Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Serum hepatitis is which type of hepatitis:

A) Hepatitis E
B) Hepatitis C
C) Hepatitis B
D) Hepatitis A
E) Hepatitis D
A

C) Hepatitis B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The function of a slime layer or mucoid capsule:

A) replication of DNA
B) transfer of chromosomes to another bacterium
C) the formation of endospores
D) protection against adverse conditions, including drying

A

D) protection against adverse conditions, including drying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Rubeola’s more commonly known term:

A) Primary Atypical Pneumonia
B) Tetanus
C) Measles
D) Leptospirosis
E) Gonorrhea
A

C) Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clostridium tetani’s more commonly known term:

A) Primary Atypical Pneumonia
B) Tetanus
C) Measles
D) Leptospirosis
E) Gonorrhea
A

B) Tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae’s more commonly known term:

A) Primary Atypical Pneumonia
B) Tetanus
C) Measles
D) Leptospirosis
E) Gonorrhea
A

A) Primary Atypical Pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neisseria Gonorrhoeae’s more commonly known term:

A) Primary Atypical Pneumonia
B) Tetanus
C) Measles
D) Leptospirosis
E) Gonorrhea
A

E) Gonorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Leptospira interrogans’s more commonly known term:

A) Primary Atypical Pneumonia
B) Tetanus
C) Measles
D) Leptospirosis
E) Gonorrhea
A

D) Leptospirosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Slow onset and long duration

A) Mixed infection
B) Primary infection
C) Chronic infection
D) Secondary infection

A

C) Chronic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

An infection which occurs where another infection is already present

A) Mixed infection
B) Primary infection
C) Chronic infection
D) Secondary infection

A

D) Secondary infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The only active infection present

A) Mixed infection
B) Primary infection
C) Chronic infection
D) Secondary infection

A

B) Primary infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Caused by 2 different organisms

A) Mixed infection
B) Primary infection
C) Chronic infection
D) Secondary infection

A

A) Mixed infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This is formed by certain bacteria such as Bacillus anthracis in adverse conditions. It is extremely durable, and it may last for centuries before germination:

A) spore (endospore)
B) pod
C) zygote
D) capsule

A

A) spore (endospore)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The protein that is produced by the body to combat viruses:

A) interferon
B) antibody
C) vericide
D) Capsid
E) DNA
A

A) interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Round bacteria that are organized into chains:

A) streptococci
B) coccobacilli
C) streptobacilli
D) staphylococci
E) A and D
A

A) streptococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A microorganism that causes a disease is a:

A) pathogen
B) parasite
C) facultative parasite
D) antibody
E) host
A

A) pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mycology is the study of:

A) protozoas
B) single celled plants
C) fungus
D) muscle cells
E) none of the above
A

C) fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The purpose of pili in some bacteria is for:

A) movement
B) cell wall formation
C) reproduction
D) expelling waste

A

C) reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Match the scientific term with its more commonly known term. Clostridium botulinum

A) Cold Sores
B) German Measles
C) Asiatic Cholera
D) Smallpox
E) Botulism
A

E) Botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Match the scientific term with its more commonly known term. Vibrio cholerae

A) Cold Sores
B) German Measles
C) Asiatic Cholera
D) Smallpox
E) Botulism
A

C) Asiatic Cholera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Match the scientific term with its more commonly known term. Rubella

A) Cold Sores
B) German Measles
C) Asiatic Cholera
D) Smallpox
E) Botulism
A

B) German Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Match the scientific term with its more commonly known term. Herpes simplex I

A) Cold Sores
B) German Measles
C) Asiatic Cholera
D) Smallpox
E) Botulis
A

A) Cold Sores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Match the scientific term with its more commonly known term. Variola

A) Cold Sores
B) German Measles
C) Asiatic Cholera
D) Smallpox
E) Botulism
A

D) Smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What kind of immunity is given through placental transfer of antibiotics?

A) natural passive acquired
B) natural active acquired
C) artificial active acquired
D) artificial passive acquired

A

A) natural passive acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The comma-shaped bacterium:

A) coccus
B) nibrio
C) vibrio
D) bacillus
E) spirochete
A

C) vibrio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The study of the structure and shape and form of an organism is called:

A) microbiology
B) rickettsiology
C) morphology
D) mycology
E) bacteriology
A

C) morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The protein components of invaders that the body recognizes as foreign:

A) antibodies
B) antiglobulin
C) antihobgoblinase
D) immune proteins
E) antigens
A

E) antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Bacteria that occur in pairs are called:

A) diplobacilli
B) staphylococci
C) diplococci
D) streptobacilli
E) both A and C
A

E) both A and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The living material that makes up a cell is called:

A) a cell membrane
B) protoplasm
C) nucleus
D) cytoplasm

A

B) protoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Clostridium species require which condition:

A) facultative aerobic
B) facultative anaerobic
C) anaerobic
D) aerobic

A

C) anaerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What kind of immunity is given by vaccination?

A) natural passive acquired
B) artificial active acquired
C) artificial passive acquired
D) natural active acquired

A

B) artificial active acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Occurs only as an occasional case.

A) Pandemic
B) Virulence
C) Acute infection
D) Sporadic

A

D) Sporadic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Spreads to more than one country.

A) Pandemic
B) Virulence
C) Acute infection
D) Sporadic

A

A) Pandemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Rapid onset and short course.

A) Pandemic
B) Virulence
C) Acute infection
D) Sporadic

A

C) Acute infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Strength of the pathogen.

A) Pandemic
B) Virulence
C) Acute infection
D) Sporadic

A

B) Virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bacteria that prefer cold:

A) thermophiles
B) psychophiles
C) mesophiles
D) cryophiles
E) B and D
A

E) B and D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The simplest animals which are mostly unicellular is:

A) all are simple animals
B) ricket
C) mycol
D) virus
E) protozoa
A

E) protozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Treponema pallidum causes an STD, and is a:

A) bacillus
B) fungus
C) vibrio
D) spirochete
E) coccus
A

D) spirochete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The smallest unit in which a living organism can survive independently is:

A) colony
B) diploid
C) nucleus
D) vacuole
E) cell
A

E) cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

An organism that prefers decaying organic matter, but that can survive as a parasite:

A) facultative saprophyte
B) facultative parasite
C) parasitic saprophyte
D) obligate parasite
E) saprophitic parasite
A

B) facultative parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The immunity given by transfer of antibodies from one person to another (Example - Gamma Globulin):

A) artificial passive acquired
B) natural passive acquired
C) artificial active acquired
D) natural active acquired

A

A) artificial passive acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In a dead body, clostridium perfringens causes:

A) gas gangrene
B) tissue gas
C) spores
D) autotrophic
E) aerobes
A

B) tissue gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The immunity possessed by a person who has had and recovered from a disease:

A) artificial active acquired
B) natural passive acquired
C) natural active acquired
D) artificial passive acquired

A

C) natural active acquired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Mutually advantageous

A) Commensalism
B) Mutualism
C) Symbiosis
D) Synergism
E) Antagonism
A

C) Symbiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A mutually beneficial but necessary arrangement between bacterium.

A) Commensalism
B) Mutualism
C) Symbiosis
D) Synergism
E) Antagonism
A

B) Mutualism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Benefitting of 1 organism without affecting the other.

A) Commensalism
B) Mutualism
C) Symbiosis
D) Synergism
E) Antagonism
A

A) Commensalism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The association of certain bacteria species to accomplish harmful or beneficial results.

A) Commensalism
B) Mutualism
C) Symbiosis
D) Synergism
E) Antagonism
A

D) Synergism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The presence of certain bacteria inhibiting the growth of others.

A) Commensalism
B) Mutualism
C) Symbiosis
D) Synergism
E) Antagonism
A

E) Antagonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Francisella tularensis

A) Epidemic (Louse Borne) Typhus
B) Tularemia (Rabbit Fever)
C) Diptheria
D) Typhoid Fever
E) Anthrax
A

B) Tularemia (Rabbit Fever)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Rickettsia prowazekii

A) Epidemic (Louse Borne) Typhus
B) Tularemia (Rabbit Fever)
C) Diptheria
D) Typhoid Fever
E) Anthrax
A

A) Epidemic (Louse Borne) Typhus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Corynebacterium diptheria

A) Epidemic (Louse Borne) Typhus
B) Tularemia (Rabbit Fever)
C) Diptheria
D) Typhoid Fever
E) Anthrax
A

C) Diptheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Salmonella Typhi

A) Epidemic (Louse Borne) Typhus
B) Tularemia (Rabbit Fever)
C) Diptheria
D) Typhoid Fever
E) Anthrax
A

D) Typhoid Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A) Epidemic (Louse Borne) Typhus
B) Tularemia (Rabbit Fever)
C) Diptheria
D) Typhoid Fever
E) Anthrax
A

E) Anthrax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A group of microorganisms that are arranged in a cluster resembling a bunch of grapes are called:

A) steptococci
B) staphylococci
C) streptobatilli
D) diplococci

A

B) staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The most effective method of sterilization is:

A) cold
B) boiling
C) steam under pressure
D) moist heat
E) dry heat
A

C) steam under pressure

55
Q

Pathogenic bacteria thrive at which Celcius Degree?

A) 37
B) 95
C) 63
D) 75
E) 51
A

A) 37

56
Q

Sir Alexander Fleming accidentally discovered:

A) polio
B) hepatitis
C) smallpox
D) penicillin
E) flagella
A

D) penicillin

57
Q

The long, hair-like processes that by their lashing activity cause a microorganism to move:

A) cillia
B) spores
C) flagella
D) fungus
E) pili
A

C) flagella

58
Q

Which of the following are microorganisms which produce disease only under especially favorable conditions?

A) saprophytes
B) opportunists
C) true pathogens
D) obligate aerobes
E) autotrophs
A

B) opportunists

59
Q

The causative agent of influenza is:

A) virus
B) chlamydia
C) rickettsia
D) fungi
E) bacteria
A

A) virus

60
Q

Smallpox is caused by:

A) rickettsia
B) virus
C) bacteria
D) protozoa
E) chlamydia
A

B) virus

61
Q

Most sexually transmitted diseases enter the body through the:

A) alimentary track
B) respiratory track
C) skin
D) genitourinary track

A

D) genitourinary track

62
Q

Lock jaw is the common name for the disease:

A) tuberculosis
B) whooping cough
C) rabies
D) tetanus
E) pertussis
A

D) tetanus

63
Q

Salmonella infections are primarily transmitted by:

A) direct body contact
B) ingestion
C) inhalation
D) droplet spray
E) insect transmission
A

B) ingestion

64
Q

A virus attacks the respiratory tract:

A) neurotrophic
B) pneumotrophic
C) adenotrophic
D) dermatotrophic
E) stomatrophic
A

B) pneumotrophic

65
Q

Which of the following has been attributed to serum hepatitis?

A) a cycle involving mites and ice
B) contaminated surfaces
C) dog bite
D) sharing of needles
E) cat scratch fever
A

D) sharing of needles

66
Q

Malaria is caused by a:

A) fungus
B) virus
C) protozoa
D) spirochete
E) bacterium
A

C) protozoa

67
Q

The virus that causes chickenpox and shingles:

A) Herpes Simplex 1
B) Herpes Simplex 2
C) Cytomegalavirus
D) Varicella zoster
E) Variola
A

D) Varicella zoster

68
Q

Strict (obligate) parasites are organisms that receive their nutrients from:

A) carbon dioxide
B) decaying organic material
C) living animals or plants
D) free oxygen

A

C) living animals or plants

69
Q

Mechanical body defenses are which of the following:

A) cilia
B) intact skin
C) mucous membranes
D) both A and C
E) all of the above
A

E) all of the above

70
Q

This disease is caused by a diplococci:

A) typhoid fever
B) gonorrhea
C) diphtheria
D) tetanus

A

B) gonorrhea

71
Q

The identification of a comma shaped bacillus under a microscope would signify:

A) salmonella typhi
B) clostridium tetani
C) treponema pallidum
D) vibrio cholerae

A

D) vibrio cholerae

72
Q

Saliva is responsible for which viral infection?

A) chicken pox
B) rabies
C) mumps
D) rabbit fever

A

B) rabies

73
Q

Amebic dysentery is caused by a:

A) prion
B) protozoan
C) bacterium
D) virus
E) fungus
A

B) protozoan

74
Q

The organism that causes malaria:

A) plasmodium malariae
B) coccidioides immitis
C) cryptococcus neoformans
D) cytomegalavirus
E) candida albicans
A

A) plasmodium malariae

75
Q

A glycoprotein substance developed in response to, and interacting specifically with an antigen:

A) cell wall matrix
B) interferon
C) lysozyme
D) antigen
E) antibody (immunoglobulin)
A

E) antibody (immunoglobulin)

76
Q

Ticks are the transmitter of which of the following:

A) plaque
B) rabies
C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D) mumps
E) tularemia
A

C) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

77
Q

Clostridium species are:

A) gram positive bacilli
B) gram negative vibrio
C) gram negative spirochetes
D) gram negative cocci
E) gram negative bacilli
A

E) gram negative bacilli

78
Q

Which of the following is correct concerning ultraviolet rays contained in direct sunlight?

A) are only bacteriostatic
B) have no effect on bacteria
C) essential for bacterial growth
D) are bacteriocidal

A

D) are bacteriocidal

79
Q

An infection caused by organisms which come from outside the body:

A) general
B) local
C) endogenous
D) exogenous
E) focal
A

D) exogenous

80
Q

The immunity we are born with is called:

A) passive immunity
B) natural immunity
C) acquired immunity
D) active acquired immunity

A

B) natural immunity

81
Q

A protein produced by the blood or lymph in response to an antigen is called:

A) antibody
B) innate immunity
C) interferon
D) immunology

A

A) antibody

82
Q

An enzyme that dissolves or destroys a blood clot:

A) coagulase
B) tubaremia
C) fibrinolysin
D) leucocidin
E) hyaluronidase
A

C) fibrinolysin

83
Q

An infection which is caused by organisms which normally reside in the body:

A) endogenous
B) focal
C) general
D) local
E) exogenous
A

A) endogenous

84
Q

Which of the following is said to inhibit bacterial growth and reproduction without necessarily destroying the organisms?

A) fumigation
B) viricide
C) disinfection
D) sterilization
E) antisepsis
A

E) antisepsis

85
Q

If the portal of entry was the alimentary track, that means the organism has entered the body by way of:

A) breathing
B) sneezing
C) skin abrasion
D) eating

A

D) eating

86
Q

The study of the capability of an organism to resist and overcome a disease or infection is called:

A) antigenology
B) morphology
C) immunology
D) botany

A

C) immunology

87
Q

Toxins that are released only when the cell producing them is destroyed or disintegrated are called:

A) endotoxins
B) exotoxins
C) enzymes
D) exoendotoxins

A

A) endotoxins

88
Q

Yeasts and molds are destroyed by which of the following:

A) sterilant
B) fungicide
C) antiseptic
D) disinfectant
E) germicide
A

B) fungicide

89
Q

A germicide is an example of:

A) incineration
B) antiseption
C) disinfection
D) sterilization

A

C) disinfection

90
Q

Which of the following is a type of decomposition of fats?

A) catalysis
B) lipolysis
C) fermentation
D) autolysis
E) hemolysis
A

B) lipolysis

91
Q

Which is an example of a “formite?”

A) housefly
B) mosquito
C) towel
D) green headed fly

A

C) towel

92
Q

Of the following, which is defined as the invasion of the body by living microorganisms, with subsequent
multiplication and disease production?

A) infection
B) contamination
C) infestation
D) attenuation
E) infiltration
A

A) infection

93
Q

The aerobic or capnophilic organism that has killed more people than any other. It’s transmitted by droplets, dust feces and milk. The focal point is the lungs:

A) mycobacterium avium
B) Yersinia pestis
C) klebsiella pneumonia
D) streptococcus pneumoniae
E) mycobacterium tuberculosis
A

E) mycobacterium tuberculosis

94
Q

Presence of toxins in the blood produces a condition called:

A) infection
B) toxemia
C) bacteremia
D) septicemia
E) inflammation
A

B) toxemia

95
Q

The organism that causes Thrush in children and AIDS patients:

A) candida albicans
B) plasmodium malariae
C) cryptoccus neoformans
D) coccidiodes immitis
E) cytomegalavirus
A

A) candida albicans

96
Q

Infections that involve the whole body, by way of the lymph system and blood stream are:

A) local
B) general
C) focal
D) primary
E) mixed
A

B) general

97
Q

Salmonellosis

A) Salmonella enteritidis
B) Clostridium perfringes
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Yersinis pestis
E) Treponema pallidium
A

A) Salmonella enteritidis

98
Q

The Plague

A) Salmonella enteritidis
B) Clostridium perfringes
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Yersinis pestis
E) Treponema pallidium
A

D) Yersinis pestis

99
Q

Tissue Gas and Gas Gangrene

A) Salmonella enteritidis
B) Clostridium perfringes
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Yersinis pestis
E) Treponema pallidium
A

B) Clostridium perfringes

100
Q

Syphilis

A) Salmonella enteritidis
B) Clostridium perfringes
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Yersinis pestis
E) Treponema pallidium
A

E) Treponema pallidium

101
Q

Scarlet Fever and Rheumatic Fever

A) Salmonella enteritidis
B) Clostridium perfringes
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Yersinis pestis
E) Treponema pallidium
A

C) Streptococcus pyogenes

102
Q

An example of a vector would be a:

A) virus
B) protozoa
C) insect
D) fungi
E) drinking cup
A

C) insect

103
Q

Molds are classified as:

A) fungi
B) protozoa
C) mycoplasmas
D) viruses
E) bacteria
A

A) fungi

104
Q

An organism that prefers oxygen, but that can survive without:

A) facultative aerobe
B) anaerobe
C) facultative anaerobe
D) aerobe

A

C) facultative anaerobe

105
Q

The branch of biology that deals with the studies of viruses is called:

A) mycoplasmasology
B) mycology
C) microbiology
D) bacteriology
E) virology
A

E) virology

106
Q

Bacteria usually reproduce by:

A) sporulation
B) binary fission
C) pollination
D) sexual reproduction
E) trinary fission
A

B) binary fission

107
Q

The rigid, polysaccharide structure that encloses bacteria:

A) spirochete
B) endopsore
C) cell wall
D) cell membrane
E) cytoplasm
A

C) cell wall

108
Q

The rod-shaped bacterium:

A) nibrio
B) bacillus
C) coccus
D) vibrio
E) spirochete
A

B) bacillus

109
Q

Because bacteria lack a membrane-bound nucleus, the _____ is immersed in the _____:

A) chromosome; protein
B) cell; nutrients
C) DNA; cell wall
D) nuclear material; cytoplasm

A

D) nuclear material; cytoplasm

110
Q

Substance produced by body cells to combat foreign proteins:

A) antigens
B) antibiotics
C) vaccines
D) complements
E) antibodies
A

E) antibodies

111
Q

A bacterium that absolutely requires oxygen for survival:

A) obligate anaerobe
B) obligate aerobe
C) facultative aerobe
D) obligate parasite

A

B) obligate aerobe

112
Q

Which of these would be considered fomites?

A) lice
B) mosquitos
C) door knobs
D) ticks
E) a, b and d
A

C) door knobs

113
Q

Which structure contains the material of inheritance?

A) cell wall
B) ribosomes
C) capsule
D) nucleic acid
E) cell membrane
A

D) nucleic acid

114
Q

Which of the following can be transmitted by a mosquito?

A) tetanus
B) yellow fever
C) mumps
D) rabies
E) diptheria
A

B) yellow fever

115
Q

This disease attacks the lining of the intestinal track:

A) gonorrhea
B) rabbit fever
C) syphilis
D) gastroenteritis

A

D) gastroenteritis

116
Q

The causative agent of a disease modified in such a manner that it will no longer cause the disease, but will still promote the production of antibodies, is which of the following?

A) vaccine
B) anti-toxin
C) anti-serum
D) antibiotic

A

A) vaccine

117
Q

One who discharges pathogens in fecal matter is said to be this type of carrier:

A) active
B) convalescent
C) housefly
D) passive
E) intestinal
A

E) intestinal

118
Q

Which of the following terms defines a condition in which bacteria are found in the blood, but are not multiplying there?

A) saphroemia
B) bacteremia
C) anemia
D) toxemia
E) septicemia
A

B) bacteremia

119
Q

An infection of the blood with actual growth and multiplication of pathogens in the blood:

A) bacteremia
B) anemia
C) toxemia
D) viremia
E) septicemia
A

E) septicemia

120
Q

This organism blindness, NGU and NSU:

A) Chlamydia psittaci
B) Neisseria gonorrhoea
C) Chlamydia trochomatis
D) Francissela tularensis
E) Clostridium perfringens
A

C) Chlamydia trochomatis

121
Q

Cryptococciosis, which is often mistaken for a brain tumor, is caused by a:

A) prion
B) virus
C) protozoa
D) bacterium
E) fungus
A

E) fungus

122
Q

Epidemic Parotitis:

A) parrot wing disease
B) mumps
C) parrot fever
D) measles
E) psittacosis
A

B) mumps

123
Q

A prion causes:

A) Epstein Barr
B) Epidemia parotitis
C) Hepatitis A
D) Creutzfeldt Jakob
E) Hepatitis B
A

D) Creutzfeldt Jakob

124
Q

Coxiella burnetti causes __________, and is considered a __________:

A) rheumatic fever; bacterium
B) coxiosis; mycoplasma
C) measles; virus
D) viriola; virus
E) "Q" Fever; Rickettsia
A

E) “Q” Fever; Rickettsia

125
Q

Infections that are passed on from the mother to the baby through the placenta are called:

A) maternal infection
B) mechanical infection
C) congenital infection
D) droplet infection

A

C) congenital infection

126
Q

Molds, mushrooms and yeasts are:

A) Rickettsia
B) bacteria
C) fungi
D) chlamydia
E) none of the above
A

C) fungi

127
Q

Physical contact would be considered:

A) indirect contact
B) congenital contact
C) droplet
D) direct contact

A

D) direct contact

128
Q

The destruction of all microorganisms and their products is:

A) antisepsis
B) sterilization
C) fumigation
D) disinfection
E) viricide
A

B) sterilization

129
Q

An agent which liberates gases or fumes for the specific purpose of the destruction of insects and microorganisms:

A) disinfectant
B) sterilant
C) fumigant
D) vericide
E) germicide
A

C) fumigant

130
Q

Coughing, talking, sneezing are what types of transmission?

A) water contact
B) vector contact
C) droplet infection
D) direct contact

A

C) droplet infection

131
Q

One who harbors and disseminates pathogens without having had the disease is this type of
carrier:

A) active
B) intestinal
C) housefly
D) passive
E) convalescent
A

D) passive

132
Q

The organism that causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever:

A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B) Rickettsia typhi
C) Rickettsia rickettsii
D) Rickettsia prowazekii
E) Entamoeba histolytica
A

C) Rickettsia rickettsii

133
Q

A mode of direct disease transmission is:

A) contaminated formites
B) mechanical vectors
C) biological vectors
D) droplet spray
E) all of the above
A

D) droplet spray