microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Who came up with the biological species concept ?

A

Ernest mayr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the definition of a species ?

A

Are populations of organisms that have a high genetic similarity which can transfer genetic material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are genes and proteins that are measures of evolutionary change called ?

A

Chronometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What methods are there available for genetic comparison ?

A

16s RNA sequencing
18s RNA sequencing
DNA-DNA hybridisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the threshold for DNA-DNA similarity to be considered a species ?

A

> 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the problem with 16s RNA sequencing ?

A

Molecule being sequenced is on 1500bp in length and the rate of evolutionary change is 1bp every 1 million years. Meaning prokaryotes with 97%similarity may have diverged 50mya.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the problem with DNA-DNA similarity ?

A

DNA-DNA similarity is only a measure of the similarity of the DNA shared between two strains: it does not account for the DNA that is unique to one species or the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the solution to the low resolving power of 16s RNA comparison ?

A

Whole genome sequecing allowing comparison of every gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the definition of symbiosis ?

A

A term used to describe an exclusive and close relationship between 2 species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What 3 key points define symbiosis ?

A
  1. Creates a unique metabolism or structure.
  2. Selective co-evolution of the two species from generation to generation
  3. The symbiosis must be maintained through natural selection.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 5 types of symbiosis ?

A
Mutualistic 
Commensal
Neutral 
Competitive 
Parasitic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Give an example of Ectosymbiosis and Endosymbiosis

A

Outisde the cell way-rumen bacteria

Within cavity-Algae of clams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of endosymbiosis occurs in the cell ?

A

intracellular-Rhizobium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is the paracium-chlorella symbiosis beneficial ?

A

When nutrients are low it is beneficial when low light levels it is parasitic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the vertebrate gut biome allow ?

A

Anaerobic fermentation to occur in rumens allowing digestion of cellulose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The convoluta-tertrasel symbiosis is an example of intracellular symbiosis what is unique about the green algae?

A

In symbiosis the green algae have no cell wall but not in symbiosis they are different in structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is produced by the fermentation of cellulose ?

A

Volatile fatty acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the 2 layers of tissue that make up a coral and what separates them ?

A

Endoderm- Contain zooxanthellae
Ectoderm- Contain mucus glands
Separated by mesoglea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do mucin genes produce and what is the product made of ?

A

mucus- Glycoprotein (80%oligosaccharide 20% protein core)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How much of the energy produced by zooxanthellae is given to the host coral ?

A

78% is given to host

45% is used to produce mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What did the evolution of surface mucosa do ?

A

Changed the relationship of eukaryotes and microorganisms forever.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What caused the loss of the acroporids ?

A

White band disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

why cant kochs postulates be used for coral disease ?

A

1 Most marine microbes cant be cultured.
2 Diseased and healthy corals are connected by water so cannot collect isolates
3 Coral disease is thought to be caused by multiple agents
4 Difficult to prove symptoms are unique and that the same disease has been created in the lab.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do polyps use to feed ?

A

Expand at night and use nematocysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
One of the principles of kochs postulates is that the cultured pathogen should cause disease to a healthy organism. What is wrong with this ?
Some pathogens only infect weakened organisms.
26
What is the rhizophere ?
Zone of soil around plant roots whereby soil properties are influenced by roots.
27
What did van luijk observe ?
That grass grew better on non sterile soil in comparison to sterile soil.
28
What are PGPR ?
Plant-growth promoting rhizobacteria colonise the rhizosphere, the rhizoplane (root surface), or the root itself (within radicular tissues)
29
What is the main characteristic of an effective PGPR ?
Ability to aggressively colonise plant roots (high competition).
30
How do PGPR bioferilise ?
The production of stimulatory phytohormones Lowering of the ethylene level in plant. Improvement of the plant nutrient status by liberation of phosphates and micronutrients from insoluble sources by the production of metabolites to lower pH and siderophores.
31
What pathway do PGPR use to produce auxins ?
Indole 3 pyruvate pathway.
32
What is tryptophan and what do PGPR do with it ?
Tryptophan is a precursor for auxins and PGPR convert it to indole 3-acetic acid (IAA).
33
How do PGPR reduce ethylene levels ?
Produce ACC deminase which cleaves the ethylene precursor ACC.
34
What does ethylene do to plants ?
inhibits root elongation.
35
What does low levels of IAA do ?
Promotes root elongation.
36
How do PGPR solubilise phosphates ?
Lower pH of soil via production of metabolites.
37
Why are siderphores so useful ?
Siderophores bind to iron3 and enters the plant and release the iron3 in the form iron2. Also useful for the prevention of proliferation of pathogens as they out .compete pathogen for nutrients.
38
What is biocontrol ?
Where the activity of a pathogen is reduced through the agency of another living organism.
39
PGPR biocontrol how ?
Production of siderophores, by colonising roots thus excluding other microorganisms and through the production of metabolites such as anitbodies and lysozymes.
40
What is ISR ?
induced systemic resistance- Mediated by rhizobacteria it resembles Systemic acquired resistance.
41
What induces ISR?
Lipopolysaccaharides and siderophores
42
Trichoderma harianum is a plant growth promoting fungi what dies it do ?
Improves soil formation and provides fungicides
43
What are the characteristics of a good PGPB ?
``` Enhance growth Ability to survive and form a biofilm Ability to colonise roots Ability to compete Safe to environment Tolerant to adverse conditions ```
44
What do liquid inoculants contain ?
Mainly water with minerals and organic oils
45
What is peat used for and what is the problem with this ?
Used as an organic carrier of rhizobia but this causes destruction of peat bogs.
46
What are cyanobacteria inoculants made from ?
The soil from their habitats
47
How are synthetic formulations created.
Bacteria encapsulated in polymer. This is placed in a fermenter to provide nutrion until numbers of bacteria is optimal.
48
What is unique about synthetic formulations ?
The polymer can be designed to release the bacteria at certain times.
49
If a fungi is dimorphic what does this mean ?
Has a single celled phase (yeast) and a filamentous phase (hyphae)
50
What are the cross walls in hyphae called ?
septa
51
How do fungi that have filamentous growth grow ?
Hyphae grow from apical tip and branching occurs behind tip forming a mycelium.
52
What are animals fungi and protists collectively called ?
Opisthokonts
53
What are the 2 distinct groups of fungi ?
True fungi- In kingdom fungi | Oomycetes- not in kingdon closely related to brown algae
54
What are some features of true fungi ?
Use glycogen as storage compound Haploid nuclei (sometimes multiple) Cell wall made of chitin and glucans
55
What is unique about basidiomycota
they are dikaryotic meaning they have 2 haploid nuclei per cell.
56
How is being dikaryotic maintained ?
Through clamp connections.
57
How do basdiomycetes reproduce ?
Sexually through production of fruiting bodies
58
What is the largest group of fungi and what is a good example of one ?
Ascomycetes | Saccaromyces cerevisae
59
What type of fungi have a motile stage and what makes them motile ?
Chytridiomycota | Have a uniflaggellate zoospore
60
What class of fungi doesnt have a nucleus but has a globose thalli body ?
Chytridiomycota
61
What are the two mating types of saccharomyces and what happens when the diploid cell is starved ?
A and alpha can fuse to form a diploid cell. When starved is forms an ascus with 4 ascospores
62
How do ascomycetes reproduce ?
Asexual-Produce spores called conidea | Sexual- Fruits called ascocarps that contain sac like asci which contain 8 ascospores.
63
What is a biofilm ?
A coordinated, organised, heterogenous community of bacterial cells surrounded by a self produced polysaccahride matrix.
64
What is needed for the formation of biofilms ?
Nutrients moisture a surface
65
What are the 4 stages of a biofilm ?
Attachment Exopolysaccahride production Maturation Dispersal
66
What are the pilli and flagella used for in a biofilm ?
Flagella used for initial attachment and used for movement. | Pilli required for microcolony formation.
67
How do flagella aid movement ?
Bunch in a counter clockwise motion. Cells moving using a twitching motility
68
How is a micro colony formed and what happens when critical mass is reached ?
Free living cells attach with flagella and grow and divide into a microcolony. Critical mas leads to expression of genes that causes irreversible attachment.
69
How is the EPS produced ?
Cells communicate via quorum sensing and when quorum is reached acyl homoserine lactone is produced. Cells then firmly bind to each other and produce EPS matrix.
70
What is in the EPS ?
polysaccahrides nucleic acids lipids
71
What happens in the maturation stage ?
Cells grow into a 3D complex and things stick to matrix providing nutrients.
72
Why do biofilms grow in an oscillate like manor ?
This is due to the cells providing ammonia for cells on the outside to grow. When they get hungry production stops and they use it for themselves
73
What are the 2 methods of dispersal ?
Passive-Fluid sheer, abrasion | Active- Enyzmic dispersal
74
Give two examples of enzymes used for dispersal ?
Dispersin B hydrolyses sugars in EPS | NucB is a DNAse that breaks up gram negative and positive biofilms.
75
Why is difficult to remove biofilms ?
They are 500x more resistant than planktonic cells due to quorum sensing, microscale gradients and due to the dormancy of some cells. Antibiotics can not survive the microscale gradient and can not act on dormant cells.
76
How can biofilms be prevented ?
Block signals that lead to EPS Interfere with quorum sensing Induce dispersal Produce surfaces such as SLIPS
77
How can biofilms be disrupted ?
surfactants | metal nanoparticles
78
What does a virus genome encode for ?
Lysozymes, reverse transcriptase
79
What is a bacterial cell that contains a prophage called ?
lysogen
80
What is a cryptic virus ?
This is when a prophage has occurred for too long meaning the integrated DNA cannot remove from the host genome
81
What is the lamda phage receptor ?
Maltose protein
82
What is the eclipse phase in a virus growth curve ?
A decrease in viruses present due them being attached to bacteria
83
How was DNA proven to be genetic material ?
Labelled DNA in virus with 32P and the protein with 35S. The bacteria was then infected. The bacteria was blended to remove virus and centrifuged. The DNA from the bacteria formed a pellet. This DNA contained 32P showing integration.
84
Give 3 benefits of bacteriophage therapy ?
Amplifies inline with infection Can penetrate deep wounds Phage can evolve faster than bacteria
85
Give 3 negative of bacteriophage therapy.
Scepticism of origin Too specific Fear of horizontal spread
86
What RNA enzyme forms a peptide bond during protein synthesis (peptidyl transferase reaction) ?
Ribozyme
87
What is the term used to describe a ribosome that can self replicate without actually performing self replication ?
Autocatalytic set
88
What is luca ?
Last universal common ancestor- likely to be a collection of self replicating virus like particles that are contained in non living compartments.
89
What did the hydrothermal vents provide for Luca ?
A pore to be contained in Sulphur compounds which have catalytic properties Temperature of vents would aid formation Temperature would also allow fatty acids to form bubbles Phosphates which could form nucleic acids
90
What does the pore chemistry of the hydrothermal vents allow ?
Proton gradient
91
How protocells form ?
Self replicating virus system broke away from pore into fatty acid bubble. They then developed a pyrophosphatase enzyme they could use the proton gradient for energy. This processes happened for archaea and eubacteria
92
Why are bacteria and archaea small ?
Allows them to have a large SA:VOL ratio allowing them to create energy more efficiently
93
What is a negative of being small ?
limited genome size
94
How did eukaryotes form ?
Bacteria ended up inside and archaea in an endosymbiosis event. This bacteria formed into the mitochondria.
95
What is the benefit of mitochondria ?
Solves the energy problem allowing them to get larger thus allowing a bigger genome ?
96
What happened after the endosymbiosis event ?
The bacteria moved most of its genes to the archaea. Bacterial genes contain alot of transposons which could disrupt archaea genome.
97
Why dont bacteria have introns ?
Very high competition in bacteria due to vast population size thus negative selection against gene disrupts such as introns.
98
What is the solution to introns ?
Sex as this recombines genomes that can produce beneficial mutations. Splicesomes removes introns but transcription translation happens to fast so development of nucleus separated transcription and translation allowing splicesomes to remove all introns.
99
What does complexity allow for ?
Parasitic DNA to be silenced via methylation | Destroy parasitic DNA via RNA interference
100
What type of fungi are found in the rumen ?
Chytridiomycota
101
What pathogen causes bleaching ?
Vibrio shiloi
102
Explain the lytic cycle.
Virus attaches to receptor and enters the cell. The DNA circularises and this DNA acts as a template to make more circularised DNA. This causes late genes to be expressed and causes the circular DNA to package into virus particles which then lyse the cell and release.
103
What are the oldest fossils on earth ?
Stramatolites (biofilms)
104
Similar 16s RNA usually means organisms are ?
phenotypically similar
105
correlation between 16s RNA sequencing and DNA-DNA similarity shows what ?
2 prokaryotes with less than 97% 16s RNA similarity are unlikely to have more than 70% DNA-DNA similarity ?
106
What does obligate and facultative mean ?
``` Obligate= Organism cannot survive without symbiosis Facultative= not dependent on symbiosis ```
107
What are the 2 products of anaerobic fermentation of cellulose ?
Volatile fatty acids | Methane
108
What is the most abundant microorganism in the guts of pigs and rodents ?
lactobacillus reuteri
109
list the 3 types of nitrogen fixing bacteria.
``` Rhizobia= Legumes in root nodules Frankias= Actinorihizal plant nodules Cyanobacteria= Fungi, liverwarts and do not form nodules ```
110
What occurs between aphids and bacteria ?
Bacteria gain all nutrition from cytoplasm of aphid and release amino acids back into the aphid. this is obligate symbiosis
111
What does the lokiarchaea contain ?
More eukaryotic like genes than any other.
112
How do mycorrhizal fungi promote plant growth ?
solubilise phosphorus by releasing organic compounds making phosphates available to plants. Increase SA thus increase water up take
113
How can you detect if microbes can colonise roots ?
GFP gene | DNA probe/pcr
114
What is a limitation of polymer inoculants ?
Expensive af
115
Why was DNA selected for storing RNA code?
DNA is stable
116
Why do archaea and bacteria appear to have evolved independently ?
Have different: DNA replication strategies Biochemical pathways Cell wall membranes
117
What is the role conjugative plasmid in triparental mating ?
Contains genes for conjugation and mobilisation allowing the GFP plasmid to be moved to the recipient cell
118
Give examples of 2 bad microbes.
Candida albicans- dimorphic ascomycetes whcih cause thrush in yeast phase and can produce pseudohyphae which can penetrate host tissue and cause invasive diseases. Aspergillus flavus- Produces the mycotoxin, aflatoxin which harms animals and humans and can cause cancer.
119
Give 2 examples of good microbes.
Saccharomyces cerevisae- Used for baking, brewing and studying biological processes in humans. Penicillium rubens- Produced penicillin