck characterize which malignancy?
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Kaposi sarcoma
c. Malignant melanoma
d. Basal cell carcinoma *******
122
The student learns that alteration of which gene is associated with basal cell carcinoma?
a. myc
b. TP53*******
c. src
d. Ras
123
Bowen disease is a form of which type of cancer?
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Malignant melanoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma*******
124
A patient has an intradermal nevus. What assessment does the healthcare professional know is consistent with this lesion?
a. Flat, dark, may be up to 2 cm in size
b. Elevated and smooth surface
c. Regular edges with bristle-like hairs*********
d. Heaped-up, keratinized cells
125
Which cell is thought to be the progenitor cell of Kaposi sarcoma?
a. Endothelial *********
b. Keratinocyte
c. Melanocyte
d. Exothelial
126
A patient is brought to the Emergency Department with cold, white, waxy fingers and toes. The patient denies pain. Which intervention does the healthcare professional provide as the priority?
a. Applying local, dry heat
b. Rubbing or massaging the area
c. Immersing in warm water *********
d. Leaving the area uncovered
127
A patient was hospitalized with frostbite and is receiving ibuprofen. The patient asks the healthcare professional to explain the rationale for the drug. What is the best response?
a. Treating fever
b. Preventing plate aggregation
c. Reducing pain
d. Inhibiting prostaglandins **********
128
A patient has an onychomycosis. Where would the healthcare professional assess this disorder?
a. Scalp
b. Fingernail*******
c. Lower legs
d. Mucus membranes
129
A patient has a furuncle. Where would the healthcare professional assess the patient for this condition?
a. Feet
b. Palms
c. Hair follicles *********
d. Fingernails
130
Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is elevated in atopic dermatitis?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgE ********
d. IgG
131
Which leukocytes are elevated in atopic dermatitis?
a. Eosinophils **********
b. Neutrophils
c. Basophils
d. Monocytes
132
A child has atopic dermatitis. What assessment finding does the healthcare professional associate with this condition?
a. Papular rash
b. High fever
c. Vesicles that burst and form crusts
d. Itching *******
133
A baby has diaper dermatitis. What secondary infection does the healthcare professional assess for?
a. Escherichia coli
b. Candida albicans **********
c. Proteus spp.
d. Staphylococcus aureus
134
The disruption in cellular adhesion observed in bullous impetigo is caused by an exfoliative toxin related to which organism?
a. Staphylococcus aureus*******
b. Streptococcus pyogenes
c. Escherichia coli
d. Candida albicans
135
A parent of a child in a crowded daycare is worried about the staff passing on a bacterial infection to the child. Which infection would be most likely?
a. Atopic dermatitis
b. Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome
c. Impetigo ******
d. Tinea capitis
136
A parent reports a child has skin lesions that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust. What treatment does the healthcare professional educate the parent about?
a. Supportive care only
b. Oral griseofulvin
c. Topical corticosteroids
d. Topical mupirocin**********
137
A child has been diagnosed with tinea corporis. Which lesion would the healthcare professional assess for in this condition?
a. Pink-to-red coalescing maculopapular rash on the face or trunk
b. Vesicles that rupture, creating a thin, flat, honey-colored crust
c. Circular (round or oval) lesions with erythema and scaling patches*******
d. Red papules, vesicles, and pustules in clusters
138
Parents do not want the child to contract tinea corporis. Which animal would they limit the child’s exposure to?
a. Mites
b. Kittens********
c. Ponies
d. Ticks
139
The student learns that the cause of molluscum contagiosum is which of these?
a. Bacteria
b. Virus *****
c. Fungi
d. Rickettsia
140
The healthcare professional teaches a parent group that which organism causes thrush?
a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. Herpesvirus
d. Candida albicans******
141
A child has white plaque in the mouth with a few shallow ulcers. What treatment does the healthcare professional educate the parent about?
a. Nystatin oral suspension*********
b. Warm saline rinses
c. Topical antivirals
d. No specific treatment
142
The healthcare professional is teaching a group of new parents about childhood diseases. What does the professional tell them the incubation period for rubella is?
a. 3 to 5 days
b. 14 to 21 days ******
c. 7 to 10 days
d. 5 to 15 days
143
Rubella (German or 3-day measles) is caused by what type of organism?
a. Virus********
b. Bacterium
c. Fungus
d. Yeast
144
Rubeola is a highly contagious acute disease in children caused by which type of infection?
a. Bacterial
b. Fungal
c. Yeast
d. Viral *******
145
A student cannot remember the differences between rubeola and rubella. Which clinical manifestation does the healthcare professional tell the student is present in rubeola but not in rubella?
a. Conjunctivitis*******
b. Enlarged lymph nodes
c. Presence of a cough
d. Runny nose
146
Parents want their child vaccinated against chickenpox. The healthcare professional prepares to administer the vaccine against which organism?
a. Poxvirus
b. Varicella-zoster virus*******
c. Adenovirus
d. Human papillomavirus
147
A preschool teacher notices a child who has burrows on the hands that are several millimeters to 1 cm long, papules, and vesicular lesions. What other assessment finding would help the teacher determine the type of infestation the child has?
a. Ask the child if he or she has been around puppies or kittens.
b. Check the child’s hair for the presence of small mites. c. Ask the child if itching occurs especially at night.******
d. Assess the child’s trunk and abdomen for petechiae.
148
Which contagious disease creates a primary skin lesion that is a pinpointed macule, papule, or wheal with hemorrhagic puncture site?
a. Pediculosis*******
b. Tinea capitis
c. Scabies
d. Rubeola
149
Which contagious disease is caused by the itch mite?
a. Miliaria
b. Tinea corporis
c. Pediculosis
d. Scabies*******
150
A person has a vascular anomaly associated with a congenital malformation of dermal capillaries and has been told this lesion does not fade with age. What treatment options can the healthcare professional discuss with this person?
a. Surgical excision
b. Pulsed dye laser ********
c. Cool temperatures
d. Cosmetic tattooing
151
An infant has a skin disorder that is characterized by a vesicular eruption after prolonged exposure to perspiration, with subsequent obstruction of the eccrine ducts. What care measures does the healthcare provider educate the parents about?
a. Topical antifungals
b. Corticosteroids
c. Oral ivermectin
d. Keeping skin cool and dry********
152
What is the treatment plan the healthcare professional discusses with a patient for a strawberry hemangioma?
a. Cosmetic surgical removal
b. Topical steroid therapy
c. Oral antibiotics
d. Support of its involution*******
