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Microbiology Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Why is microbiology important for veterinary curriculum?

A

Gain knowledge in infectious disease of animals | Diagnose-> Treat -> Prevent

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2
Q 
In Bloom's Taxonomy of Learning, 
A. Cognitive= doing/ hands
B. Cognitive= knowing/ head
C. Affective = knowing/ head
D. Affective = feeling/ heart
E. Psychomotor= doing/ hands
F. A, C, E
G. B, D, E
A

G. B, D, E

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3
Q 
Microbiology:
A. Study of people
B. Study of small life
C. Study of microscopes
D. Study of animals
A

B. Study of Small Life

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4
Q

T/F: Microbes are beneficial and harmful

A

True: Harmful in disease and food spoilage

beneficial with probiotics and fermentation, antibiotics, vaccines, vitamins, etc..

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5
Q

What is the OneHealth Model?
A. Humans, Animals, Environment
B. Humans, Gas, Oil
C. Social, Mental, Physical

A

A. Humans, Animals, Environment

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6
Q 
Who made the first compound microscope ?
A. Hooke
B. Aristotle
C. Janssen
D. Pasteur
A

C. Janssen

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7
Q

T/F: Hooke had the first public depiction of a microorganism

A

True

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8
Q

Van Leeuwanhoek showed protozoa and bacteria; is this true?

A

Yes

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9
Q

Scanning Electron Microscopes run light thru internal image whereas Transmission show a 3D surface image: T/F

A

FALSE: It is the opposite

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10
Q 
All of these were contributions from Pasteur except:
A. Disproving spontaneous generation
B. Proposed Germ Theory
C. Vaccine for rabies and anthrax
D. First depiction of a microorganism
E. Pasterization
A

D. First depiction of a microorganism was Hooke

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11
Q

These are all koch’s postulates except for one:

  1. microorganisms must be found in all suffering not healthy
  2. microorganisms must be isolated from diseased and grown in pure culture
  3. Cultured microorganisms should cause disease when introduced to healthy
  4. microorganisms must be re isolated from inoculated diseased experimental host and identified as being identical to the original specific causative agent
  5. red bull gives you wings
A

5

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12
Q 
All these people were involved in spontaneous generation except:
A. Pasteur
B. Hooke
C. Aristotle
D. Redi
E. Needham & Spallanzani
A

B. Hooke

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13
Q 
The study of evolutionary history of living organisms is:
A. Phylogeny/ Systematics
B. Taxonomy
C. History
D. Biology
A

A. Phylogeny/ Systematics

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14
Q

T/F: David Bruce is associated with trypanosomes

A

True

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15
Q

Who is the father of antiseptic surgery?

A

Joe Lister

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16
Q

What is Jenner known for?

A

Smallpox

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17
Q

Who is the father of modern pathology (zoonosis)?

A

Rudolf Virchow

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18
Q

Who discovered penicillin?

A

Flemming

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19
Q

Who discovered phagocytosis?

A

Metchnikoff

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20
Q 
All biological macromolecules are made of all of the following except:
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
E. Sugar
F. Sulfar
G. Phosphorous
A

E. Sugar

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21
Q

T/F: All living things have a plasma membrane, use ATP, genetic info in DNA

A

TRUE

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22
Q 
Population that can breed and produce fertile offspring:
A. group
B. Species
C. Crowd
D. Genotype
A

B. Species

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23
Q

What is taxonomy?

A

study of classification of living objects: Linnaeus

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24
Q

The modern classification of living objects is called:

A

Binomial Nomenclature

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25
Q

What are the current 3 domain classifications?
A. Prokaryotes, Eukaryotes, Archea
B. Bacteria, Archea, Eukaryota
C. Eubacteria, Eukarya, Prokarya

A

B. Bacteria, Archea, Eukaryota

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26
Q

T/F: Eukaryotes have no nuclear membrane, no membrane enclosed organelles, no carbohydrates, no sterols, no cytoskeleton, a ribosome 70s, binary fission, no meiosis

A

False: Those are the characteristics of prokaryotes; eukaryotes have a true nucleus, have lysosomes, golgi, ER, mitochondria, and chloroplasts, have sterols and carbohydrates, a cytoskeleton, ribosome 80s and 70s, use mitosis, involves meiosis

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27
Q

T/F: Archea are prokaryotic and lack peptidoglycan

A

True: they do not undergo binary fission, they are found in extreme environments: like halophiles and thermophiles

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28
Q 
Eukaryota include:
A. protozoans
B. fungi
C. algae
D. Animals and plants
E. All of the Above
A

E. All of the above

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29
Q

T/F: a virus is a small infectious agent that replicates inside living cells, has genetic material, a protein coat, and an envelope

A

True

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30
Q

How do you identify bacteria?

A

Culture analysis of morphological characteristics and differential staining, biochemical tests, serology, phage typing, fatty acid profiling, nucleic acid base testing , mass spectrometry, PCR

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31
Q

How do you classify parasites?

A

Protazoa, 1 cell, amoeba metazoan, multi cell is helminths

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32
Q 
How do we learn about relationships between living objects?
A. Fossil Records
B. Comparative Homologies
C. Comparative Sequences 
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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33
Q

Molecular Biology…
A. study of molecular foundation of the process of replication, transcription, translation, and cell function
B. study of small living organisms
C. Study of life

A

A

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34
Q

DNA, RNA, Protein and their biosynthesis, regulation, and interactions: Their genetic material must be able to all the following except:
A. contain info necessary to make whole organism
B. pass from parent to offspring and from cell to cell during cell division
C. be accurately copied
D. account for the known variation within and between species
E. Generate new genes from dead genes

A

E.

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35
Q 
Who were the people to reveal DNA is the genetic material in transformation?
A. Avery
B. MacLeod
C. McCarty
D. Watson
E. A, B, C
A

E. A, B, C

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36
Q

Who did bacterial transformation?

A

Griffith with the rough and smooth strains that had capsules

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37
Q

Who came up with the DNA structure of the Double Helix?

A

Watson and Crick using Paulings method, with assistance from Franklin

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38
Q

Chargaffs rules state that:
A. A-T C-G
B. A-T = C-G
C. G-T = A-C

A

A. A to T C to G

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39
Q 
Nucleic acids have what three basic components?
A. Phosphate
B. Sugar
C. Nitrogenous Base
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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40
Q

T/F: RNA stores and transmits genetic info

A

False: DNA does that; RNA translates info coded in DNA for protein production

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41
Q

T/F: Nucleotides hace a phosphate group, hexose, and nitrogenous base

A

False: They have a pentose sugar not hexose

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42
Q

T/F: a phosphodiester bond links 2 sugars

A

True

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43
Q 
Which is not true about DNA:
A. double stranded helical
B. Sugar Phosphate
C. Bases on outside
D. Stable by H-Bonds
E. Base pairing with char gaffs rules
A

C. Bases on outside

They are actually on the inside

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44
Q

DNAs 3 components include:
A. Phosphate Group, Deoxyribose, Nitrogenous base (C, G, A, T)
B. Phosphate Group, Ribose, Nitrogenous Base (C, G, A, U)

A

A

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45
Q

T/F: DNA has 10 bases per turn, 2 strands that are complimentary and antiparallel

A

True

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46
Q

T/F: Replication happens in minor groove

A

False: Major groove

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47
Q

The process involved in replication matches which statement?
A. 2 strands of parental separate, template, new nucleotides obey chargaffs rules, end result is 2 new double helix with same base sequence as parent.
B. 2 strands of parental separate, one is template, and other disassociates, nucleotides pair up randomly and eat end result is 1 new double helix

A

A is the correct statment

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48
Q 
The ori (origin of replication)...
A. Fork
B. Fragments
C. start point of replication
D. provides rep bubble that forms
E. both C and D
A

E. Both C and D

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49
Q

T/F: Synthesis begins with a primer, proceeds in a 5’–3’ direction, leading strand made synthesis continues forward, lagging strand is made in okazaki fragments and connects later

A

True

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50
Q

T/F: DNA helices binds to DNA 5’–3’ separating while moving fork forward

A

True

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51
Q 
What does topoisomerase do?
A. Digests 
B. Separates
C. stops coiling
D. keeps it open
A

C. Stops coiling

single stranded binding protein keeps parts open

52
Q

The portions of the Central Dogma:
A. DNA (replicates)–Transcription—Translation
B. DNA - Translation- Transcription- Protein
C. DNA (replicates) – Transcription– Translation—Protein

53
Q

T/F: Transcription is the process of synthesizing specific polypeptides on ribosome

A

FALSE: Transcription produces RNA copy of a gene, structural gene produces mRNA that specifies Amino Acid Sequence has three phases: Iniation- recognition step promoter
Elongation: RNA polymerase synthesizes RNA, Termination: termination sequence

54
Q 
RNA processing: eukaryotic mRNAs made in larger premRNA has...
A. introns
B. exons
C. splicesomes
D. A and B
A

D. Introns transcribed not translated, Exons are coding sequences found in mature mRNA, splicing is the removal of introns and connecting of exons

55
Q 
What provides and regulates the system that ensures every animal has a unique and universally accepted scientific name?
A. FDA
B. AARP
C. ICZN
D. WHO
A

ICZN: Iternational Code of Zoological Nomenclature

56
Q 
All of a living things genetic material:
A. Genotype
B. Phenotype
C. Genome
D. Gene
57
Q

This organelle metabolizes and breaks down carbohydrates and fatty acids to generate ATP

A

Mitochondria; prokaryotic origin, descended from specialized bacteria

58
Q

True or False: A pathogen is a bacterium, virus, or other microorganism that can cause disease

59
Q 
Which of the following describes the network that works together in order to protect our bodies? 
A. Skeletal System
B. GI Tract
C. Smooth Muscle
D. Immune System
A

D. Immune system

60
Q 
Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 types of immune response?
A. Active
B. Adaptive
C. Innate
D. Immune Memory
A

A. Active

3 types of immune responses: Innate, Adaptice, Immune Memory

61
Q

True or False: Immunity is the ability for the body to ward off disease through defense mechanisms

62
Q

Which of the following is NOT a way for the immune system to prevent disease?
A. Prevent pathogens from entering
B. Killing all the things with clorox wipes
C. Neutralize and remove pathogens after entry
D. Destroy body’s own cells that have undergone change due to a pathogen

A

B. Killing all the things with clorox wipes

Prevent Disease:

  1. Prevent Entry
  2. Neutralize/ remove
  3. Destroy host infected cells
63
Q 
Which of the following describes the Innate immune response?
A. Specific 
B. Follows adaptive response 
C. Remembers old “assualt” 
D. Nonspecific
A 
D. Nonspecific
Innate
Prevents entry and invasion
Present at birth
Always present and available
Occurs immediately once a cell recognizes a problem
Nonspecific

Adaptive: Specific to specific pathogens once they breach innate response
Does not occur immediately
Immune memory
Remembers old assault and protects next time

64
Q 
Which of the following is a cellular component of the immune system?
A. Bone Marrow
B. T cell
C. B cell
D. Dendritic Cell
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

Cellular Components:
Bone Marrow
Stem Cells
Myeloid Cells
Eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, monocytes, dendritic cells, macrophages
Lymphoid Cells
B cels, T cells, NK cells
65
Q

Which of the following is one of the primary lymphoid organs?
A. Spleen
B. Lymph Node
C. Thymus
D. Mucosa associated with lymphoid tissue

A

C. Thymus

Primary: Thymus and Bone Marrow

Secondary: Spleen, Lymph Node, mucosa with lymph tissue

66
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the first line of defense? A. Skin
B. Normal Flora
C. Fever
D. Chemical Barrier

67
Q 
Which of the following is part of the second line of defense?
A. Ben Boulware
B. Mucous Membranes
C. Chemical Barrier
D. Neutrophils
A

D. Neutrophils

1st. Innate and Nonspecific, skin, physical barriers, chemical barriers, normal flora
2nd: Innate and nonspecific, phagocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes), inflammation, fever, antimicrobial substances
3rd: Adaptive and specific

68
Q 
Which of the following describes a macrophage of the liver?
A. Histiocyte
B. Kupffer Cell
C. Langerhan’s cell
D. Osteoclast
A

B. Kupffer Cell

Types of Macrophages:
Tissue: Histiocyte
Liver: Kupffer
Skin: Langerhans/ Dendritic
Brain: Microglia
Bone: Osteoclast
69
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a stage of phagocytosis?
A. Opsonization
B. Chemoxtaxis
C. Initiation
D. Ingestion
A 
C. Initiation
Phagocytosis:
Process of ingestion
-Microorganisms, cellular debris, nutrients
Phagocytes
-Neutrophils
-Eosinophils
-Macrophages
Stages of Phagocytosis
-Osponization
-Chemotaxis
-Adherence
-Ingestion
-Digestion
-Elimination
70
Q 
A complement, cascade of proteins, can destroy microbes by…
A. Enhanced phagocytosis
B. Inflammation
C. Termination
D. A and B
A

D. A and B
Complement
- innate immune system
- group of over 30 proteins activated as a cascade by a pathogen or antibody x antigen reaction
- destroy microbes by: enhanced phagocytosis, inflammation, cytolysis membrane attack (MAC)

71
Q

True or False: The three main types of interferons are alpha, beta, and delta

A

False: alpha, beta, gamma

72
Q 
Which of the following usually results on the outer surface of a pathogen after activation of the complement system? 
A. Interferons
B. Iron Binding Proteins 
C. Big Mac 
D. Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
73
Q 
Which of the following describes our 3rd line of defense?
A. Adaptive 
B. Acquired 
C. Specific 
D. All of the Above
A

D. all of the above

74
Q 
Who is considered the father of immunology?
A. Pasteur 
B. Lister 
C. Jenner 
D. Dr. Freeman
75
Q 
Which of the following describes any substance that requires the body to produce an antibody against it?  
A. Antibody
B. Antigen
C. Cytokine
D. B Cell
A

B. antigen

76
Q 
Which of the following describes a specific part of the an antigen that the antibody binds to? 
A. Amnesty
B. Eosinophil
C. Epitope
D. Hapten
A

C. Epitope

77
Q 
Which part of an antibody binds to a complement or macrophage? 
A. Fa region
B. Fb region
C. Fd region
D. Fc region
A

D. Fc Region

78
Q

True or False: The humoral response involves B cells and intracellular antigens

A

False:
Humoral Response: B cells and extracellular antigent
Cell Mediated Response: T Cells and intracellular antigens

79
Q

True or False: The amannestic response refers to the memory of the immune response

A

True

quicker and more intense next time

80
Q 
Which of the following is present in all nucleated cells? 
A. Class I MHC
B. Class II MHC
C. Class III MHC
D. Class of 2020
A

A. Class I MHC
Major Histocompatibility Complex:
Class I MHC: IN ALL NUCLEATED CELLS
Class II MHC: Only in antigen presenting cells

81
Q 
Which of the following binds to class I mhc molecules?
A. CD8
B. CD6
C. CD4
D. CD14
A

A. CD8

Class I MHC: CD8 (cytotoxic T cells)
Class II MHC: CD4 (helper T cells)

82
Q 
Which of the following antibodies usually shows up first?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IGA
D. MGM
A

B. IgM

IgG–> placental transfer
IgM –> 1st to show up

83
Q

True or False: Cytokines process and present antigens to t cells and b cells

84
Q 
Which of the following is a type of cytokine?
A. Interleukin 
B. Interferon 
C. Tumor Necrosis Factor 
D. All of the Above
A 
D. All of the above
Cytokine
- Aid cell to cell communication
- Stimulate movement of cells towards sites of inflammation, infection, or trauma
- Interleukins
- Interferons
- Tumor Necrosis Factor
85
Q 
Which of the following describes the psychomotor domain of Bloom’s Taxonomy?
A. knowing/head
B. feeling/heart
C. walking/feet
D. doing/hands
A

D. doing/ hands

86
Q 
Which of these did Pasteur NOT do?
A. Rabies Vax
B. Disproved theory of spontaneous generation
C. Antrax Vax
D. JK he did all of the above
A

D. he did all the above

87
Q 
Who is considered the founder of modern microbiology? 
A. Pasteur
B. Koch
C. Jenner
D. Aristotle
88
Q 
Koch had 4 postulates which one did he not change or abandon?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
89
Q

True or False: Transmission electron microscope uses an inert metal to coat the specimen

A 
False
Microscopy:
SEM: Scanning Electron Microscopy
- surface
- whole specimen
- coated with inert metal: gold
TEM: Transmission
- super thin specimen
- microtone
90
Q

Who discovered penicillin? A. Virchow
B. Fleming
C. Jenner
D. Lister

A

B. Flemming

91
Q 
Who introduced the principle of antiseptic surgery? 
A. Fleming
B. Virchow
C. Lister
D. Pasteur
92
Q 
Which of the following canNOT be used to identify a virus?  
A. Enzymes
B. Nucleic acid homology
C. Morphology
D. Staining
A

D. Staining

93
Q

True or False: Eubacteria have peptidoglycan in their cell wall

94
Q 
Which of the following does NOT make up DNA? 
A. Nitrogenous acid
B. Deoxyribose
C. Ribose
D. A and C
A

D. A and C

DNA: phosphate group, pentose sugar (deoxyribose), nitrogenous base

95
Q 
Which of the following describes the biological activity between biomolecules in the various systems of the cell? 
A. Anatomy
B. Molecular Biology
C. Histology
D. Cytology
A

B. Molecular Biology

96
Q 
Synthesis begins with a \_\_\_\_\_ and follows in the 5’ to 3’ direction
A. Dime
B. Replication fork
C. Primer
D. Amazon Prime
97
Q

True or false: Avery, Macleod, and McClarty said that DNA was a double helix

98
Q

Genetic material must be able to:
A. Contain info needed to construct an entire organism
B. Be accurately copied
C. Account for known variation within and between species
D. Pass from parent to offspring and from cell to cell
E. All of the Above

A

E. All of the Above

99
Q

True or False: 2 DNA strands are complementary and parallel

A

False: Antiparallel

100
Q

True or False: Bacterial mRNAs can be translated to polypeptides as soon as they are made

A

True
RNA Processing:
Bacterial mRNAs can be translated to polypeptides as soon as they are made.
Eukaryotic requires processing

101
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a stop codon?
A. UAA
B. UGA
C. UAG
D. AUG
102
Q 
Which of the folowing is NOT a pyrimidine? 
A. Adenine
B. Cytosine
C. Uracil
D. Thymine
A

A. Adenine

Cut it joke

103
Q 
Which of the following describes cloning using a plasmid vector? 
A. eDNA
B. PCR
C. Recombinant DNA Technology
D. RT PCR
A

C. Recombinant DNA technology

104
Q 
Which of the following describes eDNA? 
A. Southern blotting
B. Artificial plasmids used in molecular cloning
C. Northern blotting
D. None of the above
A

D. None of the above

eDNA:

  • Sequence based methods for diversity/distribution analysis
  • PCR amplicons
  • Metagenic libraries
  • Applied to the environmental samples through organismally derived material to extracellular DNA
105
Q

T/F: The majority of microbes cause disease

A

False:

  • Very few microbes actually cause disease
  • Microbes
  • -Beneficial
  • –Probiotics/fermentation
  • –Antibiotics
  • –Vaccines, vitamins
  • -Harmful
  • –Diseases
  • –Food spoilage
106
Q 
Which of the following best describes the “One Health” model?
A. Humans and Animals
B. Infant, young, adult, senior
C. Humans, Animals, and ecosystem
D. The solar system
A

C. Humans, animals, and ecosystem

107
Q 
When discussing Bloom’s Taxonomy which domain refers to “feeling/heart”?
A. effective
B. Cognitive
C. Psychomotor
D. Affective
A

D. Affective

Remember:
Cognitive = knowing/ head
Affective = feeling/ heart
Psychomotor = doing/ hands

108
Q

T/F: Hooke created the first compound microscope

A

False: Janssen was responsible, hooke was the first to publish a picture of a microorganism

109
Q 
Which of the following is NOT one of the current three domain classifications?
A. Eubacteria
B. Virus
C. Archae
D. Eukaryotes
A

B. Virus
Eubacteria: prokaryotes, peptidoglycan in cell wall
Archaea: prokaryotes, no pathogenic ones
Eukaryotes: protozoans, plants, fungi

110
Q

T/F: Prokaryotes tend to be larger than Eukaryotes

111
Q 
Which of the following refers to the pairing of base pairs?
A. darwins theory
B. kochs postulates
C. chargaffs rules
D. transforming principle
A

C. Chargaff’s rules

112
Q 
Which of the following are purines?
A. Guaning
B. Cytosine
C. Adenind
D. A and C
A

D. A and C

113
Q

T/F: In RNA adenine pairs with thymine

A

False. DNA A-T, RNA A-U

114
Q

In the helical structure of DNA, the nitrogenous bases are located on the:
A. Inside
B. Outside
C. Underside

A 
A. Inside
DNA is
	-Double stranded
	-Helical
	-Sugar-phosphate backbone
	-Bases on the inside
	-Stabilized by hydrogen bonding
	-Base pairs with specific pairing
115
Q 
T/F: DNA Stores and transmits inherited genetic information
Contains the coded directions for making proteins
Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine
Thymine
Phosphate group
Deoxyribose
A 
True: RNA Translates the information coded in DNA for the production of proteins
Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine
Uracil
Phosphate group
Ribose
116
Q 
Which of the following separates the strand and moves the fork forward?
A. DNA topoisomerase
B. RNA helices
C. Replication fork
D. DNA helicase
A

D. DNA Helicase

117
Q 
What term refers to a particular segment of DNA being copied into vis RNA polymerase?
A. Translation
B. Transfusion
C. Tuning
D. Transcription
A

D. Transcription

118
Q

T/F: Transition is the process of synthesizing specific polypeptides on a ribosome

A

False– thats translation

119
Q 
Plasmids can be transmitted from one bacterium to another. This host to host transfer is called?
A. zoonotic gene transfer
B. Vertical transmission
C. Horizontal gene transfer
D. Parallel gene transfer
A

C. Horizontal gene transfer

120
Q

T/F: The plastid is the site of manufacture and storage of important chemical compounds used by cells

121
Q

T/F: Detection of a specific DNA sequence from DNA samples is called northern blot

A

False, southern blotting

122
Q

Identification of specific proteins

A

Western Blot

DNA- Southern Blot
RNA- northern blot
Proteins- Western

123
Q 
Which of the following is used to detect RNA expression?
A. Reverse transcription PCR
B. PCR
C. Translation PCR
D. CPR
A

A. Reverse transcription PCR

PCR: Polymerase Chain Reaction
Amplify specific DNA fragments from genomic DNA
Components
Template DNA
Oligonucleotide Primers
DNTP
Taq polymerase
Correct Conditions
124
Q

T/F: One step RT-PCR is easier to set up

A

True, Two step is more sensitive

125
Q

T/F: Real Time PCR monitors the amplification of DNA during PCR instead of at the end

First Exams VetPrep (4 decks)

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