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Diagnostic Microbiology > Microbiology: The Final Jam. This is serious. Don't walk away. > Flashcards

Microbiology: The Final Jam. This is serious. Don't walk away. Flashcards

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1
Q

Hugh-Leifson OF media is used to _____.

What would the results of the following look like?

  1. Oxidation only
  2. Fermentation only
  3. Fermentation or possible fermentation *and* oxidation
  4. Assacharolytic organisms
A

Find if unknown metabolizes carbohydrates oxidatively, through fermentation, or is asaccharolytic.

Results:

  1. Acid production in open tube.
  2. Acid production in closed tube.
  3. Acid in both open and closed tube.
  4. No acid production in either of the two tubes
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2
Q

Discolored teeth in children under 8 years of age may be an effect of this antibiotic.

  • Is this an NSA or BSA?
  • What does this antibiotic inhibit?
A

Tetracycline:

  • BSA
  • Protein synthesis
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3
Q
  • Chocolate and Brucella are ideal media for recovery of what organism?
  • What are the O2 requirements of this organism?
  • What does this organism induce?
A
  • Helicobacter
  • Microaerophilic
  • Peptic ulcer disease
    • Chronic shallow ulcerations of the mucosa in any portion of the GI exposed to HCl
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4
Q

The peptone (protein derivatives) concentration in Hugh-Leifson OF media is _____.

A

Decreased

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5
Q
  • Vibrio spp. is a lactose _____.
  • What are the morbidity and mortality rates of Vibrio cholerae?
  • What is the hemolytic pattern of Vibrio?
A
  • Vibrio is NLF except V. vulnificus (which is LF).
  • 3 to 5 million cases and 100,000 deaths per year.
  • Possibly beta.
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6
Q

Aeromonas, Vibrio, and Chromobacterium (AVC) are Mac _____.

A

Positive

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7
Q

The HACEK group is composed of

A
  • Aggregatibacter (Haemophilus) aprophilius
  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
  • Cardiobacterium hominis
  • Eikenella corrodens
  • Kingella spp.
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8
Q

Antagonistic

Synergistic

A

When the result of using 2 drugs together is significantly less when used individually.

When the result of using 2 drugs together is significantly more when used individually.

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9
Q

What is special about Pseudomonas aeruginosa’s plate morphology?

What type of flagella does P aeruginosa have?

A

Does and doesn’t appear mucoid

Polar monotrichous

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10
Q

P aeruginosa can be treated with aminoglycosides and _____.

For Chromobacterium violaceum Penicillin activity is _____ and Cefotaxime is _____.

Bacteriostatic antibiotics that do not affect Gram negative organisms

A

ESPs Carbapenems Quinolones

Variable Effective

Macrolides

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11
Q

Gram stain Aeromonas

A

Straight Gram-negative rods with rounded ends.

Possibly coccobacilli.

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12
Q
  • Methicillin, Ampicillin, Amoxicillin are _____.
  • Paenibacillus polymyxa produces _____.
  • Pyorubin color is _____.
A
  • Penicillins
  • Polymixins
  • Rust (Red Maroon)
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13
Q

Two antibiotics of cell membrane function.

Inhibitors of cell membrane function are more effective against _____.

T or F: All antimicrobials are antibiotics

T or F: All antibiotics are antimicrobials

A

Polymyxin B and Colistin

Gram-negative bacteria

False

True

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14
Q

What are four examples of broad spectrum antibiotics?

What might two treatments be for Vibrio vulnificans?

A

Tetracyclines, Phenicols, Flouroquines, 3rd and 4th-gen cephalosporins

Doxycycline and ceftazidime

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15
Q

Campy-CVA contains these 3 antibiotics

A

Cefoperazone, Vancomycin, Amphotericin B

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16
Q

What is TCBS?

What is its purpose?

A

Thiosulfate Citrate Bile-salts Sucrose

TCBS is a selective media for Vibrio spp.

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17
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotics (BSAs) include _____ (4).

A

Tetracyclines

Phenicols

Flouroquines

3rd and 4th-gen cephalosporins

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18
Q

Presumptive ID of Campylobacter includes _____ colonies on selective media. These colonies are also _____.

Doxycycline and ceftazidime

A

Gray to pink to yellow gray

Mucoid appearing

Treatment of V. vulnificans

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19
Q

Modified charcoal cefoperazone deoxycholate agar (CCDA)

A

Blood is replaced by charcoal, Fe-sulfate, and Na-Pyruvate. This combination is thought to improve aerotolerance of campylobacter

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20
Q

Kingella spp differ from Neisseria gonorrhoeae in that they are _____.

A
  • Catalase negative
  • Superoxol negative
  • Nitrate positive.
21
Q

Vibrio colony morphology

A

Medium to large, smooth, opaque. Greenish hue on SBAP.

Possibly beta hemolytic

22
Q

VREs should be treated with _____ and _____.

What two antibiotic types can aminoglycosides be combined with to improve pt outcome? Name an example of each.

A

Streptogramins and oxazolidones

Beta lactams or glycopeptides. Pipericillin, Vancomycin.

23
Q

Sulfonamides are a BSA that does not work against the species _____.

What are three major pathologies of Campylobacter

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Pathologies of Campylobacter include:

  • Febrile systemic disease
  • Periodontal disease
  • Gastroenteritis (C. jujuni. C. coli)
24
Q

What type of antibiotic are aminoglycosides and sulfonamides?

A

NSAs effective against aerobic bacteria

25
Q

Three antibiotics that inhibit DNA/RNA synthesis.

A

Fluoroquinolones

Metronidazole

Rifampin

26
Q

Oral antibiotics (doxycycline) and intravenous (ceftazidime) are treatments to what?

A

Meliodosis

27
Q

Yellow-pigmented glucose oxidizer. Growth on MAC (NLF) Oxidase +

A

Chryseobacterium meningosepticum

Elizabethkingia meningoseptica

28
Q
  1. These microaerophilic GNB are fastidious and asaccharolytic
  2. This microorganism is associated with wound infections, septicemia with low BP and septic shock (esp. in patients with liver diseases).
A
  • Campylobacter and Arcobacter
  • Vibrio vulnificans
29
Q
  1. Two very important oxidase positive, non-fermentative GNB are _____.
  2. What is special about Acinetobacter and Stenotrophomonas?
A
  • Pseudomonas and Burkholderia
  • Oxidase negative GNF
30
Q

Bacteriostatic inhibitors of protein synthesis (2)

A

Macrolides and Chloramphenicol

31
Q
  1. Phenylethyl alcohol agar selects for
  2. PEA inhibits the growth of
  3. G+ organisms have a _____ wall that contains _____ acids.
  4. Haemophilus O2 requirements
  5. Haemophilus preferred agar is ______
  6. Haemophilus _____ requires sterile gauze, saline, and cotton swab yo collect.
A
  1. Capnophilic
  2. Chocolate
  3. ducreyi
  4. G+ cocci
  5. G- bacilli
  6. Thick, teichoic
32
Q

What is contained in Modified Thayer-Martin media?

A
  • Chocolate agar base (Hgb)
  • Vancomycin
  • Colistin
  • Nystatin
  • Trimethoprim lactate*

*Not in regular Thayer Martin

33
Q

This prevents O2 from easily diffusing to bottom of tube

Group B strep is selected for in this broth

Swarming of Proteus is inhibited by this agar

A

Thioglycolic acid

LIM broth

PEA

34
Q

The three primary purposes of bacterial cultivation are … ?

A
  1. To grow and isolate all bacteria present in a clinical specimen
  2. Determine which bacteria are causing illness, which are contaminants, and which are normal flora
  3. Obtain significant growth for identification
35
Q
  1. Proper incubation for Neisseria meningitidis, gonorrhoeae, and Moraxella catarrhalis
  2. Gram-negative coccobacilli has an odor that can best be described as _____.
A
  • SBAP* and Chocolate (*Except Ng). Increased CO2 and humidity
  • Mousy
36
Q
  1. What is LIM Broth?
  2. What is hippurate hydrolysis? What are some examples of bacteria this test is positive for.
A
  • LIM is a selective enrichment broth for Group B Streptococci. It is prepared from Todd Hewitt broth.
  • Used for both G+/G- bacteria producing Hippuricase.
    • S agalactiae
    • Gardnerella vaginalis
    • Campylobacter jejuni
37
Q

How is Erlichia transmitted?

A

E. chaffeensis is transmitted by

  • Lone Star Tick (Amblyomma americanum).
  • Believed to be different than STARI
  • Southern Tick Associated Rash Illness

Tick needs to be attached to human skin for 24 hours to transmit the bacteria.

Dogs, cats may serve as reservoirs

Merck Manual

38
Q

Pathology of C trachomatis in humans (the only natural habitat of this organism) includes _____.

A
  • Trachoma-ocular eye infection causing blindness
  • Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)
  • Genital infections (urethritis, cervicitis, proctitis, epididymitis)
39
Q

What are 5 lactose fermenters?

What are the two lactose fermentation enzymes?

A

Lactose fermenters (requiring permease and beta-galactosidase):

  • Proteus
  • Salmonella
  • Shigella
  • Seratia marcescens
  • Yersinia enterocolitica
40
Q
  • H. ducreyi growth time, conditions, and agar(s).
  • What is X-Factor? What is V-Factor?
  • What are the four primary enterobacteriaceae spp?
  • Which enterobacteriaceae is catalase positive?
A
  • Haemophilus ducreyi
    1. 7 days
    2. High humidity
    3. Mueller Hinton agar OR Heart Infusion agar
  • Protoporphyrin IX, NAD
  • E. coli, Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia
  • Shigella dysenteriae
41
Q

Pathway in which glucose is degraded

3 Gram-positive bacilli spp

A

Embden Meyerhoff Pathway

Bacillus Corynebacterium Listeria

42
Q

Endospore advantages

A

Resistant to heat/drying/extreme conditions

43
Q

3 Important GNCB

A

Haemophilus

Legionella

Bordatella

44
Q

Treatment for Bacillus pertussis

(3 antibiotics)

A

Macrolides

  • azithromycin
  • erythromycin
  • clarithromycin
45
Q

What are the contents of TSI agar?

A
  • Glucose
  • Sucrose
  • Lactose
  • Phenyl Red (pH indicator)
46
Q

Catalase negative gram-positive bacilli

A

Erisopelothrix rhusiopathiae

47
Q

Enterobacteriaceae on SBAP or Chocolate

A

Large gray smooth colonies

48
Q

What differentiates both Proteus species?

A

P. mirabilis: Indole-
P. vulgaris: Indole+

Diagnostic Microbiology (8 decks)

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