MicroPara Buzzwords Flashcards
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Tinea versicolor is a cutaneous fungal infection. TRUE or FALSE?
FALSE. Superficial.
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Candida is a superficial fungal infection. TRUE or FALSE?
FALSE. Cutaneous.
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Tinea capitis is a dermatophytoses of which body region?
Scalp
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Superficial and cutaneous fungal infections can be visualized using which agent?
KOH
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Gardens are at risk for this fungal infection.
Sporotrichosis Other Buzzwords: necrosis/ulceration, potassium ioide
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Systemic fungal infections are treated with which antibiotics?
Amphotericin B, Itraconazole, Fluconazole
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Cryptococcus neoformans is dimorphic. TRUE or FALSE?
FALSE. It is a yeast.
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What is cryptococcosis commonly associated with in AIDS patients?
Meningitis
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Give two disease entities associated with candida in an immunocompromised host.
Esophagitis, Disseminated infection
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Candida is part of the normal skin flora. TRUE or FALSE?
TRUE
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Which fungi is associated with liver cancer?
Aspergillus flavus
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Which of the following fungi-like bacteria is part of the normal oral flora? A. Actinomycetes B. Nocardia
Actinomycetes
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What are the buzzwords associated with Actinomycetes and Nocardia?
Actinomycetes: sulfur granules, Nocardia: partially acid-fast
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The genetic material of a virus can be DNA, RNA, or both. TRUE or FALSE?
False. Either DNA or RNA only.
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What is the protein coat of a virus called?
Capsid
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What are the DNA viruses?
HHAPPPy: Herpes, Hepadna, Adeno, Papova, Parvo, Pox
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What is the only single-stranded DNA virus?
Parvovirus (the pervert, is also NAKED) Other Buzzwords: erythema infectiosum, fifth disease, slapped cheek appearance
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What are the negative strand, enveloped viruses?
Orthodox Rabbis Party Around Fine Bunnies (Ortho, Rhabdo, Paramyxo, Arena, Filo, Bunya)
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Which viruses belong to the Picorna family?
PECoRNA (Polio, Echo, Coxachie, Rhino, eNtero, A-hepa)
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Which virus is the only double-stranded, naked virus?
Reo
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Which virus is bullet-shaped?
Rabies
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Which viruses belong to the Paramyxo family?
PaRaMyxO (Parainfluenza, RSV, Measles virus, Orchitis virus/ mumps)
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The common flu is caused by which family of viruses?
Orthomyxo
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Hemagglutinin is to ___ a ___ as ___b___ is to mucin.
A. Sialic acid B. Neuraminidase
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What stran is the 1997 avian influenza virus?
H5 N1
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What disease is associated with aspirin and influenza?
Reye’s syndrome Other Buzzwords: encephalopathy, liver damage
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Paramyxoviridae (RSV) possess F1 proteins, causing which characteristic histologic finding?
Multinucleated giant cells (syncitial cells)
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Parainfluenza causes which type of disease?
Croup Other Buzzwords: barking cough, seal
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What type of vaccine is used in MMR?
Live attenuated
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What is the pattern of measles infection?
10 days incubation, 3 prodrome, 2 Koplick spots, 6 rash, head to toe
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What is the complication of measles involving the CNS
SSPE
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Which hepatitis virus is a DNA virus?
HBV
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What is the expected rise in ALT/ AST with viral hepatitis?
Increase
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How about Alk Pos?
Increase (slight, also delayed)
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Which hepatitis viruses are transmitted via fecal-oral route?
HAV. HEV
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Infectivity of HBV is related to titers of which of the following? A. HBsAg B. Anti-HBcAg C. Anti-HBsAg D. HBeAg
D. HBeAg (Enfectivity!!!)
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Length of HBV infection is related totiters of which of the following? A. HBsAg B. Anti-HBcAg C. Anti-HBsAg D. HBeAg
B. Anti-HBcAg Chronicity! IgM - momentarily here, IgG - going on for some time
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Which hepatitis virus is associated with HBV?
HDV
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Which hepatitis virus is associated with mortality in pregnancy?
HEV
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Give two examples of retrovirus.
HIV, HTLV
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What are the three enzymescontained inside an HIV virion?
RIP (Reverse transcriptase, Integrase, Protease)
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What are the three genes contained in the HIV genome?
PEG (Pol, Env, Gag)
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What are the three regulatory genes in the HIV genome?
Tat, Rev, Nef
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What are the major surface proteins of HIV?
gp 120, gp 41 (p24 - caspid)
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Which cell is affected by HIV? A. CD4+ B. CD8+
A. CD4+
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What is the magic cut-off number of T-cell count for AIDS?
200 cells/mL
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Which infections are common when CD4+ levels just dip below 400?
Oral thrush, herpes zoster, TB
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How about when full-blown AIDS occurs (CD4+ < 200)?
PCP (pneumonia)
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… when CD4+ < 100?
Toxoplasma (mass effect), Cryptococcus (meningitis)
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… and when CD4+ < 50?
Disseminated MAI (and finally CMV)
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which malignancies are associated with HIV-AIDS?
Kaposi sarcoma (HHV-8), B-cell lymphoma
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What diagnostic test is confirmatory for HIV infection?
Western blot (ELISA is for screening)
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HSV-1 is to ___a___ as HSV-2 is to ___b___.
A. Gingivostomatitis, Encephalitis, Keratitis B. Genital herpes
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What disease is caused by reactivation of latent VSV?
Shingles Other Buzword: dermatomal, dorsal root ganglion, herpes-zoster, acyclovir, ultra painful/ sensitive
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What does TORCHES stand for?
Toxoplasma, Rubella, CMV, Herpes, HIV, Syphilis
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CMV is associated with which risk factor/ disease?
Bone marrow transplant, AIDS
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Mononucleosis is associatd with which virus?
EBV Other Buzzwords: kissing disease, B-cell lymphoma
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Which STD is caused by a pox virus?
Molluscum contagiosum Other Buzzwords: dome-shaped, dimpled
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Which virus is responsible for cervical cancer?
HPV 16 (curious pa), 18 (legal na), 31 (kasal na), 45 (huling hirit!)
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What is the other term for Rubella?
German measles
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Flavaviruses cause which diseases?
Yellow Fever, Dengue fever (Aedes!)
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Polio is transmitted via fecal-oral route. TRUE or FALSE?
TRUE
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What is the difference between Salk and Sabin polio vaccines?
Salk: formalin-killed, SubQ; Sabin: live attenuated, oral
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Which viruses are most commonly culprit of the common cold?
Rhino and Corona
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What is the difference between Coxackie A and B?
A (above neck! Herpangina), B (below neck! Pleurodynia, Myo/ pericarditis)
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Negri bodies can be ound in which compartment of cell infected with which virus?
Cytoplasm, Rabies virus
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Filoviridae is famous for causing an epidemic of which disease?
Ebola
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What are the two common forms of protozoa?
Cysts (dormant), Trophozoite (motile)
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Entamoeba hystolitica causes water diarrhea. TRUE or FALSE?
FALSE, bloody
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Giardia lamblia is associated with what type of diarrhea?
Watery, foul-smelling, Steatorrheic stools
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What protozoan is associated with an STD?
Trichomonas vaginalis
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Which antibiotic is used to treat Naegleria infection?
Amphotericin B
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Differentiate two disease causing free-living protozoans?
Naegleria: acute, PAM; Acanthamoeba: subacute, GAE
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Toxoplasmosis commonly affects which 2 organs?
Brain (mass lesion), Eyes (retina)
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What is the characteristic fever pattern of the different Plasmodium species?
P. falciparum: 24-28hrs, P. vivax: 48hrs, P. ovale: 48hrs, P. malariae: 72hrs
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Which Plasmodium species feared fr its complications?
P. falciparum
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Which Plasmodium species is/ are associated with malarial relapse?
P. vivax/ ovale Other Buzzwords: Hypnozoites, Primaquine
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What are the vectors of the blood-borne flagellates?
Leishmania: sandfly, Trypanozoma brucei: tsetse fly, Trypanosoma cruzi: reduviid/ assassin bug
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What are the other common names for the blood-borne flagellate diseases?
Leishmania: kala-azar, Trypanozoma brucei: African sleeping sickness, Trypanosoma cruzi: Chagas
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What is the buzzword for Chagas disease?
Caused by Tom Cruzi, who played an assasin in MI, wearing niFURtimox and driving a mercedes-Benznidazole
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What are the 3 most important soil-tramitted helminths?
Ascaris, Trichuris, Hookworms
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Which of the parasitic worms have a lung phase?
Ascaris, Hookworm, Strongyloides
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What are the common names of the different parasitic worms?
Ascaris: giant roundworm, Trichuris: whipworm, Enterobius: pinworm, Paragonimus: lung fluke, Shistosoma: blood fluke, Clomorchis/ Fasciola: liver fluke
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Which of the parasitic worms are capable of autoinfection?
Strongyloides, Capillaria, Hymenolepis nana
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Which of the parasitic worms infect by skin penetration?
Hookworm, Strongyloides
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Nocturnal periodicity is characteristic of which parasite?
Elephantiasis (microfilariae)
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Whati is the infective stage of Schistosoma?
Cercaria
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Taenia Solium is to_a_ as T. saginatta is to_b_ as Diphyllobothrium latum is to _c_
a. Pork, B. Beef, C. Fish
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Whish among the 3 flatworms above is capable of causing a neurologic disease?
T. solium( neurocyticercosis)
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Hydatid disease is caused by which organism?
Echinococcus granulosis/multilocularis
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What is the basic guide in treatment of common parasitic disease?
Roundworms: Albendazole/mebendazole, pyrantel pamoate; Flatworms/Flukes: praziquantel,niclosamide
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What are the special test associated with specific parasites?
Many parasites: fecalysis; Malaria: PBS; Enterobius: scotch tape test
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what are intermediate hosts of specific parasites?
T. solium: pig; T saginatta: cow; D. latum: fish; Echinococcus: sheep/dog; Paragonismus: crabs; Capillaria: fish, shrimp, crabs; Schistosoma: snail