Examination 4: Part II: Electric Boogaloo (Mycobacterium / Spirochetes) Flashcards

1
Q

Do Mycobacteria spp. form spores?

Why is nutrient uptake more difficult for Mycobacteria?

What are mycolic acids?

A

No

because of the high lipid content of the cell walls

long fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Staining characteristics for Mycobacteria

A
  • Slender G+/v rods
  • Acid fast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The following organisms are all a part of the _____.

  • M. tuberculosis
  • M. bovis and M. bovis BCG
  • M. africanum
  • M. caprae
  • M. canettii
  • M. microti
  • M. pinnipedii
A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

5 Runyon Groups are

A
    1. Photochromogens
    1. Scotochromogens
    1. Nonphotochromogens
    1. Rapid Growers
    1. Non-cultivatable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Photochromagens _____.

Scotochromogens _____.

A

require light to form pigment. Incubate in dark initially, then expose to light

produce pigment in dark or light conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Nonphotochromagens are _____.

A

non-pigmented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

M. xenopi found in

M. xenopi infections include

A

hot water taps in hospitals

pulmonary and disseminated disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

2 organisms in MAC

A
  • M. avium
  • M. cellulare
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe M. leprae

A
  • Obligate intracellular bacteria
  • Naturally found in armadillos and mice & causes leprosy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the safety standards for Mycobacteria?

A

BSL 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Appropriate specimens for Mycobacteria

A

any tissue or organ (sputum, tissue/granuloma, urine, bone, CSF, blood, GI, stool)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the purpose of digestion and decontamination followed by neutralization and concentration

A
  • Kill normal flora bacteria that outgrow TB
  • Release TB from cells and/or mucin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Agents for digestion and decontamination include

A
  • Trisodium phosphate (TSP)
  • Zephiran
  • 6% NaOH
  • 5% Oxalic acid
  • NALC NaOH method
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Specimen Processing steps (first three)

A
  • Digestion
  • Decontamination
  • Neutralization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hot Staining method, aka

Cold staining method, aka

A

Ziehl Neelsen

Kinyon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

To report a slide as negative for Acid-Fast

A

must scan at least 300 oil immersion fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

To report a slide as negative for Fluorochrome

A

must scan at least 30 400X fields

18
Q

What solid media are recommended? (2)

A

1 Agar based (Middlebrook 7H10 non-selective)

1 Egg-Potato based (Lowenstein-Jensis, Petragnani)

19
Q

What liquid media are available?

A

Middlebrook 7H9 broth

BACTEC 12B medium

20
Q

What does the secondary stage of syphilis consist of?

A
  • Diffuse lesions
  • 2-10 wks flu-like symptoms
  • POSSIBLY continues into:
    • Latency period, wherein the disease becomes asymptomatic and subclinical
21
Q

What does Treponema pallidum subsp. pertenue
cause and how does it spread?

How is T pallidum identified

A
  • Yaws in children
  • Person-to-person via breaks in skin
  • PCR, molecular techniques
  • Serodiagnosis (Reagin)
  • direct detection
22
Q

What are the morphological characteristics of spirochetes? How is Treponema pallidum usually treated?

A

Long, slender, coiled gram negative rods with flagella-like fibrils (providing motility) and an outer sheath. Penicillins.

23
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Yaws.

A
  • Skin lesions
  • Disfigurement of nose/bones,
  • Thickening, cracking of palms of hands, soles of the feet making walking painful
24
Q

What are the two causative agents of lyme disease?

What is the first stage of Lyme disease?

A
  1. B. burgdorferi sensu stricto
  2. Borrelia mayonii
  • Specific: Erythema chronicum migrans (bulls eye lesion)
  • Nonspecific: Headaches,fatigue, chills 3-30 days following exposure
25
What are the second and third stages of Lyme disease?
* Joint and muscle pain, cardiac arrhythmias, carditis * Can occur weeks after after initial bite * Chronic arthritis, possibly neurologic involvement * 2-3 years after bite
26
Two major spp. of Leptospira include...?
``` Leptospira interrogans (cause of human leptospirosis) Leptospira biflexa (environmental strains) ```
27
Mycobacterium tuberculosis and kansasii are positive for
Niacin
28
Specimen Processing steps (second three)
* Concentration * Set up Smears * Set up cultures
29
What is the treatment for Borrellia
* Doxycycline in adults * Doxycycline is contraindicated in children under 8-10 years of age, treatment is 14 day course of amoxicillin. No protocol for *prophylaxis* exists for children.
30
What species are part of the rickettsia spotted fever group?
* R. conorii (Israeli spotted fever) Europe, Middle east * R. rickettsii (Rocky mountain spotted fever) U.S.
31
Treponema pallidum subsp endemicum causes _____ which is spread \_\_\_\_\_.
* Nonvenereal syphilis * mouth to mouth via utensils
32
The primary stage of syphilis includes...
* Chancres, skin lesions at site of bacterial penetration (10-90d after the initial infections) * Bacteria proliferate and enter blood, lymphatics.
33
Treatment for Yaws C trachomatis is responsible for _____ and \_\_\_\_\_.
One course of azithromycin PID, ectopic pregnancy
34
Chlamydia characteristics
* Obligate intracellular bacteria (previously considered a virus) * Cannot be grown on cell-free media. * Life cycle is similar to parasites * Intracellular form termed a reticulate body * Extracellular, inert form (elementary body) The EB cannot survive for long outside of a host cell.
35
What spp are part of the Rickettsia typhus group?
* R. prowazekii (epidemic typhus) * R. typhi (murine ((endemic)) typhus( * fever * headache * rash * doxycycline is curative
36
Which spp are obligate **intracellular** bacteria?
* Chlamydia * Anaplasma * Rickettsia * Ehrlichia
37
**Erlichia signs/symptoms and treatment**
* Fever, headache, chills, vomiting, confusion, joint pain * 7-10 day course of doxycycline (tetracycline)
38
How is Erlichia transmitted?
* E. chaffeensis is transmitted by * Lone Star Tick (Amblyomma americanum). * Believed to be different than STARI * Southern Tick Associated Rash Illness * Tick needs to be attached to human skin for 24 hours to transmit the bacteria. * Dogs, cats may serve as reservoirs * Merck Manual
39
Cell wall deficient bacterial spp.
* Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma * Smallest of known free-living bacteria (0.3 to 0.8 microns) * Can be normal flora of the mouth, upper respiratory and genitourinary tract. * Fastidious
40
Aerobic actinomyces (3)
Nocardia, Streptomyces, Rhodococcus
41
How is Borrellia identified?
* Serology is preferred method * Cultivation is possible, numbers may be low * Often can be seen in peripheral blood smears with the Wright’s stain before infection is clinically detected.
42
Reticulate body, elementary body
Intracellular, extracellular (Chlamydia)