Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Sam Clin Path > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is the MIC ?

A

Minimum concentration of antibiotic that can inhibit visible growth of a bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Indifference in Micro means what?

A

One agent added makes no difference to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How is synergism clinically relevant in relation to antibiotics?

A

B-lactam and aminoglycoside combination to treat endocarditis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the cell wall in bacteria made from?

A

Peptidoglycan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is peptidoglycan made from?

A

NAG and NAM (muranic acid and glucosamine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which two antibiotic groups are effective against cell walls?

A

B-lactams and Glycopeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which were the first true antibiotics in practice?

A

Penicillins (beta lactams)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Four groups of B-lactams?

A

Penicillins
Carbopenems
Monobactams
Cephalasporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the only monobactam?

A

Aztreonam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give an example of a cephalasporin antibiotic?

A

Cefuroxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the spectrum of Ceph antibiotics?

A

Broad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Monobactams are effective against Gram +ve or -ve

A

-ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Main glycopeptides in use?

A

Vancomycin and teicoplanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do glycopeptides work?

A

Large molecules that bind directly to NAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Glycopeptides are only useful for gram positive or negative?

A

Positive, cannot bind to negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bacteria have what sub units to make what unit?

A

30s and 50s =70s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Gentamicin is an example of what type of antibiotic?

A

Aminoglycoside - gram neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do aminoglycosides work ?

A

Bind to 30s ribosome (protein synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Main side effect of gentamicin?

A

Nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Macrolide antibiotics?

A

Erythromycin and clarithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Action of macrolide antibiotics.

A

Protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Main lincosamide antibiotic is ?

A

Clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why might clarithromycin be used instead of erythromycin?

A

Less side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tetracycline is what class?

A

Protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Main oxazalizonid?

A

Linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Action of oxazalizonid?

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor - gram +ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mupirocin and fusidic acid?

A

Protein inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides action?

A

Folate inhibition (DNA inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Ciprofloxacin belongs to which antibiotic group?

A

Quinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

May cause steven johnsons syndrome?

A

Co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Quinolones and fluoroquino mechanisms?

A

DNA inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

RNA synthesis inhibitor ?

A

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which antibiotic never used alone?

A

Rifampicin -in TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Colistin and daptomycin have mechanisms f action on?

A

Plasma membrane - Gram neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cyclic lipopeptides?

A

Colistin and daptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Aminoglycosides?

A

Renal problems, ototoxicity, drug monitoring needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Betalactam side effects?

A

Allergy main problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Linezolid side effect?

A

Bone marrow suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Drugs considered safe in non severe penicillin allergy?

A

Cephalosporins and carbapenems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Drug considered safe in all penicillin allergy?

A

Aztreonam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Aztreonam lacks what nucleus type?

A

Bicyclic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the number for the c diff strain that is very severe?

A

027

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Co-amoxi
Cephalasporin
Clindamycin
Ciprofloxacin Pre- dispose what?

A

C-diff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ESBL stands for what in micro?

A

Extended spectrum beta lactamase producing enterococciae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is clinical resistance?

A

Organism is very susceptible in vitro but in vivo they are resistant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Why is gram neg resistant to vanco?

A

Has an impermeable membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Why can gentamicin not treat anaerobic bacteria?

A

It depends on 02 uptake for its mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How might flucloxacillin become resistant to MRSA?

A

Penicillin binding protein changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

VRE is caused by bacteria doing what?

A

Making different cell wall repeats in gram positive 1000 times less able to bind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Main antibiotics and other medicine to suscept to efflux?

A

Gram neg and triazoles!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How is horizontal transfer of resistance facilitated between bacteria?

A

Transposons and integrons - often a “cassette” of genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Vertical resistance occurs how?

A

Through daughter cells at division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Parasitism means what?

A

Parasite always derives benefit host gets nothing and suffers injury!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Commensalism means?

A

Parasite only derives benefit, but the host does not sustain injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the definitive host of a parasite?

A

Where the parasite reproduces or harbours adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Intermediate host of parasite?

A

Asexual stages or larvae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Paratenic host is?

A

Where parasite remains viable but does not develop further

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is a helminth?

A

Worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Cestode is what?

A

Tape worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Trematode is what?

A

Flat worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is ascaris lumbicoides?

A

Intestinal round worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Peak prevalence of ascariasis?

A

3-8yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How is ascaris transmitted?

A

Faecal oral - direct host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is loefflers syndrome?

A

Migration of ascaris to lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Treatment of ascaris?

A

Albendazole (stops glucose absorption of worm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Schistosomiasis is what type of worm?

A

Flat worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is bilharzia disease?

A

Schistosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the intermediate host for shistosomiasis?

A

Snails (fresh water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Swimmers itch associated with what parasite?

A

Schistosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Treatment for schistosomiasis?

A

Praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Hydatid disease is caused by what?

A

Echinococcus (Tape worm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

humans are accidental hosts in what disease?

A

Hydatid (intermediate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Where are most cysts found in hydatid disease?

A

Liver

74
Q

What is the vector for malaria?

A

Anopheles Mosquito

75
Q

Fever with malaria falciparum occurs when?

A

Alternative days

76
Q

Returning traveller + fever =

A

Malaria until proven otherwise

77
Q

What does cryptosporidium cause?

A

Diarrhoeal

78
Q

Spread of cryptosporidium?

A

Faecal oral

79
Q

Incubation of cryptosporidium?

A

2-10 days usually 7

80
Q

Diagnosis of cryptosporidium?

A

Acid fast staining oocytes

81
Q

Antiprotozoal drugs?

A

Metronidazole, pentamidine, nitazoxanide

pyrimethamine

82
Q

Anti worm/helminthic drugs?

A

Albendazole, mebendazole, ivermectin, praziquantel

83
Q

approx worldwide infection of HIV?

A

35M

84
Q

Pathogenesis of HIV?

A

Big burst of HIV, then control, then a latency and then CD4 count starts to fall off = AIDS

85
Q

Acute viral infections?

A

Flu, Measles, Mumps, Hep A

86
Q

What type of viruses tend to be acute? DNA? RNA? Retro?

A

RNA usually

87
Q

Chronic viral is split into two?

A

Latent and persistent

Herpes CMV / HIV (RNA virus but is reverse transcripted)

88
Q

RNA to DNA viruses are also know as what?

A

Retroviruses

89
Q

What was AZT originally going to be used for?

A

Anti-cancer

90
Q

What type of drug is AZT?

A

NRTI - Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

91
Q

Pyrimidine analogue HIV medicines?

A

Thymidine = zidovudine

Cytosine = Lamivudine

92
Q

Purine analogue HIV medicines?

A

Abacavir and Tenofovir

93
Q

Drugs that can treat Hep B as well as HIV?

A

Lamivudine and Tenofovir

94
Q

Examples of protesase inhibitor?

A

Saquinavir

Ritonavir = boost level of other Inhibitors

95
Q

Fusion inhibitor - HIV?

A

Enfuviritide

96
Q

Integrase inhibitor HIV?

A

Raltegravir

97
Q

Chemokine receptor antagonist HIV?

A

Maraviroc

98
Q

HAART consists of what 3 medicine combinations usually?

A

2NRTIs + 1 NNRTI

2NRTIs + 1 Boosted PI

99
Q

Examples of NNRTI’s?

A

nevirapine, efavirenz

100
Q

M184V mutation makes resistant to what HIV drug?

A

lamivudine

101
Q

Aciclovir is useful to treat what?

A

Herpes simplex

102
Q

What is drug of choice for CMV?

A

Ganciclovir

103
Q

Oseltamivir also known as what?

A

Tamiflu

104
Q

Two forms of pathogenic fungi?

A

Yeast or filamentous

105
Q

Pneumocystic jiroveci causes what?

A

Pneumonia in immunocompromised = fungal

106
Q

Cell membrane of a fungus?

A

Ergosterol

107
Q

Cell wall of fungus?

A

B -1,3-glucan

108
Q

Ergosterol can be attacked by what?

A

Squalene epoxidase

Lanosterol 14a demethylase

109
Q

What does nystatin and amphotericin b act on?

A

Ergosterol

110
Q

Amphotericin B and nystatin are what type of fungal medicine?

A

Polyene

111
Q

Amphotericin B side effects?

A

Nephrotoxicity and allergy

112
Q

Amphotericin B is only formed as what now?

A

Liposomal (stops kidney cell toxicity)

113
Q

What is the only Allyamine?

A

Terbinafine

114
Q

How does terbinafine work?

A

Targets squalene, thus ergosterol Toxic to liver!

115
Q

what do azoles contain chemically?

A

5 membered ring synthetic

116
Q

Imidizole and triazole = how many N atoms?

A

2 and 3

117
Q

How do azoles work?

A

Inhibit lanosterol thus ergosterol

118
Q

Fluconazole has no activity against what?

A

Aspergillus

119
Q

Imidazole example?

A

Ketoconazole, miconazole, clotrimazole

120
Q

Triazole examples?

A

Fluconazole
Itraconazole
Voriconazole

121
Q

Problems with Azoles?

A

P=450 enzymes increased concentration

122
Q

Fluconazole

Itra vori

posa Isav

(spectrum)?

A

Yeast F

Aspergillus and yeast I V

All yeast aspergillus and moulds PI

123
Q

Echinocandins are analogous to what?

A

Beta lactam

124
Q

Echinocandins work how?

A

Inhibit beta 1-3 glucan (= destroy cell wall)

125
Q

Echinocandin example?

A

Anidulafungin (fungin on end)

126
Q

Spectrum of echinocandin?

A

Misses cryptococcus

127
Q

Echinocandins available how?

A

Parenteral

128
Q

5-fluorocytosine was developed as what?

A

Anti cancer - has fungal activity

129
Q

5- fluorocytosine can treat what?

A

Cryptococcal meningitis with amphoteracin

130
Q

Notifiable diseases?

A

Meningitis, poliomyelitis, measles, mumps, rubella, smallpox

131
Q

IgM present when in infection?

A

Acute

132
Q

IgG present when?

A

Long term!

133
Q

Immunoglobulin in breast milk?

A

IgA

134
Q

Which virus causes measles?

A

Paramyxovirus

135
Q

What is the infectivity of measles?

A

Start of first symptoms to 4 days after rash has resolved

136
Q

Avg incubation of measles virus?

A

10-12 days

137
Q

Measles also knows as what disease?

A

First

138
Q

Three measles symptoms C’s

A

Fever Cough conjunctivitis coryza (inflammed nose/mucous)

139
Q

Spots in measles called?

A

Kopliks

140
Q

Rare complication of measles?

A

SSPE Sub acute sclerosing panencephalitis Fatal

141
Q

Chicken pox virus?

A

Varicella Zoster

142
Q

Infectivity of chicken pox?

A

2 days before rash and until vesicles dry up

143
Q

Age to treat chicken pox with antivirals?

A

> 14yrs

144
Q

Type of rash in chicken pox?

A

Centripetal, vesicular

145
Q

Rubella known as what disease?

A

Third

146
Q

Rubella cause by which virus?

A

Toga virus

147
Q

Incubation of rubella?

A

14-21 days

148
Q

Infective of rubella?

A

1 wekk before rash - 4 days after

149
Q

Problems of rubella in pregnancy?

A

Congenital rubella syndrome

150
Q

When most at risk of having rubella problems when pregnant?

A

first 9 weeks

151
Q

What causes slapped cheek disease? also know as?

A

Parvovirus B19 known as fifth disease

152
Q

When is peak of parvovirus?

A

Spring

153
Q

What does respiratory syncytial virus cause?

A

Bronchiolitis

154
Q

Diagnosis of rsv?

A

PCR on naso pharangeal secretions

155
Q

Which virus is almost universal by age 5?

A

Metapneumovirus

156
Q

Adenovirus often cause what?

A

Conjunctivitis, diarrhoea and URTI

157
Q

Is paraflu treatable?

A

No, normal flu is

158
Q

Diarrhoea causes?

A

Rota or noro virus

159
Q

Is there a vaccine for rotavirus?

A

Yes!!

160
Q

High fever and parotiditis?

A

Mumps

161
Q

Mumps virus?

A

Paramyxoviridae

162
Q

How does mumps present?

A

Earache initially, and ipsilateral parotid first High fevers!

163
Q

What is sterilisation?

A

Complete removal and killing of all micro-organisms inc: vegetative and spores

164
Q

What is disinfection?

A

Removal of sufficient organisms to make an item safe to use

165
Q

Least hazardous way to decontaminate?

A

Heat

166
Q

Greatest cause of death from what infection?

A

Pneumococcal

167
Q

How long can maternal antibodies protect a child?

A

Up to 1 year

168
Q

Using IgG can be effective for how long?

A

Only a few weeks to months (passive immunity)

169
Q

Advantage of active immunity from vaccination?

A

No disease complications

170
Q

What produces antibodies?

A

B lymphocytes

171
Q

Clonal expansion is triggered by what?

A

Antigen binding non specifically to variable region of antibody

172
Q

What are the live vaccines?

A

MMR,BCG, Yellow Fever and varicella

173
Q

Inactivated vaccines?

A

Typhoid, pertussis and IPV

174
Q

Flue vaccine made how?

A

Components of the organism

175
Q

Diptheria and tetanus vaccine contains?

A

Inactivated toxin

176
Q

Vaccines providing passive immunity?

A

Hep B, Botulism, Rabies

177
Q

Nematodes what type of worm?

A

Round worms

178
Q

Roundworms = two type?

A

intestinal and tissue

179
Q

two trypanosomes?

A

leishmania and trypanasoma

180
Q

Sporozoans include which parasites?

A

Malaria, cryptosporidium, toxoplasma etc

181
Q

Which parasite is a flagellate?

A

Giardia lamblia

Sam Clin Path (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions