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BOARD EXAM > CLINICAL MICROSCOPY > Flashcards

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY Flashcards

1
Q

white quadrant in NFPA

A

specific hazard

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2
Q

yellow in NFPA

A

reactivity

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3
Q

blue in NFPA

A

health hazard

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4
Q

red in NFPA

A

flammability

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5
Q

RACE stands for

A

rescue-alarm-close-attempt

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6
Q

glucose is reabsorbed in what part on the nephron

A

PCT

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7
Q

principle of automated strip readers

A

reflectance photometry

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8
Q

sp. gr. of 4% sucrose in refractometer

A

1.034 +- .001

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9
Q

OVB seen in

A

nephrotic syndrome

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10
Q

hCG is produced by ____ of placenta

A

cytotrophoblast cells

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11
Q

rena stone that is yellow-brown, greasy and resembles old soap

A

cysteine

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12
Q

rgt used in Apt test

A

NaOH

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13
Q

ind. test for ammonia in CSF

A

CSF glutamate

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14
Q

counting chamber for undiluted semen specimen

A

Makler

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15
Q

sx used in Diagnex tubeless (blue) test

A

urine

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16
Q

gastric disorder characterized by absence of free HCl

A

perniciuos anemia

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17
Q

sputum is secreted by

A

tracheobronchial tree

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18
Q

enzyme added to reduce viscosity of synovial fluid

A

0.05% hyaluronidase

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19
Q

type of effusion in empyema

A

pleural empyema

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20
Q

trisomy 21 is

A

Down

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21
Q

most predominant cell in bronchoalveolar lavag

A

macrophage

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22
Q

tumor markers for urinary bladder cancer

A

NMP; CYFRA 21-1

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23
Q

preservtion for urine culture

A

ref

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24
Q

provided documentation for proper sample identification

A

chain of custody

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25
Q

Nomarski and Hoffman are what kind of microscopy?

A

interference contrast (maybe brightfield)

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26
Q

rinse hands in ___ position

A

downward

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27
Q

PDCA stands for

A

plan-do-check-act

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28
Q

centrifuges are calibrated every

A

3 months

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29
Q

positive in MPS paper test

A

blue color

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30
Q

first bowel movement of fetus

A

meconium

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31
Q

2,4-dichloroaniline diazonium salt is incorporate in ____ rgt strip

A

bilirubin

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32
Q

may be ppt-ed w/ tyrosine crystals when alcohol is added to urine

A

leucine

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33
Q

components of chain of infection

A

IREMES

infectious agent
reservoir 
exit poratl
MOT
entry portal
susc. host
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34
Q

use alcohol bases hand rubs when

A

hands not visibly soiled

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35
Q

best way to break infection

A

handwashing

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36
Q

hand wash for how long

A

15 secs

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37
Q

primary method of infection

A

hand contact

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38
Q

disinfection of the sink uses ______

A

1:5 or 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite

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39
Q

preparation of 1:10 dilution sodium hypochlorite

A

1 part sodium hypochlorite to 9 parts water

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40
Q

best first aid for chemical spills

A

flush with large amounts of water for 15 mins

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41
Q

sharps are disposed in

A

puncture resistant container

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42
Q

HBD during handwashing sang__

A

2x

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43
Q

NFPA stands for

A

national fire protection assoc

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44
Q

levels in NFPA reactivity hazard

A

SUVSM

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45
Q

levels in NFPA health hazard

A

NSHED

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46
Q

degree of hazards

A

NoSMSEx

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47
Q

describe biohazard symbol

A

3 dark bordered circles joined together

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48
Q

PASS stands for

A

pull-aim-squeeze-sweep

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49
Q

it is required that all elec. equip. is grounded in a _____

A

three-pronged plug

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50
Q

flammables should be stored in safety cabinets and _______

A

explosion-proof ref

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51
Q

type A fire

A

paper, clothes etc

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52
Q

type B fire

A

flamm. liquids

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53
Q

type C fire

A

electrical equips

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54
Q

type D fire

A

flammable metals

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55
Q

type E fire

A

arsenal fire

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56
Q

type K fire

A

cooking media

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57
Q

extinguisher for type A fire

A

water

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58
Q

exting. for type C fire

A

halon

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59
Q

number of nephrons per kidney

A

1-1.5 million

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60
Q

basic unit of kidneys

A

nephrons

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61
Q

order of urine formation

A 
glomerulus
PCT
DLH
ALH
DCT
CD
------
calyx
renal pelvis
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62
Q

renal functions

A

renal blood flow

glom. fil
tub. reab
tub. sec

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63
Q

which alter urine conc

A

PCT, LH, DCT, DC

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64
Q

which is impermeable to water

A

ALH

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65
Q

renal blood flow

A

1,200 ml/min

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66
Q

renal plasma flow

A

6600-700 ml/min

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67
Q

capillaries aorund the loop of henle

A

vasa recta

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68
Q

gomerulus resembles a

A

sieve

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69
Q

glom is non selective filter for substances with MW of

A
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70
Q

why is albumin not filtered despite fit size

A

shield of negativity

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71
Q

sp. gr. of glomerular filtrate

A

1.010

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72
Q

glucose renal threshold

A

160-180 mg/dl

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73
Q

corr. of lower hydration to ADH and urine volume

A

lower ADh, more urine volume

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74
Q

corr. of higher hydration to ADH and urine volume

A

higher ADH, less urine volume

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75
Q

first affected with renal disease

A

renal reab

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76
Q

100% reabsorbed

A

amino acids

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77
Q

40% reabsorbed

A

urea

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78
Q

regulates water reabsorption in DCT and CD

A

ADH/vasopressin

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79
Q

regulates sodium reabsorption

A

aldosterone

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80
Q

major site of reabsorption (65%)

A

PCT

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81
Q

ADH def.

A

DI

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82
Q

ADH excess

A

SIADH

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83
Q

system inittiated by low BP

A

RAAS

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84
Q

RAAS flow

A

angiotensin > angiotensin I by renin > angiotensin II by ACE

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85
Q

effect of angiotensin II

A

correct renal bld flow
release of aldo and ADF
increased sodium and water reab
increased bld press

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86
Q

reabsorbed actively

A

glucose, amino acids, salts, chloride, sodium

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87
Q

reabsorbed passively

A

water, urea, sodium

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88
Q

function of tubular secretion

A

eliminates waste

regulates acid-base

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89
Q

inability to produce acid urine

A

RTA

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90
Q

ph of blood in RTA

A

acidic

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91
Q

ph of urine in RTA

A

alkaline

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92
Q

why is urine alkaline in RTA

A

hydrogen ions not excreted in the urine

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93
Q

used to evaluate glomerular filtration

A

clearance test

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94
Q

formula of creatinine clearance

A

(UV/P) x (1.73/A)

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95
Q

formular by Cockgraft and Gault

A

[(140-age)(body wt)]/(72xserum crea)

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96
Q

varaibles in cockgroft and gault formula

A

age, sex, body wt in kg

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97
Q

normal value of crea clearance for male

A

107-139 ml/min

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98
Q

normal value of crea clearance for female

A

87-107 ml/min

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99
Q

used to evaluate tubular reabsorption

A

conc tests

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100
Q

obsolete test for tub. reabsorption

A

Fishberg

Mosenthal

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101
Q

patient is deprived of fluid for 24hrs

A

Fishberg

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102
Q

compare day and night urine in terms of volume and SG

A

Mosenthal

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103
Q

SG of urine in Fishberg

A

> 1.026

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104
Q

influenced by number and density of particles in solution

A

sp. gr.

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105
Q

influence by number of particles

A

osmolarity

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106
Q

commonly used tests for tub. reabsorption

A

sp. gr

osmolarity

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107
Q

tests for tubular secretion and renal blood flow

A

PAH and PSP

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108
Q

not filtered by glomerulus but secreted by tubule

A

PAH and PSP

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109
Q

urine composition

A

95-97% water

3-5% solids

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110
Q

formula for total solids in 24hrs

A

solids - 60 grams

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111
Q

major organic in urine

A

urea

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112
Q

amount of organic in urine

A

35 grams

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113
Q

amount of inorganic in urine

A

25 grams

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114
Q

major inorganic in urine

A

chloride

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115
Q

order of inorganics in urine

A

CHLORIDE > SODIUM > POTASSIUM

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116
Q

principal salt in urine

A

NaCL

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117
Q

ideal urine for routine UA

A

first morning

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118
Q

for routine and qualitative UA

A

random

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119
Q

2nd voided urine after a period of fasting; for glucose

A

2nd morning

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120
Q

for routine screening and culture

A

midstream

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121
Q

for bacterial culture

A

catheterized

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122
Q

bladder urine for anaerobic bacte culture and cytology

A

suprapubic aspirate

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123
Q

use of soft, clear plastic bag w/ adhesive

A

pediatric

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124
Q

for prostatic infection

A

three glass specimen

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125
Q

prostatic inf in thrre glass test if

A

no. of WBC and bact in 3rd is 10x > of 1st

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126
Q

2nd specimen in three glass is used as

A

control

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127
Q

urine sx for Addis count

A

12-hour

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128
Q

urine sx for nitrite determination

A

4-hour

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129
Q

why 4-hour urine for nitrite det.

A

nitrate to nitrite by bacteria takes 4 hour

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130
Q

for urobilinogen determiation

A

afternoon urine (2pm-4pm)

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131
Q

why afternoon urine for urobilinogen

A

diurnal variation, high activity in afternoon

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132
Q

required urine volume for drug testing

A

30-45 ml

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133
Q

temperature within 4 mins of urine in drug testing

A

32.5-37.7 oC

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134
Q

added to toilet water reservoir to prevent sx adulteration

A

blueing dye

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135
Q

urine sx should be tested within

A

2hrs

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136
Q

increased in unpreserved urine

A

PBaON

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137
Q

why ketones decrease in unpreserved sx

A

evap

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138
Q

why RBCs, WBCs, casts decrease in upreserved sx

A

disintegrate in alakline urine

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139
Q

least affected in unpreserved sx

A

protein

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140
Q

which preservatipom ppt amoprhous ruates and phosphates?

A

ref

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141
Q

excellent sediment preservative

A

formalin

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142
Q

preservative for Addis count

A

formalin

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143
Q

preservative bacteriostatic at 18g/L

A

boric acid

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144
Q

at what conc is boric acid bacteriostatic

A

18g/L

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145
Q

preserved proteins and formed elements well

A

boric acid

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146
Q

preservative that prevents glycolysis

A

sodium fluoride

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147
Q

alternative for sodium fluoride in preserving urine for rgt strip reading

A

sodium benzoate

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148
Q

preservative for cellular elements and sx used for cytology studies

A

saccomanno fixatives

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149
Q

components of saccomanno

A

50% ethanol + 2% carbowax

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150
Q

normal range of urine output

A

600-2000 mL/day

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151
Q

average urine output

A

1200-1500 ml/day

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152
Q

night:day ratio of urine output

A

1:2-1:3

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153
Q

volume required for routine UA using urinometer and rgt strip

A

10-15ml

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154
Q

urine output in polyuria

A

> 2000ml/day

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155
Q

urine output in oliguria

A
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156
Q

urine out in anuria

A
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157
Q

excretion of more than 500 mL of urine at night

A

nocturia

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158
Q

how to determine urine color

A

look down through the container against a white background

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159
Q

pigments in urine

A

urochrome
uroerythrin
urobilin

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160
Q

main pigment in urine and directly proportional to metabolic rate

A

urochrome

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161
Q

may deposit in amorphous urates and uric acid crystas

A

uroerythrin

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162
Q

a special cause of dark yellow urine

A

carotene

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163
Q

form yellow foam when shaken

A

bilirubin

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164
Q

orange and viscous urine with orange foam

A

pyridium

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165
Q

blue-green urine may be caused by

A

indican

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166
Q

portwine color urine is caused by

A

porphyrins

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167
Q

causes of brown or black urine

A

methem
homogentisic acid
melanin

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168
Q

how to determine urine clarity

A

view through newspaper print

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169
Q

soluble in ether

A

lipids
lymphatic fluid
chyle

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170
Q

soluble in dilute acetic acid

A

RBCs
amorphous phosphates
carbonates

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171
Q

insoluble in dilute acetic acid

A

WBCs
bacte
yeast
spermatozoa

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172
Q

soluble with heat

A

amorhpous urates

uric acid

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173
Q

aromatic odor of urine indicates

A

normal (due to presence of volatile acids from food)

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174
Q

fruity odor of urine indicates

A

ketones (DM, starvation, vomiting)

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175
Q

foul, ammoniacal odor of urine indicates

A

UTI

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176
Q

maple syrup odor of urine indicates

A

MSUD

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177
Q

mosuy odor of urine indicates

A

phenylketonuria

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178
Q

rancid butter odor of urine indicates

A

tyrosinemia

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179
Q

sweaty feet, acrid odor of urine indicates

A

isovaleric or glutaric acidemia

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180
Q

cabbage odor of urine indicates

A

methionine malabsorption

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181
Q

bleach odor of urine indicates

A

contam

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182
Q

sulfur odor of urine indicates

A

cystine disorder

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183
Q

rotting fish odor of urine indicates

A

trimethylaminuria

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184
Q

pungent odor of urine indicates

A

asparagus
onion
garlic

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185
Q

cause of pungent odor of urine from asparagus

A

methylmercaptan

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186
Q

swimming pool odor of urine indicates

A

hawkinsinuria

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187
Q

tomcat odor of urine indicates

A

multiple carboxylase deficiency

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188
Q

Oasthouse urine disease causes what odor of urine

A

hops

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189
Q

hawkinsinuria causes what odor of urine

A

swimming pool

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190
Q

cystine disorder causes what odor of urine

A

sulfur odor

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191
Q

PKU causes what odor of urine

A

mousy odor

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192
Q

ketones causes what odor of urine

A

fruity

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193
Q

tyrosinemia causes what odor of urine

A

rancid butter

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194
Q

trimethylaminuria causes what odor of urine

A

rotten fish

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195
Q

what causes asparagus odor in urine

A

asparagus

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196
Q

those read after 60secs in rgt strip

A

PPBUN

197
Q

those read after 30secs in rgt strip

A

glucose

bili

198
Q

read after 40secs in rgt strip

A

ketones

199
Q

read after 45secs in rgt dtrip

A

sp gr

200
Q

read after 120secsin rgt strip

A

leukocyte

201
Q

parasite is positive in rgt strip leukocyte

A

Trichomonas

202
Q

principle in rgt strip glucose

A

double sequential enzyme reaction

203
Q

principle in rgt strip bilirubin

A

diazo rxn

204
Q

principle in rgt strip ketones

A

Legal’s test

205
Q

principle in rgt strip sp gr

A

pKa change of a polyelectrolyte

206
Q

principle in rgt strip protein

A

protein error of indicators (Sorensen’s)

207
Q

principle in rgt strip pH

A

double indicator system

208
Q

principle in rgt strip blood

A

pseudoperoxidase activity of hgb

209
Q

principle in rgt strip urobilinogen

A

Ehrlich’s rxn

210
Q

principle in rgt strip nitrite

A

greiss rxn

211
Q

principle in rgt strip leukocyte

A

leukocyte esterase

212
Q

which to blot on a disposable absorbent pad

A

edge of strip

213
Q

storage of rgt strips

A

cool, dry,

214
Q

in reflectance photometry, what is the relation of reflection and color intensity

A

ind. proportional

215
Q

positive color in rgt strip glucose

A

green to brown

216
Q

positive color in rgt strip bilirubin

A

tan or pink to violet

217
Q

positive color in rgt strip protein

A

blue

218
Q

positive color in rgt strip blood

A

uniform green/blue

219
Q

speckled or spotted blood rgt strip indicates

A

presence of intact RBCs

220
Q

positive color in rgt strip nitrite

A

uniform pink

221
Q

positive color in rgt strip leukocyte

A

purple

222
Q

how long to dip a rgt strip in urine

A

not longer than 1 sec

223
Q

principle of automated strip readers

A

reflectance photometry

224
Q

normal SG of random urine

A

1.003 to 1.035

225
Q

not urine when SG is

A
226
Q

exception in rule of

A

in DM

227
Q

SG > 1.040 is due to

A

radiographic dyes (in refractometer)

228
Q

urine volume required in urinometer

A

10-15 mL

229
Q

calibration temp for urinometer

A

20 oC

230
Q

correction for every 3 oC below or above calib temp

A

+- .001

231
Q

correction for every g/dL of glucose

A

+ .004

232
Q

correction for every g/dL of protein

A

+ .003

233
Q

used in calibrating urinometer

A

potassium sulfate

234
Q

SG when calibrating urinometer

A

1.015

235
Q

in refractometer, place ______ of urine in prism

A

1 or 2 drops

236
Q

SG when refractometer is calibrated with distilled water

A

1.000

237
Q

SG when refractometer is calibrated with 5% NaCl

A

1.022 +- .001

238
Q

SG when refractometer is calibrated with 9% sucrose

A

1.034 +- .001

239
Q

rgts in sp gr

A

basta may BROMTHYMOL BLUE

240
Q

________ to SG reading when pH is greater or equal to 6.5

A

add .005

241
Q

add .005 to SG reading when pH is

A

great or equal to 6.5

242
Q

based on the frequency of soundwave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density of the solution

A

harmonic oscillation densitometry

243
Q

Yellow IRIS stands for

A

international remote imaging system

244
Q

required urine volume in IRIS diagnostics

A

6mL

245
Q

volume used in IRIS slideless microscope

A

4mL

246
Q

volume used in IRIS mass gravity meter

A

2mL

247
Q

occurs after meals due to withdrawal of hydrogen ions for the ourpose of secreting HCl

A

alkaline tide

248
Q

pH of random urine

A

4.5-8.0

249
Q

pH of firss morning

A

5.0-6.0

250
Q

a urine with pH of 9.0 indicates

A

old sx/unpreserved

251
Q

parameter used in ID of crystals and qualifying specimen

A

pH

252
Q

causes of acidic urine

A

diabetes mellitus
starvation
high protein diet
ccranberry juice

253
Q

causes of alkaline urine

A

RTA
veg diet
after meal due to alkaline tide
vomiting

254
Q

parameter most indicative of renal disease

A

protein

255
Q

produce produces _______________ in urine when shaken

A

white foam

256
Q

major serum protein found in the urine

A

albumin

257
Q

other name of Tamm-Horsfall

A

uromodulin

258
Q

normal value of albumin

A

> 10 mg/dL

259
Q

bence jones proteins in urine indicates

A

multiple myeloma

260
Q

BJP precipitates at _____ and dissolves at _____

A

40-60 oC;100 oC

261
Q

normal albumin excretion rate

A

0-20 ug/min

262
Q

AER in microalbuminuria

A

20-200 ug/min

263
Q

AER in clinical albuminuria

A

> 200 ug/min

264
Q

principle in micral test

A

enzyme immunoassay

265
Q

proteinuria undetectable by routine rgt strip

A

microalbuminuria

266
Q

indicator of glomerular proteinuria

A

microalbuminuria

267
Q

causes of renal proteinuria

A

glomerular and tubular proteinuria

268
Q

glomerular proteinuria is caused by

A

diabetic nephropathy

orthostatic proteinuria

269
Q

normally filtered albumin can no longer be reabsorbed

A

tubular proteinuria

270
Q

causes of tubular proteinuria

A

Fanconi
toxic agents
severe viral infections

271
Q

rgt in protein strip

A

basta may TETRABROM

272
Q

protein strip indicator is sensitive to

A

albumin

273
Q

a cold pptation test that reacts equally with all forms of protein

A

sulfosalicylic acid

274
Q

SSA procedure

A

3 mL 3% SSA + 3 mL centrifuged urine = (+) cloudiness

275
Q

SSA grade 1+

A

distinct turbidity with no granulation

276
Q

SSA grade 2+

A

turbidity with granulation but no flocc

277
Q

SSA grade 3+

A

turbidity with granulation and flocculation

278
Q

SSA grade 4+

A

clumps or protein

279
Q

SSA grade trace

A

noticeable turbidity

280
Q

protein range of a SSA grade of negative

A
281
Q

protein range of a SSA grade of trace

A

6-30 mg/dL

282
Q

protein range of a SSA grade of 1+

A

30-100

283
Q

protein range of a SSA grade of 2+

A

100-200

284
Q

protein range of a SSA grade of 3+

A

200-400

285
Q

protein range of a SSA grade of 4+

A

> 400

286
Q

most frequently tested in urine

A

glucose (dextrose)

287
Q

renal threshold of glucose

A

160-180 mg/dL

288
Q

plasma conc of a substance which tubular reabsorption stops

A

renal threshold

289
Q

other sugars in urine can be ID with

A

thin layer chrom

290
Q

urine sugar elevated in galactosemia

A

galactose

291
Q

sugar negative in copper reductiont est

A

sucrose

292
Q

hyperglycemia-assoc glucose would show _____ bld gluc and ____ urine gluc

A

elev;elev

293
Q

renal-assoc glucose would show _____ bld gluc and ___ urine gluc

A

normal;elev

294
Q

dx defective tubular reabsorption of glucose and amino acids

A

Fanconi’s syndrome

295
Q

Cushing’s syndrome has elev. _______

A

cortisol

296
Q

pheochromocytoma has elev. _____

A

catecholamines

297
Q

acromegaly has elev. ___

A

GH

298
Q

hyperthyroidism has elev. ____

A

t3 and t4

299
Q

causes of hyperglycemia-assoc glucosuria

A 
DM
Cushing's 
pheochromocytoma
acromegaly
hyperthyroidism
300
Q

cause of renal-assoc glucosuria

A

Fanconi’s syndrome

301
Q

enzymes used in the double sequential of glucose rgt strip

A

glucose peroxidase

peroxidase

302
Q

sensitivity of the glucose rgt pad

A

100 mg/dL

303
Q

affected by asccorbic acid

A

BB LNG

304
Q

high or low temo can cause false neg in glucose strip

A

low

305
Q

this occurs when >2 g/dL sugar is present

A

pass through pheno

306
Q

to prevent pass through, ________

A

use 2drops of urine only

307
Q

the principle of clinitest or benedict’s test

A

copper reduction

308
Q

result from increased fat metabolism due ti unability to metabolize carbohydrates

A

ketones

309
Q

seen in DM1, vomiting, starvation and malabsorptio

A

ketones

310
Q

major ketone but not detected in rgt strip

A

beta hyddroxybutyric acid

311
Q

percent of beta hydroxybutyric acid in urine

A

78%

312
Q

percent of acetoacetic acid in urine

A

20%

313
Q

the parent ketone, and detected by the rgt strip

A

acetoacetic acidd

314
Q

percent of acetone in urine

A

2%

315
Q

ketone bodies found in urine

A

beta hydroxybutyric acid
acetoacetic acid
acetone

316
Q

rgt strip for ketones is read after

A

40secs

317
Q

positive result in ketone rgt strip

A

purple

318
Q

rgt in ketone rgt strip

A

sodium nitroprusside

319
Q

principle of ketone rgt strip

A

lega’s test (sodium nitroprusside rxn)

320
Q

micrscopic analysis of cloudy red urine would show

A

intact RBCs

321
Q

clear red urine can be ssen due to

A

intravascular hemolysiss

322
Q

clear red (reddish brown) urine is seen in

A

rhabdomyolysis

323
Q

which is more toxic to renal tubules, hgb or mgb?

A

myoglobin

324
Q

plasma exam of hemoglobinuria would show

A

red/pink plasma, dec. hatoglobin

325
Q

plasma exam of myoglobinuria would show

A

pale yellow plasma, elev. CK and aldolase

326
Q

blondheim’s test uses

A

ammonium sulfate

327
Q

blondheim’s test is for

A

hgb vs. mgb

328
Q

hgb or mgb i ppted by ammonium sulfate

A

hgb

329
Q

hgb or mgb is not ppted by ammonium sulfate

A

mgb

330
Q

negative rgt strip in blondheim would indicate

A

hgburia

331
Q

rgt pads read after 60secs

A

PPBUN

332
Q

principle of blood rgt pad

A

pseudoperoxidase activity of hgb

333
Q

rgts in blood rgt pad

A

basta may TETRAMETHYLBENZINE

334
Q

speckeld, spotted in blood rgt pad indicates

A

intact RBCs

335
Q

positive result in blood rgt pad shows

A

uniform green/blue

336
Q

water soluble bilirubin, and the one seen in urine

A

conjugated bilirubin

337
Q

urine appearance of positive bilirubin

A

amber urine w/ yellow foam

338
Q

more sensitive test for bilirubin with less interference

A

ictotest

339
Q

principle in bilirubin rgt pad

A

diazo rxn

340
Q

rgt in bilirubin rgt pad

A

basta my DICHLORO..diazonium salt

341
Q

______ is converted by heme oxidase into _______

A

protoporphyrin IX;biliverdin

342
Q

_____ is converted by biliverdin reductase into ____

A

biliverdin;unconj. bilirubin

343
Q

UDPGT stands for

A

uridine diphosphate glucoronyl transferase

344
Q

unconj bili is converted to conj bili by

A

UDPGT

345
Q

brown pigment in stool

A

urobilin (stercobilin)

346
Q

pigment that appears in old specimen

A

urobilin (brown)

347
Q

color of urine urobilinogen

A

colorless

348
Q

the only parameters that uses Ehrlich unit

A

urobili

349
Q

bile pigment that result from hgb degradation

A

urobili

350
Q

kelan may conj. bilirubin sa ihi, aling hepa shit

A

post-hepatic/obstruction

351
Q

principle of urobili rgt pad

A

Ehrlich’s rxn

352
Q

rgt in urobilinogen pad

A

PDAB/p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

353
Q

test to differentiate urobiili, porphobili, and other ehrlich-reactive compounds

A

Watson-Schwartz test

354
Q

if both becomes red and is extracted by both butanol and chloroform in the Watson-Schwartz test, it is

A

urobilinogen

355
Q

if both is not extracted by butanol and chloroform in the Watson Schwartz test, it is

A

porphobilinogen

356
Q

if extracted only by butanol, it is

A

other Ehrlich-reactive shits

357
Q

rapid screening test for porphobilinogen (>2mg//dL)

A

Hoesch test

358
Q

component of Hoesch rgt

A

Ehrlich rgt in 6M/6N Hcl

359
Q

specimen for nitrite

A

1st morning or 4hr urine

360
Q

rapid screening test for UTI/bacteriuria

A

nitrite

361
Q

principle of nitrite rgt pad

A

greiss test

362
Q

positive result in nitrite rgt strip shows

A

uniform pink

363
Q

rgt in nitrite pad

A

basta may QUINOLINE

364
Q

pink spots or edges in nitrite pad is considered as

A

negative

365
Q

siginifcant in diagnosis of UTI/ inflammation and screening for urine culture specimen

A

leukocyte

366
Q

rgt in leuko rgt pad

A

basta may ESTER

367
Q

principle in leuko rgt pad

A

leukocyte esterase

368
Q

positive result in leuko rgt pad

A

purple

369
Q

leukocyte with no esterase activity

A

lymphocyte

370
Q

parasite with esterase activity

A

Trichomonas

371
Q

ascorbic acid causes _______ in BBLNG reactions

A

false negative

372
Q

11th rgt pad

A

ascorbic acid

373
Q

more accurate quantitative method for ascorbic acid

A

GC-MS

374
Q

C-stix reading after ___ secs

A

10

375
Q

stix reading after ____ secs

A

60secs

376
Q

rgt in ascorbic acid pad

A

phosphomolybdate

377
Q

quantitative measure of formed elements of urine using hemayctometer

A

addis count

378
Q

specimen for addis count

A

12hr urine

379
Q

preservative for addis count

A

formalin

380
Q

normal RBC count in addis count

A

0-500k/12hr urine

381
Q

normal WBC count in addis count

A

0-1.2M/12hrr urine

382
Q

normal hyaline cast in addis count

A

0-5k/12hr urrine

383
Q

microscope that enhances visual of elements with low refrac. index

A

phase-contrast

384
Q

microscope for 3D image

A

interference field (bright fiel may be adapted)

385
Q

microscope for ID of treponemma pallidum

A

dark field

386
Q

the differential interference contrast microscope

A

nomarski

387
Q

the modulation interference contrast micrscope

A

hoffman

388
Q

sediment stain for WBCs, epith cells and casts

A

Sternheimer-Malbin

389
Q

stain that differentiate RBCs from WBCs, yeast, oil droplets and ccrystals

A

2% acetic acid

390
Q

stain that differentiates WBCs and RTEs

A

toluidine blue

391
Q

stain that identifies urinary esoinophils

A

hansel stain

392
Q

stain taht identifies hemosiderin granules and casts

A

prussian blue

393
Q

stain that identifies free fat droplets and lipid-containing cells and casts

A

lipid stains

394
Q

components of lipid stains

A

oil red O and sudan III

395
Q

components of Hansel stains

A

eosin Y and methylene blue

396
Q

component of Sternheimer-Malbin

A

crystal violet and safranin O

397
Q

normal value of RBCs in ruine

A

0-2/0-3

398
Q

RBCs in hypertonic urine ____

A

crenates

399
Q

RBCs in hypotonic urine ____

A

swells

400
Q

RBCs in glomerular membrane damaga

A

dysmorphic w/ projections, fragmented

401
Q

normal value of WBCs in urine

A

0-5/0-8

402
Q

in ______ urine, granules swell and undergo ______ producing sparkling appearance, these are called _____

A

hypotonic;Brownian movement;Glitter cells

403
Q

> 1% of _____ indicates association with drug-induced _______

A

esinophils;interstitial nephtritis

404
Q

serves as the point of reference in focusing the mircoscope

A

squamous epithelial cells

405
Q

largest cell with abundant irregular cytoplasm and prominent nucleus

A

squamous epithelial cells

406
Q

squamous covered with gardnerella vaginalis

A

clue cells

407
Q

also called the bladder cells

A

transitional eipthelial/urothelial cells

408
Q

where are squamous cells found

A

vagina
femal urethra
lower male urethra

409
Q

centrally located nucleus, spherical polyhedral or caudate cell

A

transitional epithelial cells

410
Q

increased number of urothelial cells are seen in

A

catheterization

411
Q

most clinically signifaicant epitherlial cells

A

RTE

412
Q

> 2 RTE/hpf indicates

A

tubular injury

413
Q

rectangular, polyhedral, cuboidal or columnar epith cell wih eccentric nucleus

A

RTE

414
Q

RTE cell variations

A

oval fat body]

bubbble cells

415
Q

lipid-containing RTE

A

oval fat bodies

416
Q

oval fat bodies are seen in

A

nephrotic syndrome

417
Q

appearance of oval fat bodies in polarizing microscope

A

maltese cross

418
Q

RTE cells w/ nonlipid-filled vacuoles

A

bubble cells

419
Q

RTE seen in acute tubular necrosis

A

bubble cell

420
Q

UTI would have ________ in ruine

A

bacteria + WBCs

421
Q

true yeast infection would have ____ in urine

A

yeast + WBCs

422
Q

agent of ping pong diseasE

A

trichomonas vaginalis

423
Q

trichomonas vaginalis causes

A

ping pong disease

424
Q

motility and shape of T. vaginalis

A

pear shaped flagellate with jerky motility

425
Q

small refractile oval structures that may or may not bud

A

yeast

426
Q

appearance of s. haematobium

A

terminal spine

427
Q

markers for urinary bladder cancer

A

NMP

CYFRA 21-1

428
Q

a urinary bladder cancer marker that is also in lungs

A

CYFRA 21-1

429
Q

specimen for S. haemotobium

A

24hr urine

430
Q

most common fecal containant

A

enterobius vermicularis ova

431
Q

major constituent of mucus threads

A

Tamm Horsfall

432
Q

other name of tamm Horsfall

A

uromodulin

433
Q

quantitation of epith cells

A

0-5
5-20
20-100
>100

434
Q

quantitation of crystals (normal)

A

0-2
2-5
5-20
>20

435
Q

quantitation of bacteria

A

0-10
10-50
50-200
>200

436
Q

quantitation of mucus threads

A

0-1
1-3
3-10
>10

437
Q

presence of casts in urine

A

cylindruria

438
Q

casts are formed in

A

DCT and CD

439
Q

Tamm Horsfall is produced by

A

RTE

440
Q

sequence of cast formation

A

hyaline > cellular > coarsgely granular > finely granular > waxy

441
Q

final degenerative form of cast

A

waxy

442
Q

cast in chronic renal failure

A

waxy cast

443
Q

why cellular cast ebcomes granular in cell stasis

A

cells disintegrate

444
Q

cast with tapered end

A

cylindroid

445
Q

casts found in strenous activity

A

hyaline
RBC
granular

446
Q

prototype cast

A

hyaline cast

447
Q

cast due to bleeding within the nephron

A

RBC cast

448
Q

cast due to inflammation within the nephron

A

WBC cast

449
Q

WBC casts are seen in

A

pyelonephritis

acute interstitial nephritis

450
Q

RBC casts are seen in

A

glumerulonephritis and strenous exercise

451
Q

waxy casts are seen in

A

stasis of urine flow

chronic renal failure

452
Q

boad casts are seen in

A

extreme stasis

renal failure

453
Q

bacterial casts are seen in

A

pyelonephritis

454
Q

granules are derived from the _____ of RTE cells during normal metab

A

lysosomes

455
Q

broad cast aka

A

renal failure cast

456
Q

indicates the widening of tubular walls

A

broad cast

457
Q

formed by the precipitation of urine salts

A

crystals

458
Q

crystals in urine

A

crystalluria

459
Q

factors that contribute to crystal formation

A

pH
temp
solute conc.

460
Q

brick dust crystal / yellow brown granules

A

amorp. urates

461
Q

most pleomorhic crystal

A

uric acid

462
Q

shapes of uric acid

A

whetstone, lemon shaped, rhombic, wedge

463
Q

orange sand

A

Lesch Nyhan

464
Q

orange sand is associated with what crystal

A

uric acid

465
Q

shape of dihydrate caox

A

envelope/pyramidal

466
Q

shape of monohydrate caox

A

dubbell/oval

467
Q

other name of dihydrate caox

A

whddelite

468
Q

other name of monohydrate caox

A

whewellite

469
Q

caox can bee acquired from food high in ____

A

ascorbic acid

470
Q

crystal that’s cigarette butt appearance

A

calcium phosphate

471
Q

caox may be seen in

A

ethylene glycol poisoning

472
Q

yellow-brown or colorless elongated prism

A

hippuric acid

473
Q

white ppt in macroscopic, granular in appearance

A

amorphous phosphate

474
Q

usually resides in amorp urates

A

uroerythrin

475
Q

macroscopic of amorph urates

A

pink sediment

476
Q

an nati-freee agent tht elevates whewellite

A

ethylene glycol

477
Q

yellow-brown thorny apple

A

ammonium biurate

478
Q

ammonium biurate and triple phosphates appear due to

A

presence of urea-splitting bacteria

479
Q

colorless, prism shaped

A

triple phosphate

480
Q

appearance of triple phophate when it disappears

A

feathery

481
Q

another appearance of triple phosphate acccdg to Harr

A

fern-leaf

482
Q

other name of calcium phosphate

A

apatite

483
Q

other name of triple phosphate

A

struvite

484
Q

colorless, flat, thin prism in rosette forms

A

calcium phosphate

485
Q

calcium phosphate rosettes may resemble

A

sulfonamide crystals

486
Q

small colorless, dumbbell or spherical shaped, which forms gas after addition of acetic acid (effervescence)

A

calcium carbonate

487
Q

other forms of calcium phosphate

A

hydroxyapatite

brushite

488
Q

hydroxyapatite aka

A

basic calcium phosphate

489
Q

brushite aka

A

calcium hydrogen phosphate

BOARD EXAM (3 decks)

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