microbiology exam 2 first attempt Flashcards

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1
Q

The main difference between disinfectants and antiseptics is

A

Antiseptics can be used on tissue

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2
Q

A population is reduced from 110^9 to 110^4 cells in 10 min. What is the D value?

A

2 min.

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3
Q

The difference between ionizing radiation and nonionizing radiation is

A

All of the above

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4
Q

With most disinfectants the higher the concentration the better the kill. The exception to this general rule occurs with:

A

Alcohols

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the three organisms used in the AOAC use-dilution test?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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6
Q

The Anderson sampler is used in:

A

The bacterial filtration efficiency (BFE) test

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7
Q

Anti microbial hand wash

A

4% chlorhexidine

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8
Q

Semi-critical instrument disinfection

A

2-3.2% glutaraldehyde or PAA based disinfectant

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9
Q

Counter top or other small surface disinfection

A

70-80% ethyl alcohol

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10
Q

Anti microbial in mop water for floors

A

Substituted phenols

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11
Q

Sterilization of heat-liable plastics (petri dishes):

A

Gamma irradiation

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12
Q

Anti-tuberculosis drug that inhibits cell wall synthesis

A

Isoniazid

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13
Q

Commonly combined with trimethoprim; inhibits dihydrofolate synthesis

A

Sulfanilamide

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14
Q

A beta lactam antibiotic with 2 sites that can be chemically modified

A

Cephalosporin

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15
Q

An amino glycoside; binds 30s ribosome; must be given by injection

A

Streptomycin

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16
Q

The first antibiotic used in humans

A

Penicillin G

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17
Q

A macrolide which binds the 50s ribosomal subunit

A

Erythromycin

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18
Q

Disrupt nucleic acid synthesis by inhibiting bacterial DNA gyrase

A

Quinolone

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19
Q

A polypeptide antibiotic found in topical ointments; kills group A strep

A

Bacitracin

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20
Q

A Polyene anti fungal agent that disrupts membrane permeability:

A

Amphotericin

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21
Q

Antiviral agent used to treat herpes virus infections

A

Acyclovir

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22
Q

Causes black hairy tongue as a side effect:

A

Metronidazole

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23
Q

A quinolone that inhibits prokaryotic DNA gyrase

A

Ciproflaxin

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24
Q

Inhibits DNA-directed RNA polymerase; used to treat TB

A

Rifampin

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25
Q

The most commonly used and produced antibiotic in the world:

A

Cephalosporin

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26
Q

Antiviral thymidine analog used to treat HIV infection

A

AZT

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27
Q

Which genus of bacteria produce more useful antibiotics than any other:

A

Streptomyces

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28
Q

Which of the following is not a lymphocyte?

A

Monocyte

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29
Q

Which of the following is NOT phagocytic?

A

Lymphocyte

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30
Q

Cytotoxic T cells contain which 2 key protein molecules which constitute the kiss of death?

A

Granzymes and perforins

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31
Q

Serum:

A

All of the above

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32
Q

Make and secrete antibody:

A

Plasma cell

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33
Q

Breaks up to form platelets

A

Megakaryocyte

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34
Q

Important in resistance to large parasites

A

Eosinophil

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35
Q

Blood cells which contain histamine

A

Basophil

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36
Q

Cell of acquired immunity; matures in bone marrow in mammals

A

B cell

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37
Q

Most common leukocyte in the blood

A

Neutrophil

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38
Q

Tissue cells which contain histamine

A

Mast cell

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39
Q

Phagocyte which can be activated to be a more efficient killer

A

Macrophage

40
Q

Cells which direct and regulate the acquired immune response

A

T cell

41
Q

Lymphocytes which destroy aberrant cells non specifically

A

Natural killer cell

42
Q

Which cells are not part of the mononuclear phagocytic system?

A

Plasma cells

43
Q

complement fixation results in:

A

all of the above; leukocyte chemotaxis, opsonization, lysis of foreign cells

44
Q

interferons:

A

all of the above: produced by virus-infected cells, signal adjacent cells to produce antiviral proteins, can be alpha beta or gamma

45
Q

which of the following is NOT a cardinal sign of inflammation

A

itching

46
Q

primary lymphoid tissue

A

A and B, is where cells of acquired immunity develop, consists of the bone marrow and the thymus in humans

47
Q

booster immunizations:

A

all of the above

48
Q

the antigen-recognition molecule of T cells:

A

T cell receptor

49
Q

increases phagocytosis:

A

opsonin

50
Q

found on every nucleated cell of the body:

A

MHC class I

51
Q

found only on the surface of antigen-presenting cells

A

MHC class II

52
Q

the antigen-recognition molecule of B cells:

A

immunoglobulin

53
Q

main serium antibody; has longest serium half-life

A

IgG

54
Q

can fix complement:

A

IgG and IgM

55
Q

has (have) a J chain (for joining more than one unit together):

A

IgM and IgA

56
Q

exists most commonly as a pentamer

A

IgM

57
Q

no other function besides B cell receptor:

A

IgD

58
Q

produced in greatest abundance each day by the body

A

IgA

59
Q

attaches to mast cells and basophiols; involved in allergies:

A

IgE

60
Q

microglial cells, mesangial cells and kupffer cells are all types of

A

fixed macrophages

61
Q

a viral infection is most often indicated by an increase in the number of peripheral blood ____

A

lymphocytes

62
Q

the complement system was so named:

A

because the proteins involved complement the action of antibodies

63
Q

protein A on the surface of S. aureus is a virulence factor because it:

A

binds antibody by the Fc end

64
Q

lancefield typing is done with:

A

streptococcus

65
Q

immunologically privileged sites

A

all of the above

66
Q

which of the following is NOT on the list of recommended childhood and adolescent immunizations for EVERYONE in the US?

A

BCG (for TB)

67
Q

passive immunity:

A

provides only temporary protection

68
Q

requires an ultraviolet light source

A

fluorescent antibody test

69
Q

current blood test to screen for HIV antibodies

A

ELISA

70
Q

blood typing

A

hemagglutination

71
Q

labeled antibody used to detect protein on a membrane

A

western blot

72
Q

antigen and antibody diffuse toward each other in gel

A

ouchterlony

73
Q

antigen quantitated by measuring diameter of precipitation ring:

A

radial immunodiffusion

74
Q

separate proteins in a gel, then add antisera in a trough; precipitation arcs identify multiple specific proteins

A

immunoelectrophoresis

75
Q

the reaction to poison ivy

A

type IV hypersensitivity

76
Q

hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

type II hypersensitivity

77
Q

rheumatoid arthritis

A

type III hypersensitivity

78
Q

allergic contact dermatitis to latex gloves:

A

type IV hypersensitivity

79
Q

systemic exposure to an allergen that results in anaphylactic shock

A

type I hypersensitivity

80
Q

drug-induced anemia:

A

type II hypersensitivity

81
Q

characterized by autoantibodies against nuclear material:

A

systemic lupus erythematosus

82
Q

autoantibodies overstimulate the thyroid gland

A

graves disease

83
Q

patients fail to develop B cells or T cells

A

SCID

84
Q

characterized by cytotoxic T cells which destroy the myelin sheath around nervous tissue

A

multiple sclerosis

85
Q

according to your text, what is the reason there is no vaccine for the common cold?

A

there are so many different viruses from multiple families that cause the common cold, making it difficult to create a single vaccine that would protect against them all

86
Q

the fundamental difference between an agglutination and a precipitation test is

A

the solubility state of the antigen

87
Q

you contract the mumps from a friend and recover

A

naturally acquired active

88
Q

you get the MMR vaccine and are immune to measles

A

artificially acquired active

89
Q

You receive a y-globulin shot before traveling to Africa:

A

artificially acquired passive

90
Q

a baby receives protective antibody from breast milk

A

naturally acquired passive

91
Q

forms a grey pseudomembrane in the throat:

A

corynebacterium diptheriae

92
Q

causes pseudomembranous colitis; associated with antibiotic use:

A

clostridium difficile

93
Q

toxin causes spastic paralysis; associated with anaerobic wounds

A

clostridium tetani

94
Q

causes gas gangrene

A

clostridium perfringens

95
Q

diseases are gastrointestinal, cutaneous, or inhalation

A

bacillus anthracis

96
Q

causes flaccid paralysis; inhibits acetylcholine release

A

clostridium botulinum

97
Q

intracellular pathogen to which pregnant women are more susceptible; infection by consumption of contaminated milk and meats

A

listeria monocytogenes