microbiology practicals - sem 2 Flashcards

1
Q

how can bacterial meningitis cause symptoms such as severe headache, nausea and vomiting

A

strong inflammatory response –> pus –> blocks various foramina –> increased intracranial pressure

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2
Q

what is the commonest cause of meningitis

A

viruses

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3
Q

what are the 3 major bacteria causing acute meningitis and what are their characteristic gram stains

A

Haemophilus influenza B - small gram negative rods Strep pneumonia - gram positive diplococci Neisseria meningitidis - grave negative cocci in pairs

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4
Q

how does the determination of protein, glucose and leucocytes help in the management of acute meningitis

A

gives you an indication whether the infection is viral or bacterial or fungal

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5
Q

what rapid diagnostic tests are used in the diagnosis of meningitis

A

gram stain slide agglutination with latex beads covered with Ab PCR

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6
Q

when should a patient be started on treatment with meningitis

A

as soon as it is suspected

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7
Q

what is the antibiotic treatment for the major causes of bacterial meningitis

A

3rd generation cephalosporin such as cefitriaxone

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8
Q

which organism is the fine petecial rash assocaited with

A

N. meningitidis

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9
Q

Why is CSF inoculated into serum broth when testing for meningitis

A

patient may have been given antibiotics prior to LP - and therefore very hard to gram stain. However if just one bacterium is left it will grow overnight in serum broth and therefore can isolate the organism easier

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10
Q

which common cause of meningitis is imperative that AB susceptibility testing is performed

A

Strep pneumonia - increasing prevalence to beta-lactams (by mutating beta-lactam binding protein)

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11
Q

what is the AB that is “added in” for treatment of Strep pneumonia meningitis

A

Vancomycin

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12
Q

What is the characteristic gram stain of Strep B aggolacti

A

gram positive cocci in long chains

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13
Q

What is the current course for prevention of birth transmitted gram negative bacteria to babies (that would cause meningitis)

A

screen mother between 35-37 weeks gestation –> if positive –> give AB 4 hours before delivery

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14
Q

what is the commonest cause of viral meningitis

A

enterovirus

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15
Q

what types of things can determine disease prevalence

A
  • climate/geography - vectors, reservoirs - weather - wealth of community - hygiene, sanitation, vaccination programs - length of stay - local agriculture and animal husbandary
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16
Q

parasitic infections are particularly prevalent in which type of travellers

A

those returning from the tropics

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17
Q

how do you diagnose parasitic infection in a returned travellor

A
  • blood (thick and thin films) - blood for serology - faeces - sticky tape to perianal area - skin snips, biopsy specimens
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18
Q

what do you use thick and thin blood films for

A

thick - trypanosomiasis and filariasis thick and thin films for malaria

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19
Q

what is the gold standard for diagnosis of eukaryotic parasites

A

visualising them micro/macroscopically

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20
Q

infections in travellers fall into what 3 broad categories

A

common infections exotic infections emerging or re-emerging infections

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21
Q

how can a hookworm infection lead to anaemia

A

hookworm attaches to intestinal wall –> bleed

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22
Q

in what stage of the life cycle does hookworm infect humans

A

semi-matured hookworm that lives in soil –> penetrates bare feet

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23
Q

in what stage of the life cycle does hookworm make you ill

A

when it matures into adult worm and attaches to the intestinal wall

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24
Q

how do you diagnose hookworm

A

eggs in faeces

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25
what causes the abdominal discomfort associated with ascaris infection
blockage of viscera (due to large size)
26
in what stage of the life cycle of ascaris infects humans
fertile eggs - ate fertile eggs from faeces
27
how does infected RBCs (with malaria) lead to organ damage
the infected RBCs are sticky and clog up the microvasculature for the organ = organ damage
28
why do you get inflammatory symptoms with malaria
due to cytokine response that you get when RBCs burst
29
why do you get splenomegaly with malarial infection
due to the spleen trying to clear all the infected RBCs
30
in what stage of the life cycle does malaria infect humans
as sporozoites
31
in what stage of the life cycle does malaria make you sick
as merozoites that infect RBCs
32
why is strongyloides particularly nasty
because it can cause autoinfection (can carry gut microflora into the blood when penetrating the intestinal wall) --\> gram negative septicaemia
33
why does salmonella typhi live in the body
within macrophages
34
treatment of typhoid
quinolones 3rd generation cephalosporins macrolides
35
how do STIs lead to an increased risk of HIV
infection brings in WBCs to the site --\> HIV can more easily infect CD4 T cells
36
what is the mainstay diagnostic investigations for STIs
serology for antigen and antibodies
37
how can you tell if an infection is acute or chronic
type of antibody - IgM initially, converted to IgG rising antibody titre suggests acute (GOLD STANDARD) low affinity antibodies
38
why is it more likely for perinatal infection with a primary infection of the mother
baby wont get any Ab from the mother that would be protective if the mother hasnt encountered the antigen before
39
the interpretation of serology results for STIs depends on
infectious agent patient test specificity and sensitivity
40
what is the difference between the avidity and affinity of Ab
avidity = the strength of Ab binding to R from a preparation of a MIXTURE of Ab affinity = the strength of Ab binding to R from a preparation of pure Ab
41
what are the different things that "Ab against X are negative" mean
- hasnt been infected with X before (still susceptible) - hasn't been vaccinated against X - has been vaccinated against X but didnt convert to Ab +ve - has the infection, but still in incubation period - could be immunocompromised - assay may not be sensitive enough - lab stuffed up
42
what is the difference between an Ab response to an infectious agent or a vaccine
vaccine = Abs only made against a specific antigen native infection = make Ab against multiple antigens
43
what is the main population that has Gonorrhoea
men who have sex with men
44
treatment for Gonorrhea
ceftriaxone + azithromycin
45
how are the hepatitis viruses spread?
A and E = foecal-oral route B, C and D = parenteral route
46
what is the most sensitive marker for acute hepatitis B infection
Hep B surface antigen (will be negative for Ab)
47
what is the significance of being HepBe Ag positive
it means that there is active replication of the virus
48
what serology results would you expect from someone who becomes a chronic carrier of HepB
HbsAg +ve (negative for Ab) IgG +ve (IgM for acute infection)
49
what serology results would you expect from someone who clears a Hep B infection
- HbsAg -ve - Hbs Ab +ve - IgM -ve - IgG +ve - HbeAg -ve - Hbe Ab +ve
50
what is the treatment for acute Hep B infection
give hyperimmune globulin and hep B vaccine
51
which ganglia does HSV 2 hide in
trigeminal or sacral
52
treatment of HSV
acyclovir
53
what are the three most common causes of erythematous maculopapular rash
rubella parvovirus enterovirus
54
which viruses can lead to significant leucocytosis
EBC, CMV early HIV
55
what test do you perform to test for EBV
the monospot - have Ab to sheep RBCs (EBV infected B cells will spit out there Ab - and due to the random recombination of Ab genes there will be one that reacts to sheep blood by chance)
56
use of cetrimide agar
contains a disinfectant
57
gram stains of neisseria and clostridium
neisseria - GNC clostridium - GPR
58
how can you tell the difference between strep pyogenes and strep agolacti
pyogenes (group A) = bactraicin sensitive, grows on MAC agolacti (group B) = bactraicin R, does not grow on MAC (both beta-haemolytic)
59
explain the sensitization phase of an antigen for a type 1 HS reaction
APC presents to Th2 --\> produces IL-4,5 and CD40L --\> promotes B cell differentiation and isotype switching to IgE --\> IgE binds to mast cell via FceR1
60
what happens during the response phase of T1HS reaction
allerge promotes cross linking of IgE on mast cell --\> causes degranulation and exocytosis of pre-formed mediators such as histamine, TNF-alpha, leuktrienes, PGs etc
61
what happens to the gut, skin, airways and blood vessels during T1HS reaction
gut - increased secretion and peristalsis --\> diarrhoea and vomiting skin - increased fluid secretion and vasodilation --\> swelling, itching, uticaria airways --\> decreased bronchial diameter and increased mucous --\> obstruction blood vessels --\> increased permeability and blood flow --\> increasd fluid into tissues --\> shock