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BOARD EXAM > MICROBIOLOGY > Flashcards

MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

FMDV

A

aphthovirus

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2
Q

drug resistance from microorganism

A

biological resistance

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3
Q

anaerobic atmosphere

A

5% CO2
10% H2
85% N

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4
Q

microaerophilic atmosphere

A

5% O2
10% CO2
85% N2

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5
Q

confirmed water test

A

EMB
ENDO
BGBL

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6
Q

NAFO color

A

blue (non-acid fast org)

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7
Q

CSF storage for micro culture

A

37oC

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8
Q

CSF transport

A

rm temp

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9
Q

CSF storage for viral culture

A

4oC

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10
Q

CSF transport for viral culture

A

-70oC

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11
Q

optochin other name

A

taxo P

ethylhydrocupreine HCl

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12
Q

esculine, 6.5% NaCl and hippurate positive

A

enterococcus

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13
Q

MUG test positive coliforms show

A

blue fluorescence

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14
Q

PPNG means

A

penicillinase producing gonococci

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15
Q

critical in gram stain

A

decolorization

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16
Q

betalactaase test is

A

colorimetric, (+) color change

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17
Q

Schaudinn test stains

A

mitochondria (internal) parasite

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18
Q

largest RNA virus

A

paramyxovirus

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19
Q

biochemical tests are

A

presumptive test

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20
Q

serotyping is a __________ test

A

confirmatory

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21
Q

beta lactamase substrate

A

nitrocefin

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22
Q

yersinia enterocolitica selective agar

A

CIN (Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin)

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23
Q

this confirms typhoid fever

A

bone marrow culture

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24
Q

the presumptive ID of organisms

A

differential medium

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25
Q

CMV culture

A

human embryonic fibroblast

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26
Q

+ in H2O completed test

A

acid w/ gas

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27
Q

acetamide by product

A

ammonia

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28
Q

fungal culture of CSF takes _______ days

A

28-30

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29
Q

how long does household bleach take to kill microorg

A

10mins

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30
Q

what microscope is used for spirochetes

A

microscope-fluorescent

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31
Q

which has double zone of hemolysis

A

C. perfringens

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32
Q

test for influenza and rubella

A

HA1 test

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33
Q

difficult to stain or microscopy

A

Leptospira spp

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34
Q

oral normal flora

A

S. viridans

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35
Q

how to isolate S. aureus on stool

A

MSA

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36
Q

what component of MSA can ID the S. aureus in stool

A

7.5% NaCl

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37
Q

used in plasma coagulase test

A

rabbit/human plasma

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38
Q

BAP, thio, selenite are examples of

A

enhancement media

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39
Q

positive in bile solubility tests shows

A

lysis of colony

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40
Q

Babes Ernst granules are seen in

A

Corynebacterium

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41
Q

iodine + bleach are components of

A

iodophore

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42
Q

positive lecithinase

A

C. perfringens

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43
Q

concentration that inhibits bacte

A

MIC

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44
Q

concentration that kills bacte

A

MBC/MLC

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45
Q

disinfectant for blood cultures

A

iodine + 70% alcohol

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46
Q

report water bacte in

A

MPN (most probable number)

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47
Q

how to dissolve agar

A

half H2O + agar + half H2O

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48
Q

Duran Reynal is a ______ factor

A

spreading

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49
Q

ratio of blood:broth

A

1:5 10mL blood: 50mL broth

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50
Q

kidney bean shaped

A

Neisseria

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51
Q

curve, gram negative rod medium

A

CBAP

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52
Q

positive in hair baiting test shows

A

V shaped perforation

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53
Q

agar for chlamydosphores

A

corn meal agar

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54
Q

farmer’s lung dx is caused by

A

Aspergillus

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55
Q

Aspergillus causes what

A

Farmer’s lung dx

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56
Q

CNS virus causing encephalitis

A

rabies virus

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57
Q

rabies virus causes what in CNS

A

encephalitis

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58
Q

human T-cell lymphotropic viruses

A

blood
serum
saliva
semen

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59
Q

phenotype ID uses

A

morphology

biochem

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60
Q

automated phenotype ID uses

A

vitek 1 and 2

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61
Q

genotype ID uses

A

DNA-PCR

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62
Q

incubation for aerobic cultures

A

18-24hrs

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63
Q

incubationf or anaerobic cultures

A

24-48hrs

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64
Q

used for water bacte, gas detector

A

durnham tube

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65
Q

these are made of nichrome or platinum and not longer than 5cm

A

inoculating needle

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66
Q

microorg toxic to cotton swab

A

neisseria

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67
Q

used for transferring liquid

A

pasteur pipette

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68
Q

1st described bacteria

A

Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

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69
Q

formulated Germ theory

A

Robert Koch

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70
Q

bacteria is eu or pro

A

prokaryotic

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71
Q

bacteria has DNA or rNA?

A

both

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72
Q

bacteria reproduce through

A

binary fission

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73
Q

unit of measurement for bacte

A

micrometer

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74
Q

bacteria which has no cell wall

A

mycoplasma

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75
Q

slimy layer, virulence factor and anti-phagocytic

A

capsule

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76
Q

positive in Neufeld-Quellung capsular antigen test

A

capsular swelling

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77
Q

bacte positive in Neufeld-Quellung capsular Ag test

A

S. pneumoniae
N. meningitidis
H. influenza

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78
Q

give shapes to bacte, basis of gram stain

A

cell wall

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79
Q

cell wall of gram pos has

A

thick PG, teichoic acid

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80
Q

cell wall of gram neg

A

LPS, thin PG, periplasm

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81
Q

site for energy synthesis,

A

plasma membrane

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82
Q

regulate transport of nutrients, osmotic or permeability barrier

A

plasma membrane

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83
Q

length of inoculating needle

A

not longer 5cm

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84
Q

_____ are extrachromosomal DNA

A

plasmid

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85
Q

Babes Ernst granules are _____ granules

A

metachromatic

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86
Q

responsible for CHON synthesis

A

ribosomes

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87
Q

for bacterial adherence

A

common pili

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88
Q

for gene transfer

A

sex pili

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89
Q

calcium dipicolinate or dipicolinic acid

A

endospores

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90
Q

bacte withe ndospores

A

Bacillus

Clostridium

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91
Q

1 polar flagella

A

monotrichous

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92
Q

2 polar falgella

A

amphitrichous

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93
Q

tufts of flagella

A

lophotrichous

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94
Q

fastest bacte to multiply

A

E. coli

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95
Q

slowest bacte to multiply

A

Mycobacteria

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96
Q

average size of bacte

A

0.4 - 2 um

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97
Q

flagella all around the bacte

A

peritrichous

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98
Q

largets spp of bacte

A

Bacillus anthracis

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99
Q

most common form of flagella

A

peritrichous

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100
Q

bacte with axial filaments

A

spirochetes

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101
Q

obligate aerobe

A

mycobacteria

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102
Q

obligate anaerobe

A

Bacteroides

Actinomyces

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103
Q

pathogens are usually anaer or aerobic

A

facultative anaerobe

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104
Q

microaerophile

A

campylobacter

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105
Q

aerotolerant anaerobe

A

lactobacillus

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106
Q

inorganic cpd as carbon source

A

autotrophs/litotrophs

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107
Q

organic cpd as carbon source

A

heterotroph/organotrophs

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108
Q

psychrophilic temp

A

0-20 oC (ref)

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109
Q

coleslaw food poison

A

Listeria

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110
Q

common blood bag contam

A

Y. enterocolitica

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111
Q

mesophilic temp

A

20-40 oC (pathogenic)

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112
Q

thermophilic temp

A

40-60 oC (thermus aquaticus)

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113
Q

common acidophilic bacte

A

Lactobacillus

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114
Q

common basophilic bacte

A

Vibrio

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115
Q

common ph req of pathogenic bact

A

neutrophilic

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116
Q

_________ requires moisture

A

humidophilic

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117
Q

___________ requires salt

A

halophilic

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118
Q

bacte that requires 7.5% salt concs

A

S. aureus

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119
Q

under bact. metab respiration

A

kreb’s cycle
ETC
glucose

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120
Q

bacte that requires 6.5%

A

E. faecalis

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121
Q

bacte that requires 0, 3, 5, 8, 10% NaCl

A

Vibrio

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122
Q

in respiration, glucose ->

A

CO2 and H2O

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123
Q

in oxidation, glucose ->

A

acid

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124
Q

in fermentation, glucose ->

A

acid/alcohol

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125
Q

phases in bacte growth curve

A

LAG
LOG
stationary/plateau
death/ decline

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126
Q

phase in grwoth curve that increase in size not number

A

lag phase

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127
Q

phase in grwoth curve that increase in growth rate, susceptible to antimicrob agents

A

log phase

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128
Q

phase in grwoth curve where no net growth

A

stationary/ plateau

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129
Q

phase in grwoth curve that increase in death rate

A

death phase/period of decline

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130
Q

types of swab

A

cotton

calcium alginate

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131
Q

swab toxic to neisseria, good for virus

A

cotton

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132
Q

swab toxic to virus, good for bacteria

A

calcium alginate

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133
Q

rapid, most definitive test

A

PCR

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134
Q

ref when delayed except

A 
CSF
blood
N. gonorrhea swab
urine w/ boric acid
Cary Blair rectal swab
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135
Q

ref when delayed for 1hr

A

stool
urine
sputum
swab exc. genital

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136
Q

transport medium for stool pathogens

A

Cary blairs

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137
Q

trasnport medium for respiratory sx

A

Amie

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138
Q

trasnport emdium for Nesseria

A

transgrow

JEMBEC

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139
Q

transport medium for S. agalactiae (vaginal swab)

A

Todd Hewitt

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140
Q

motility of Listeria

A

tumbling

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141
Q

motility of CApnnocytophaga

A

sliding

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142
Q

tumbling motility

A

Listeria

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143
Q

sliding motility

A

Capnocytophaga

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144
Q

darting motility

A

Campylobacter

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145
Q

cork screw motility

A

spirochetes

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146
Q

twitching motility

A

kingella

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147
Q

motility of campylobacter

A

darting

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148
Q

motility of cork screw

A

spirochetes

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149
Q

motility of kingella

A

twitching

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150
Q

flagella of Vibrio

A

mono

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151
Q

flagella of P. aeruginosa

A

mono

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152
Q

flagella of C. jejuni

A

amphi

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153
Q

flagella of Burgholderia

A

lopho

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154
Q

flagella of Stenotrephomonas

A

lopho

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155
Q

flagella of E. coli

A

peri

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156
Q

put _____________ before ino loop heat ster

A

70% alcohol

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157
Q

used to detoxify culture media

A

charcoal

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158
Q

nasal swab used used to isolate

A

S. aureus

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159
Q

nasopharyngeal swab used to isolate

A

N. meningitidis
H. influenzae
B. pertussis

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160
Q

skin test for TB

A

Mantoux

Intradermal skin test (PPD)

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161
Q

used in Mantoux

A

tuberculin syringe

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162
Q

another contribution of Koch

A

Pure Culture technique

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163
Q

means varying size and shape

A

pleomorphic

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164
Q

gold standard for ID

A

culture

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165
Q

toxin oroduced by gram pos

A

exotoxin

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166
Q

most potent exotoxin to human

A

Botulinum toxin

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167
Q

toxin produced by gram neg

A

endotoxin

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168
Q

unique feat of gram pos

A

teichoic acid

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169
Q

unique feat of gram neg

A

periplasm

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170
Q

gram pos is sol or insol to alcohol

A

insol

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171
Q

gram neg is sol or insol to alc

A

soluble

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172
Q

capsular antigen

A

Vi/K ag

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173
Q

cell wall antigen

A

O Ag

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174
Q

flagellar antigen

A

H Ag

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175
Q

heat labile Ags

A

K/Vi

H

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176
Q

heat stable Ags

A

O

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177
Q

inoculating needle used for fungal culture

A

bent wire

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178
Q

carries antibiotic resistance gene

A

plasmid

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179
Q

cause of drug resistance in MRSA

A

chromosome

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180
Q

ESBL means

A

extended-spectrum beta-lactamase

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181
Q

transfers gene in plasmid

A

transposon

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182
Q

bacterial gene trasnfer includes

A

conjugation
transduction
transformation

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183
Q

plasmid mediated gene transfer

A

conjugation

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184
Q

bacteriophage mediated gene transfer

A

transduction

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185
Q

gene transfer by uptaking foreign DNA

A

tranformation

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186
Q

spore of C. jejuni

A

terminal spore

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187
Q

enzyme lacking in anaerobes making them toxic to O2

A

superoxides dismatase

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188
Q

blood bag contams in ref

A

Y. enterocolitica
P. aeruginosa
S. liquefaciens

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189
Q

blood bag contams in RT

A

S. epidermidis

B. cereus

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190
Q

pH in neutrophilic

A

7.2-7.4

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191
Q

swab good for both virus and bacteria

A

Dacron

rayon

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192
Q

can also be VTM

A

Stuart’s

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193
Q

this is a modified Todd-Hewitt

A

LIM

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194
Q

SPS ihibits

A

G. vaginalis
Neisseria
S. monoliformis
P. anaerobius

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195
Q

SPS stands for

A

sodium polyanethosulfonate

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196
Q

_______________ coutneracts SPS

A

1% gelatin

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197
Q

ratio of blood to SPS (adult)

A

1:10

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198
Q

ratio of blood to SPS (bata)

A

1:5

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199
Q

SPS acts as an

A

anticoag
antiphago
anticomple
neutralize aminoglycosides and bactericidial effects of serum

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200
Q

hemolysis, turbidity, pellicle on BHIB, next step is

A

subculture on BAP, MAC, CAP

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201
Q

if negative on BHIB, next step is

A

incubate pa more

7days - typhoid
21days - brucellosis, endocarditis, SBE

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202
Q

fasitdious gram neg bacteria that causes SBE

A

HACEK

Haemophilus
Actinobacillus
Cardiobacterium
Eikenella
Kingella
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203
Q

incubation when typhoid is suspected

A

7 days

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204
Q

incubation for brucellosis, endocarditis, SBE

A

21 days

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205
Q

meaning when there is grouwth during last day of incub

A

usually contam

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206
Q

signicant count in urine culture for UTI

A

> 100k CFU

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207
Q
A

not significant

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208
Q

prep for urine sx culture

A

centri @ 2k rpm for 10mins

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209
Q

prep for CSF culture

A

centri @ 2k rpm for 10mins

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210
Q

india ink for CSF to check for

A

capsule

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211
Q

LATEX agglu for CSF to check for

A

capsular antigen

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212
Q

agar preferred for CSF culture

A

CAP

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213
Q

isolated in CSF culture

A

Neisseria and Haemophilus

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214
Q

agar preferred for wound culture

A

thio

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215
Q

characteristic odor of all anaerobes

A

foul odor

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216
Q

added to BAP for stool CS

A

ampicillin

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217
Q

ampicillin in BAP of stool CS is for

A

Aeromonas

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218
Q

agars used for stool CS

A 
MacConkey
BAP + amp
CBAP
SSA
Selenite F
TCBS
alkaline peptone
HEA
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219
Q

agars used for CSF

A

BAP
Mac
CAP
BHI

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220
Q

agars used for urine CS

A

BAP

Mac

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221
Q

agars used for sputum and NPS

A

BAP
Mac
GBA
BCA

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222
Q

BCA stands for

A

bacitracin blood agar

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223
Q

GBA stands for

A

gentamicin blood agar

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224
Q

source of DNA replication for thermophilic bacte

A

Thermus aquaticus

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225
Q

agars used for throat swabs

A

BAP
mod Thayer MArtin
thio

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226
Q

incub temp for bacte

A

35 oC

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227
Q

incub temp for fungi

A

28-30 oC

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228
Q

incub temp for virus

A

37 oC

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229
Q

agar preferred for throat swap

A

BAP

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230
Q

GBA is for isolation of

A

S. pneumoniae

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231
Q

cause of ‘bull neck’

A

diphtheria

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232
Q

diphtheria causes

A

bull neck appearance

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233
Q

used to asses quality of sputum

A

Bartlett’s classification

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234
Q

classification that enumerates number of epith cells and neutrophils per LPF

A

Bartlett’s

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235
Q

cause of UTI from swimming in marine water

A

E. faecalis

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236
Q

agars used for vaginal or urethral swabs

A

CAP

mod thayer Martin

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237
Q

Tb culture uses ____ sputum

A

3

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238
Q

gold standard additive to TB culture

A

NALC-NaOH

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239
Q

NALC means

A

N-acetyl L- cysteine

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240
Q

NALC in NALC-NaOH serves as

A

digestant

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241
Q

NaOH in NALC-NaOH serves as

A

decontaminant

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242
Q

used to elim pseudomonas contam in TB culture

A

oxalic acid

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243
Q

media used for TB culture

A

Lowenstein-Jensen

Middlebrook 7H11, 7H10

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244
Q

which among TB media is plate

A

Middlebrook 7H11, 7H10

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245
Q

which among TB media is tube

A

Lowenstein-Jensen

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246
Q

how long before reporting negative in TB culture

A

8weeks

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247
Q

turn around time of L-J TB culture

A

8 weeks

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248
Q

TAT of gene expert for TB culture

A

2-3hrs

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249
Q

BACTET used ____________ method

A

radiometric

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250
Q

simple staining uses how mny dyes

A

1

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251
Q

differential staining uses how many dyes

A

2

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252
Q

special staining procedure is used to see

A

bacterial structures

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253
Q

indirect /relief/negative staining is used to see

A

capsules

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254
Q

examples of negative staining

A

india ink

nigrossin

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255
Q

bacte not gram stain, but considered as gram neg

A

Chlamydia/Rickettsia
Mycoplasma/Ureaplasma
Spirochete

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256
Q

stain for nucleic acid

A

acridine orange

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257
Q

acridine orange is used in

A

Burke’s modification of GS

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258
Q

gram stain for fungi

A

Hucker’s stain

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259
Q

component of Hucker’s

A

crystal violet

ammonium oxalate

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260
Q

pH of mordant in GS

A

basic

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261
Q

decolorizer in GS

A

acetone-alcohol or 95% alcohol

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262
Q

gram pos becomes neg when

A

overdecolorized, old, dying
use of acidic iodine
penicillin

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263
Q

gram neg becomes pos when

A

udner-decolorized

thick smear

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264
Q

all cocci are + except

A

Moraxella
Neisseria
Veilonella

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265
Q

all bacilli are - except

A 
Myco
Coryne
Clostridia
Nocardia
Actinomyces
Bacillus
Lactobacillus
Listeria
Erysiphilotrix
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266
Q

yeasts are gram pos or neg

A

+

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267
Q

all spiral org are gram ____

A

neg

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268
Q

acid fast staining methods

A

Pappenheimer
Baumgarten’s
Fite Faraco

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269
Q

counterstain in Fite Faraco’s

A

methylene blue

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270
Q

Pappenheimer stains

A

M. smegmatis and tuberculosis

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271
Q

baumergarten stains

A

M. leprae and tuberculosis

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272
Q

appearance of smegmatis and tuberculosis in Pappenheimer stain

A

blue

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273
Q

appearance of leprae and tuberculosis in Baumergarten stain

A

red

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274
Q

what makes it acid fast

A

mycolic acid

275
Q

acid fast orgs include

A

Myco
Nocardia
Cryptosporidium

276
Q

modified AFS requires

A

no heating

1% H2SO4 as deco

277
Q

best AFS

A

Ziehl-Neelsen

278
Q

which AFS is considered the hot method

A

Ziehl-Neelsen

279
Q

which AFS is considered the col method

A

Kinyoun

280
Q

most sensitive AFS

A

rhodamine-auramine

281
Q

AFS for tissues

A

Kinyoun

282
Q

mordant in Kinyoun

A

tergitol

phenol

283
Q

color of AFO in Kinyoun and Ziehl-Neelsen

A

red

284
Q

counterstain of Ziehl-Neelsen

A

methylene blue

285
Q

counterstain of Kinyoun

A

malachite green

286
Q

a flurochrome AFS

A

rhodamine-auramine

287
Q

AFS in rhodamine-auramine shows

A

yellow fluorescence

288
Q

stain for spore

A

Schaeffer Fulton
Dorner
Wirtz Conklin

289
Q

stain for flagella

A

Leifson

Gray’s

290
Q

stain for metachro. granules

A

Neisser
Albert’s
LAMB

291
Q

stain for nucleic acid

A

Fuelgen

292
Q

stain for polar bodies

A

Wayson

293
Q

stain for Rickettsia

A

Gimenez

Macchiavelo

294
Q

stain for spirochetes

A

Levaditi

Fontana Tribondeau

295
Q

String’s test uses

A

3% KOH

296
Q

Schaeffer Fulton stains

A

spores

297
Q

Neisser stains

A

metachromatic granules

298
Q

Gimenez and Macchiavelo stains

A

Rickettsia

299
Q

inclusion bodies and living cells are viewed with what micrscope

A

phase contrast

300
Q

increased Lactobacillus acidopphilus leads to

A

increase C. albicans

301
Q

QC of BSC airflow is every

A

year/annual

302
Q

catalase test for Staph/Strep uses

A

3% H2O2

303
Q

slide coagulase test checks for

A

bound coag

304
Q

tube coagulase test checks for

A

free coag

305
Q

which coagulase test is screening

A

slide

306
Q

positive result in catalase test shows

A

gas bubble

307
Q

agar used in mannitol feermentation test

A

mannitol salt agar

308
Q

component of the MSA

A

7.5% NaCL

309
Q

poitive mannitol fermentation in MSA shows

A

yellow

neg: red

310
Q

DNase test detects

A

DNA

311
Q

two methods for DNAse test

A

toluidine blue

HCl ppt

312
Q

ID for S. saprophyticus

A

novobiocin resistance test

313
Q

bacte positive in the modified oxidase test

A

micrococcus luteus

314
Q

is enterotoxin endo or exo

A

exo

315
Q

staph. aureus property responsible for the SSS

A

exfoliatin/epidermolysin

316
Q

in aureus, this dissolves clot

A

staphylokinase

317
Q

in aureus, this is the spreading afctor

A

hyaluronidase

318
Q

in aureus, this is the fat splitting enzyme

A

lipase

319
Q

ID of S. pyogenes

A

bacitracin susceptible

320
Q

CAMP stands fo

A

cyclic adenosine monophosphate

321
Q

ID for strep. agalactiae

A

hippurate +

322
Q

S. pyogenes in CAMP

A

arrow head zone beta hemolysis

323
Q

ID for strep. pneumoniae

A

optochin susceptible

324
Q

in strep, positive in bile solubility test

A

strep. pneumoniae

325
Q

in strep, negative in bile solubility

A

iridans streptococcus/ e. faecalis

326
Q

positive result in bile solubility shows

A

lysis of bacte colony

327
Q

ID for pediococcus or leuconostoc

A

vancomycin

328
Q

gram positive cocci in chain, pairs

A

streptococcus

329
Q

pinpoint colonies

A

strep

330
Q

pinhead colonies

A

staph

331
Q

slsective medium for strep

A

PEA

332
Q

1 cause of neonatal meningitis

A

S. agalactiae

333
Q

gram positive diplococci, lancet shaped

A

S. pneumoniae

334
Q

most common casuse of otitis media

A

s. pneumoniae

335
Q

1 cause of adult bacterial meningitis

A

s. pneumoniae

336
Q

casuse of dental plaques/caries

A

strep. mutans

337
Q

a nutritionally variant streptococci (NVS), required vit. B6

A

abiotrophia

338
Q

kidney/coffee bean shaped in PMNs

A

N. gonorrhea

339
Q

virulence of N. gonorrhea

A

pili

340
Q

main difference of Nocardia and Actinomyces aisde from acid fast

A

actinomyces has sulfure granules

341
Q

thw only gram positive bacte that produce H2S

A

erysipelothrix

342
Q

how to differentiate Listeria and Coryne

A

Listeria is psitive in all (motility, esculin, salicin, CAMP)

343
Q

only mycobacteria that do not grow on agar

A

M. leprae

344
Q

mycobacteria from unpasteruized mild

A

m. bovis

345
Q

which is MOTT/NTM

A

m. leprae

346
Q

tests done after psitive in LJ media

A

niacin and nitrate

347
Q

how to differentiate Mtb from m. bovis

A

M.tb is positive in niacin and nitrate

348
Q

number of sputum as per DOH in DSSM

A

2

349
Q

M.tb requires ____ to grow

A

5% CO2

350
Q

the virulence of m.tb

A

cord factor

351
Q

is saliva acceptable for DSSM

A

yes

352
Q

added to sputum to inhibit pseudomonas

A

oxalic acid

353
Q

oxalic acid inhibits ____ in sputum

A

pseudomonas

354
Q

sputulysin in DSSM sputum

A

dithiothreitol

355
Q

AFB grading of 0

A

no AFB/300 fields

356
Q

AFB grading of +n

A

1-9/100fields

357
Q

AFB grading of 1+

A

10-99/100fields

358
Q

AFB grading of 2+

A

1-10/at least 50

359
Q

AFB grading of 3+

A

> 10/at least 20

360
Q

ideal size for DSSM

A

2x3cm

361
Q

required fields read in DSSM

A

300

362
Q

DOTS stands for

A

directly observe treatment strategy

363
Q

dry smear prior heat fixing to ____

A

prevent aerosols

364
Q

used loops in DSSM are cleansed with

A

70% alcohol with sand

365
Q

inhibitory agent for normal flora in eggbased media for sputum

A

malachite green

366
Q

sterilization for egg based media

A

insipation(?)

367
Q

emmeda for AST of sputum

A

Middlebrook 7H10-H11

368
Q

growth in LJ means mycobacterium

A

no. may be nocardia

369
Q

best media for mycobacteria

A

lowenstein-jensen

370
Q

carbon source in LJ media

A

glycerol

371
Q

colony of M.tb in LJ media

A

butt-colored cauliflower, non-pigmented

372
Q

liquid media used for mycobacteria

A

Middlebrook 7H9/12

373
Q

most rapid test for mycobacteria

A

gene expert

374
Q

gold standard for mycobacteria

A

culture

375
Q

positive in mantoux shows

A

5-10mm induration

376
Q

positive in niacin test for mycobacteria shows

A

yellow color

377
Q

catalase test for mycobacteria uses

A

30% H2O2

378
Q

important results in catalase test in myco

A

(+) kansasii

(-) m.tb

379
Q

medium used in catalase test for mycobacteria

A

tween 80

380
Q

temp used in catalase test for mycobacteria

A

68 oC

381
Q

important reslts in tellurite red. test for mycobacterium

A

(+) avium

(-) kansasii

382
Q

psoitive result in tellurite reduc test shows

A

blackening

383
Q

arylsulfatase test determines mycobacteria that are _____

A

rapid growers

384
Q

this is psiitive in arylsulfatase teste

A

m. fortuitum-chelonae

385
Q

rounyoun 1 is

A

photochromogens

386
Q

rounyoun2 is

A

scotochromogens

387
Q

rounyoun 3 is

A

non-photochromogen

388
Q

rounyoun 4 is

A

rapid growers

389
Q

rounyoun 1 includes

A

m. kansasii
marinum

asiaticum
simiae

390
Q

rounyoun 2 includes

A

m. scrofulaceum
gordonae

szulgai
xenopi
flavescens

391
Q

which rounyoun 2 is also nonphoto

A

m. xenopi

392
Q

rounyoun 2 that is also photo and at what temp is i photo

A

szulgai

@25 oC

393
Q

causes swimming pool granuloma

A

m. marinum

394
Q

mycobacteria that causes cervical lymph adenitis

A

m. scrofulaceum

395
Q

m. sccrofulaceum causes

A

cervical lymph adenitis

396
Q

common name for m. gordonae

A

tap water bacillus

397
Q

rounyoun 3 would appear as

A

cream/buff in 10-21 days

398
Q

myco common in HIV patients

A

m. avium

399
Q

syndrome caused by m. avium

A

lady windermere syndrome

400
Q

the mycobacterium needing RBC and HGb

A

m. haemophilus

401
Q

common name for m. intracellulare

A

battey bacillus

402
Q

the urine AFB, confused with m.tb in urine

A

m. smegmatis

403
Q

how long it takes for rapid growers to grow

A

3-7 days

404
Q

how to differentiate m.tb from m. smegmatis

A

pappenheimer stain

405
Q

can grow in Mac without crystal violet

A

m. fortuitum-chelonae

406
Q

a radioimmunoassay test for mycobacterium

A

bactec 460 middlebrook 7H12

407
Q

a immunofluorescence assay for mycobacterium

A

mycobacteria growth indicator tube (Middlebrook 7H9)

408
Q

bactecc 460 middlebrook 7H12 uses

A

14 CO2 radioisotope

409
Q

no growth in bactec 12B + NAP (inhibition test) is myco. ______

A

tuberculosis

410
Q

how to differentaite fortuitum from chelonae

A

nitrate and uptake of iron and 5% NaCL

411
Q

macrophages with AFB are called

A

lepra cells

412
Q

specimen for m. leprae

A

tissue juice

413
Q

AFB that is sshaped as cigarette-packet/picket-fence

A

m. leprae

414
Q

common name for m. leprae

A

hansen

415
Q

which is more dangerous, lepromatous or tuberculoid leprosy? and why

A

lepromatous bcoz lepromine is negative (meaning cell mediated shit is not working anymore) and many AFB

416
Q

lepromine positive

A

tuberculoid leprosy

417
Q

lepromine negative

A

lepromatous leprosy

418
Q

key characterisitic of lepromatous patients

A

leonine face

419
Q

skin test for leprosy

A

lepromine

420
Q

culture of m. leprae

A

armadillo foot pads

421
Q

stin for leprae

A

fite faraco (hematoxylin-counterstain)

422
Q

a pleomorphic, rod-cocci, considered th epink bacteria

A

rhodococcus equi

423
Q

causes the Crohn/s disease

A

m. paratuberculosis

424
Q

m. paratuberculosis causes

A

Crohn’s disease

425
Q

specimen for nocardia culture

A

sputum and tissue samples

426
Q

pleomorphic gram pos rods that may be club shaped or pallisade

A

corynebacte

427
Q

metahchromatic granules in corynebacteria

A

Babes-Ernst granules

428
Q

BAP colony of raised, translucent, gray

A

corynebacteria

429
Q

also called the Kleb-Loeffler’s bacillus

A

C. diphtheriae

430
Q

appearance of c. diphtheriae infection that causes suffocation due to obstruction of airway

A

bull neck

431
Q

skin test for diphtheria

A

Schick test

432
Q

definitive and confirmaory test for diphtheria

A

elek test

433
Q

culture media for c. diphtheriae

A

Pai

loeffler

434
Q

test for toxigenicity of c. diphtheriae

A

elek test

435
Q

skin test for Scarlet fever

A

Dick

436
Q

inhibits normal flora in c. diphtheriae culture

A

tellurite

437
Q

biotypes of c. diphtheriae

A

gravis
intermedius
mitis
belfanti

438
Q

the only nontoxigenic biotype of c. diph

A

belfanti

439
Q

the only beta hemo biotype of c. diph

A

mitis

440
Q

the toxigenic biotypes of c. diph

A

gravis
intermedius
mitis

441
Q

only pathogenic corynebacteria

A

diphtheriae

ulcerans

442
Q

coryne that causes mastitis in cattle

A

c. ulcerans

443
Q

other name for c. pseudotb

A

c. ovix

444
Q

how to differentiate c. ulcerans and c. pseudotb

A

starch HOH

445
Q

old anme of glucose

A

dextrose

446
Q

old name of sucrose

A

sacarose

447
Q

coryne that causes conjunctivitis

A

c. xerosis

448
Q

coryne that is skin normal flora, and drug resistant

A

c. jeikeium

449
Q

Hoffman’s bacillus

A

c. pseudoditheriticum

450
Q

agent of erythrasma

A

coryne. minutissimum

451
Q

coryne. minutissimum appears as ______ on wood’s lt.

A

coral red fluorescence

452
Q

coryne. minutissimum causes

A

erythrasma

453
Q

shows inverted triangle in reverse CAMP with S. aureus

A

arcanobacterium haemolyticum

454
Q

arcanobacterium haemolyticum shows ___ in reverse camp with s. aureus

A

inverse triangle

455
Q

largest pathogenic bacteria

A

bacillus anthracis

456
Q

bamboo shaped in chain bacte, square end

A

bacillus anthracis

457
Q

capsular stain for bacillus anthracis

A

McFadyean’s

458
Q

bicarbonate in medium for b anthracis is for

A

capsular formation

459
Q

why is the capsule of b. anthracis not true capsule

A

bcoz it is made of D glutamate not polysachh

460
Q

cutaneous infection of anthrax

A

malignant pustule

461
Q

malignant pustule shows

A

black eschar

462
Q

pulmonary anthrax

A

woolsorter’s

463
Q

other name of woolsorter’s

A

ragpicker’s dx

464
Q

intestinnal anthra

A

gastroenteritis

465
Q

slective medium for anthrax

A

PLET polymixin lysozyme EDTA thallous acetate

466
Q

colony of anthrax

A

medusa head

467
Q

a sero. pptn test, to detect anthrax antigen, done on animal

A

ascoli test

468
Q

definitive and confirmatory test for anthrax

A

PCR

469
Q

presumptive/screening test for anthrax

A

penicillin suscept test

470
Q

colony of anthrax on BAP

A

flat, irreg, swirling projections, non-hemo

471
Q

virulence of b. cereus

A

exotoin

472
Q

fried rice bacillus is

A

b. cereus

473
Q

which is motile, anthra or cerues

A

cereus

474
Q

basta capsulated, ito ay _____

A

nonmotile

475
Q

used for QC on gas ethylene oxide

A

bacillus subtilis

476
Q

common eye infection in heroin addicts

A

b. subtilis

477
Q

causes flat sour spoilage

A

stearothermophilus

478
Q

obligate anaerobe gram (+) with endospore

A

clostridium

479
Q

all clostridium are saccharolytic except

A

tetani and speticum

480
Q

3 types of clostridium

A

neurotoxic
hisototix
enteric

481
Q

neurtoxic clostri includes

A

tetani

botulinum

482
Q

histotoxic clostri includes

A

perfringens

septicum

483
Q

enteric clostri includes

A

difficile

484
Q

the only encapsulated clostridium

A

perfringens

485
Q

box car shaped bacillus

A

c. perfringens

486
Q

diseases caused by perfringens

A

gas gangrene
food poisoning
necrotic enteritis

487
Q

gas gangrene by perfringens causes

A

myonecrosis

488
Q

necrotic enteritis by perfringens is also called

A

pig-bel disease

489
Q

agar for perfringens

A

neomycin egg yolk/Mc Clung/Nagler agar

490
Q

test to detect perfringens toxin

A

nagler/lecithinase test

491
Q

positive in Nagler agar shows

A

opalescence on agar w/o antitoxin

492
Q

stormy fermentation of milk is a lab dx for

A

perfringens

493
Q

canned good bacillus

A

c. botulinum

494
Q

most potent neurotoxin

A

botutlinum

495
Q

infant botulism is usually caused bu how

A

honey bee on milks

496
Q

infant with botulism would look like

A

floppy baby

497
Q

terminal spore, tennis racket or drumstick, tack ehad bacillus

A

c. tetani

498
Q

how is flaccid paralysis caused in botulism

A

the toxin blocks release of acetylcholine

499
Q

virulence of tetani

A

tetanolysin

tetanospasmin

500
Q

the tetani exotxin inhibits neurons in CNS and cause

A

spastic paralysis

501
Q

sardonic smile is laso called

A

risus sardonicus

502
Q

arching of the back by tetani is also called

A

opisthotonus

503
Q

clostridium that is colon flora

A

difficile

504
Q

major disease caused by difficile

A

antibiotic (clindamycin) assoc pseudomembranous enterocolitis

505
Q

culture media for difficile

A

CCFA cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar

506
Q

characterisitic of CCFA

A

yellow, horse manure odor

507
Q

an example of reduced media for anaerobic culture

A

Schaedler

508
Q

AST medium for anaerobes

A

Wilkin-Chalgren broth and agar

509
Q

definitive test foranaerobes, acid analysis

A

gas liquid chromatography

510
Q

proof of anaerobiosis in gas pak jar

A

moisture in jar

indicator turns colorless

511
Q

indicators in the gas pak jar

A

methylene blue

resazurin

512
Q

brick red fluorescence

A

prevotella

porphyromonas

513
Q

red fluorescence

A

veilonella

514
Q

pitting of agar

A

b. ureolyticus

515
Q

double zone of hemolysis

A

c. perfringens

516
Q

swarming

A

c. tetani

c. septicum

517
Q

molar tooth colony, sulfur granules

A

actinomyces israelii

518
Q

breadccrumb colony

A

f. nucleatum

519
Q

horse oddor (CCFA)

A

c. difficile

520
Q

KVC pattern of B. fragilis

A

RRR

521
Q

KVC pattern of porphyromonas

A

RSR

522
Q

KVC pattern of prevotella

A

RRS

523
Q

KVC pattern of b. urealyticum/fusobacterium

A

SRS

524
Q

KVC pattern of clostridium

A

SSR

525
Q

on KVC, what bacteria has RRR pattern

A

b. fragilis

526
Q

on KVC, what bacteria has RSR

A

porphyromonas

527
Q

on KVC, what bacteria has RRS

A

prevotella

528
Q

on KVC, what bacteria has SRS

A

b. urealyticum/fusobacterium

529
Q

on KVC, what bacteria has SSR

A

clostridium

530
Q

fungus like bacter, ray fungus

A

actinomyces

531
Q

draining sinus tract with sulfur granules

A

actinomyces israelii

532
Q

lumpy jaw is caused by

A

actinomyces bovis

533
Q

what bodies are seen in lactobacillus

A

doderlein bodies

534
Q

gram post anaerobic bacilli

A 
actinomyces
bifidobacterium
eubacterium
propionebacterium
lacctobacillus
mobiluncus
535
Q

gram neg anaerobic bacilli

A 
bacteroides
porphyromonas
prevotella
fusobacterium
f. necrophorum
bacteroides urealyticum
536
Q

cause of Vincent’s angina

A

F. necrophorum

537
Q

Vincent’s angina is a synergistic inefction by ______

A

F. necrophorum and B. vincentii

538
Q

Lemierre’s disease is caused by

A

F. necrophorum

539
Q

ddiseases caused by F. neccrophorum

A

Lemierre’s

Vincent’s angina

540
Q

gram positive anaerobic cocci

A

peptostreptococcus anaerobius, asaccharolyticus, niger

541
Q

SPS sensitive gram (+) anaerobic cocci

A

peptostreptococcus anaerobius

542
Q

gram neg anaerobic coccci

A

veilonella parvula
megassphera
acidaaminococcus

543
Q

usually seen after jaw surgery bcoz it is oral flora

A

veilonella parvula

544
Q

in nirate reduction test, zinc dust is added to

A

detect unreduced nitrate

545
Q

used to detect unreduced nitrate in nitrate reduc test

A

zinc dust

546
Q

a pathogenicity test for enteric, also a lactose fermentation test

A

ONPG o-nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactophyranoside

547
Q

gram neg bacilli would have what results on BAP CAP Mac

A

all positive

548
Q

gram pos bacteria would have what results on BAP CAP Mac

A

negative on Mac

549
Q

Neisseria adn Haemophilus would have what results on BAP CAP Mac

A

positive on CAP only

550
Q

LOA test consists of

A

lysine-ornithine-arginine

551
Q

LOA uses how many tubes

A

3 tube + 1 control tube

552
Q

in LOA, lysine becomes

A

cadaverine

553
Q

in LOA, ornithine becomes

A

putrescine

554
Q

in LOA, arginine becomes

A

citrulline

555
Q

medium used in LOA test

A

Moeller’s decarboxylase medium

556
Q

the next step when there is growth on Mac

A

oxidase test

(+) p. aeruginosa
(-) e. coli

557
Q

indicator in Moeller’s medium

A

bromcresol purple

558
Q

A/A in TSI means

A

2-3 sugars fermented

559
Q

K/A in TSI means

A

glucose fermented

560
Q

K/K in TSI means

A

no sugar fermeted

pseudomonas

561
Q

gas producers are called

A

aerogenic

562
Q

what happends in LIA butt

A

lysine decarboxylation

563
Q

what happends in LIA slant

A

lysine deamination

564
Q

results in LIA butt

A

(+) purple

(=) yellow

565
Q

results in LIA slant

A

(+) red

(-) yellow

566
Q

component of the Erlich/Kovac’s rgt

A

p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

567
Q

indole came from

A

tryptophan

568
Q

the opposites in IMViC

A

methyl red and voges-proskauer

569
Q

test for the mixed acid of glucose fermentation

A

methyl red

570
Q

other name for MRVP medium

A

Clark and Lubs dextrose broth

571
Q

Voges Proskauer detects

A

acetoin

572
Q

(+) in VP test

(-) in MR

A

KESH

Kleb, Entero, Serratia, Hafnia

573
Q

Coblentz method in Voges Proskauer uses

A

alpha napthol in 40% KOH in creatine

574
Q

Barrits method in Voges Proskauer uses

A

alpha napthol and KOH

575
Q

difference of Barrits and Coblentz in Voges Proskauer

A

Barrits for gram neg

Coblentz for gram pos

576
Q

carbon source in citrate utilization test

A

citrate

577
Q

end product of acetamide utilization test

A

ammonia

578
Q

important results in acetamide utili test

A

+ aeruginosa

- s. maltophilia

579
Q

positive bacteria in malonate utili test

A

KECH

kleb enteri citro hafnia

580
Q

media used in urease test

A

Christensen agar-Stuart urea broth

581
Q

phenylalanine deaminase positive (PAD)

A

PMP

proteus morganella providencia

582
Q

positive bacte in KCN broth test

A

KEPPC

kleb entero proteus providencia citro

583
Q

string test uses

A

0.5% sodium desoxycholate

584
Q

string test is ID for

A

vibrio cholerae

585
Q

the crystal violet in Mac serves as

A

antifungal

586
Q

all enterobacteriaceae are motile except

A

kleb and shigella

587
Q

all enterobacteriacea are oxidase negative except

A

plesiomonas

588
Q

1 cause of UTI

A

e. coli

589
Q

IMVic results of E. coli

A

++–

590
Q

2 cause of neonatal meningitis

A

E. coli

591
Q

all E. coli are MUG(+) except

A

O157:H7

592
Q

strains that causes ETEC

A

O6 8 25

593
Q

strains that cause EPEC

A

O111 114

594
Q

strains that causes EIEC

A

O124 143 164

595
Q

strains that cause EHEC

A

O157:H7

596
Q

traaveller’s (turista) diarrhea, watery diarrhea

A

ETEC

597
Q

infanitle diarrhea by e. coli

A

EPEC

598
Q

an ocular virulence test

A

sereny test

599
Q

sereny test is used for

A

EIEC

600
Q

HUS, hemolytic colitis by e. coli

A

ETEC/VTEC

601
Q

result of O157:H7 in sorbitol Mac

A

negative

602
Q

the only negative e. coli strain in sorbitol Mac

A

O157:H7

603
Q

stacked bricked pattern of cells is seen in what e. coli inf

A

enteroaggregative E. coli

604
Q

unique feature seen in enteroaggregative e. coli

A

stacked brick pattern of cells

605
Q

acute and chronic diarrhea caused by e. coli

A

enteroaggregative e. coli

606
Q

IMViC results of enterobacter

A

–++

607
Q

all enterobacters are urease negative except

A

e. gergoviae

608
Q

LDC negative control

A

e. cloacae

609
Q

how to differentiate e. pantoea agglomerans from the rest

A

LOA test, all negative

610
Q

LDC positive control

A

k. pneumoiae

611
Q

common name for k. pneumoniae

A

friedlander’s bacillus

612
Q

how to differentiate k. pneumoniae and k. oxytoca

A

indol

(+) oxytoca
(-) pneumoniae

613
Q

only lactose fermenting salmonella

A

salmonella arizona

614
Q

citrobacter that causes neonatal meningitis

A

c. diversus

615
Q

new name of c. diversus

A

koseri

616
Q

how to differentiate c. freundii and s. typhi

A

c. freundi is LF and LDC(-)

617
Q

all Proteeae (PMP) are urease positive except

A

p. alcalifacien

618
Q

all proteeae are LOA ___ except

A

morganella and p. mirabilis

619
Q

all proteeae are indole (+) except

A

p. mirabilis

620
Q

presumptive test for proteeae

A

PAD

621
Q

virulence of proteus

A

urease

622
Q

2 cause of UTI and renal stones

A

proteus

623
Q

a swarming phenomenon of proteus

A

dienes

624
Q

used bacteria in weil-felix test

A

proteus

625
Q

proteus provides ___ in weil-felix test

A

Oxk-kingsbury

626
Q

TSI rxn of proteeae

A

K/@

627
Q

LIA rxn of proteeae

A

R/A

628
Q

test for serotypes of salmonella

A

kauffman white scheme

629
Q

all salmonella are aerogenic except

A

sal. typhi

gallinarum

630
Q

all salmonella are motile except

A

galinnarum

pullorum

631
Q

appearance of stool in salmonellosis

A

pea-soup stool

632
Q

how to differentiate proteus and salmonella

A

use KCN, urease, PAD

proteus all positive

633
Q

specimen for 1t week of typhoid fever

A

blood

634
Q

specimen for 2nd wk of typhoid

A

stool, carrier

635
Q

confirmatory for typhoid fever

A

bone marrow culture

636
Q

salmonella that causes septiciia

A

s. paratyphi/cholera suis

637
Q

salmonella that causes gastroenteritis

A

enteritidis

638
Q

salmonella that causes food poisoning

A

typhimurium

639
Q

how to differentiate salmonella sonnei from the rest

A

ornithine and ONPG positive

640
Q

pnemonics for the O antigens of the salmonella spp

A

ABCD-DFBS

641
Q

biochemically inert bacteria

A

shigella

642
Q

a bacteria that’s NLF but also considered late lactose

A

serratia marcescens

643
Q

serratia that is ommon blood bag contam

A

liquefacien

644
Q

what makes serratia red

A

prodigiosin

645
Q

arabinose (+) serratia

A

rubidae

646
Q

IMViC similar to E. coli

A

Edwardsiella tara ++–

647
Q

differentiate Edwardsiella from Salmonella using

A

indole test

648
Q

safety pin appearance

A

yersinia pestis

649
Q

bacteria responsible for black death (bio terrorism)

A

yersinia pestis

650
Q

stalactite (+) bacter

A

y. pestis

651
Q

bacteria motile at 22 oC but not at 35 oC

A

y. enterocolitica

652
Q

appearance of y. enterocolitica in CIN agar

A

bull’s eye

653
Q

bull’s eye in CIN agar indicates

A

y. enterocolitica

654
Q

cold enrichment @ 4oC (listeria)

A

y. enterocolitica

655
Q

the only zoonotic yersnia bacte

A

y. pseudotb

656
Q

bacteria used asQC for oxidase

A

(+) p. aeruginosa

(-) e. coli

657
Q

all vibrio are oxidase positive except

A

v. mitschnikovii

658
Q

all vibrio are halophilic except

A

cholerae

mimicus

659
Q

all vibrio has colorless colonhy on Mac except

A

vulnificus

660
Q

responsible for rice watery stool

A

cholerae

661
Q

other name for cholera toxin

A

choleragen

662
Q

phenomenon that is the lysis of v. cholerae

A

pfeipper’s pheno

663
Q

the more common biotype of v. cholerae causing pandemic cholera

A

el tor

664
Q

v. cholerae serotypethat has both ogawa and inaba

A

hikojima

665
Q

cholera red test results

A

nitrate and indole (+)

666
Q

other name for cholera red test

A

nitroso-indole test

667
Q

TCBS stands for

A

thiosulfate citrate bile salt sucrose

668
Q

TTGA stands for

A

tellurite taurocholate gelatin agar

669
Q

bacteria that has beta hemolysis on wagatsuma

A

v. parahaemolyticus

670
Q

only vibrio found in blood

A

vulnificus

671
Q

NaCL reqt of vibrio

A

3 5 8 10%

672
Q

how to differentiate vibrio from plesiomonas and aeromonas

A

NaCl reqt

673
Q

curved, darting motility, seagull wing

A

campylobacter

674
Q

microaerphilic bacteria

A

campylobacter

675
Q

bacteria that resembles campylo

A

suturella wadworthiensis

676
Q

cause of guillain barre

A

c. jejuni

677
Q

1 cause of gastroenteritis in US

A

c. jejuni

678
Q

how to differentiate c jejuni from h. pylori

A

urea breath test

(+) pylori

679
Q

the only hippurate positive campylobacter

A

c. jejuni

680
Q

coryne that causes otitis meddia

A

c. auris

681
Q

the only clostridium that is assacharolytic

A

c. tetani

682
Q

anaerobic media are media that are ______ and contains hemin, blood, vitK, sodium bicaarb

A

pre-reduced

683
Q

(+) clostridium

A

botulinum
novyii
sporogenes

684
Q

papasa ka ba sa boards

A

yes

BOARD EXAM (3 decks)

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