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MT-PRAC FINALS > MICROBIOLOGY > Flashcards

MICROBIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

WHAT ARE THE SECTIONS OF MICROBIOLOGY?

A

Bacteriology, Mycology,
Mycobacteriology, Virology and Parasitology

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2
Q

HOW MANY SECTION ARE THERE IN MICROBIOLOGY?

A

5

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3
Q

It can accept various samples for detection and
isolation of clinically significant microorganisms
involved in disease.

A

MICROBIOLOGY

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4
Q

WHAT ARE THE MICROBIOLOGY’S ROLE?

A

• Detect
• Identify
• Isolate
• Eradicate

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5
Q

TWO WAYS TO SEE THE ORGANISM

A

1.using 1000 power magnification
2.grow those organisms and bacteria don’t grow in
size, they grow in number and they
grow exponentially over a period of 6 to
8hrs

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6
Q

WHAT ARE THE ROUTINE CLINICAL LABORATORY
EXAMINATIONS IN MICROBILOGY?

A

1.CULTURE AND SENSITIVITY OF
CLINICAL SAMPLES
2. ACID FAST STAIN
3. GRAM’S STAIN
4. ENVIRONMENTAL SAMPLE
5. WATER ANALYSIS
6. FOOD BACTERIOLOGY

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7
Q

term used when microbe such
as bacteria and fungi are unable to grow in the
presence of one or more antimicrobial drugs.

A

SUSCEPTIBILITY

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8
Q

performed on bacteria or fungi causing an individual’s infection after they have been recovered in a culture of the specimen.

A

Susceptibility

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9
Q

a method of multiplying
microbial organisms by letting them
reproduce in predetermined culture
media

A

microbiological culture or microbial
culture

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10
Q

“Find the cause, is it bacteria?”

A

Culture

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11
Q

It is made up nutrients that will help the
microorganisms grow para makita sila.
What are examples of this?

A

Culture
Fungal and Bacteria

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12
Q

it is only in special laboratory under
controlled laboratory conditions.

A

viral culture

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13
Q

“What medicine should be
prescribed?”

A

Sensitivity

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14
Q

microbiologists will use the bacterial
culture and test it against a panel of
antibiotics. Para malaman kung san
pwedeng mamatay ung bacteria na
naisolate na probable causative agent ng
disease ng patient.

A

Sensitivity

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15
Q

detects organism called acid fast
bacteria
- It is a laboratory test that determines if a
sample of tissue, blood, or other body
substance is infected with the bacteria
that causes tuberculosis (TB) and other
illnesses.

A

ACID FAST STAIN

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16
Q

causes tuberculosis

A

Microbacterium tuberculosis

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17
Q

most common type of TUBERCOLOSIS

A

Pulmonary tuberculosis (PTB)

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18
Q

is a test that checks for bacteria at the
site of a suspected infection such as the
throat, lungs, genitals, or in skin
wounds.

A

GRAM’S STAIN

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19
Q

In grams stain what is the color or POSITIVE AND NEGATIVE?

A

Positive-Purple
Negative-Red

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20
Q

devise the method of staining for
bacteria.

A

Hans Christian Gram

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21
Q

states what antibiotic should be given.

A

Positive and negative gram stains

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22
Q

ENVIRONMENTAL SAMPLE
ANALYSIS / Microbial load of Environment.

A

Done for monitoring purposes, as well as for
research. Data may be collected to
monitor air and water effluents or to
characterize pollutant levels in
environmental media (air, water, soil,
biota).

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23
Q

Infection that patients get when the surroundings is contaminated.

A

Post operative infection

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24
Q

-Pathogenic occurence in water
- Potability of water
- Bacterial count and growth in water.

A

WATER ANALYSIS

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25
Q

test for coatability of water

A

WATER ANALYSIS

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26
Q

to bottle water and filter water

A

WATER ANALYSIS

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27
Q

Analysis of the causative in mass food poisoning
- For food poisoning causes
- collect and test sample of food to find out the reason.

A

FOOD BACTERIOLOGY

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28
Q

Method multiplying microbial
organisms by letting them reproduce.

A

CULTURE

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29
Q

bacteria can be grown by isolation

A

CULTURE

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30
Q

By appropriate procedures, they have to be grown separately (isolated) on culture media and obtained as pure for study.

A

CULTURE

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31
Q

The original media used by?
What did he use?

A

Louis Pasteur

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32
Q

2 TYPES OF MEDIUM, DEFINE EACH

A

Liquid Medium
- Diffuse growth
Solid Medium
- Discrete colonies

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33
Q

macroscopically visible collection of
millions of bacteria originating from a single bacteria cell

A

Colony

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34
Q

Earliest Solid Medium

A

Cooked cut potato by Robert Koch

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35
Q

Not satisfactory. Because it liquefy at 24℃

A

Gelatin

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36
Q

What temperature does gelatin liquify?

A

24℃

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37
Q

Who made Agar?

A

Frau Hesse

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38
Q

Used for preparing solid medium
- Obtained from seaweeds
- No nutritive value
- Not affected by the growth of the
bacteria
- Melts at 98℃ and sets at 42℃

A

Agar

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39
Q

What temperature does agar SETS AND LIQUIFY?

A

Melts at 98℃ and sets at 42℃

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40
Q

Percent of agar that is employed in solid medium

A

2%

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41
Q

WHAT ARE THE CRITERIA FOR BACTERIA GROWTH?

A

NUTRITIONAL REQUIREMENTS
TIME
TEMPERATURE
ATMOSPHERIC CONDITION

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42
Q

How many hours does bacteria grow? Give the ensured time and day as well.

A

24hrs
96hrs up to 4 days to ensure.

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43
Q

TEMPERATURE OF NEEDED BY BACTERIA TO GROW

A

35-37 degrees

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44
Q

it is an enteric pathogen and its
grown at 42 degrees

A

Campylobacter

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45
Q

the most agar plate we
use is sheep

A

BLOOD AGAR

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46
Q

It has all the amino acids and
nutritional requirements that bacteria need.

A

BLOOD AGAR

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47
Q

WHAT ARE CULTURE METHODS?

A

● Streak culture
● Lawn culture
● Stroke Culture
● Stab culture
● Pour plate method
● Liquid culture
● Anaerobic culture methods

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48
Q

-Provides a uniform surface growth of the bacterium.
- also known as susceptibility or
sensitivity testing

A

LAWN CULTURE

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49
Q

WHAT ARE THE USES OF LAWN CULTURE?

A
  1. For bacteriophage typing.
  2. Antibiotic sensitivity testing.
  3. In the preparation of bacterial antigens
    and vaccines.
  4. Lawn cultures are prepared by flooding
    the surface of the plate with a liquid
    suspension of bacterium
    -Fairly soft and are useful in
    demonstrating bacterial motility
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50
Q

WHAT ARE TYPES OF CULTURE MEDIA?

A
  1. BASED ON CONSISTENCY
  2. BASED ON CONSTITUENT
  3. BASED ON
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51
Q

-2-3% concentration
-It melts at 95°C and solidifies
at 42℃
-Doesn’t contribute any
nutritive property

A

Solid Medium

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52
Q

Example of Solid Medium

A

Agar

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53
Q
  • No Agar
  • Does not make colony
A

Liquid

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54
Q

-0.5%-1.5% Agar content
Used for detection in bacteria on
whether its motile or not

A

Semi-Solid

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55
Q

gumagalaw. Due to having
flagella

A

Motile

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56
Q
  • di gumagalaw. Walang
    flagella
A

Non motile

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57
Q

It’s a
general-purpose media that
supports the growth of
non-fastidious microbes, and it
is primarily used for the
isolation of microorganisms.

A

Simple Medium

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58
Q

What are the Basic components of Simple Medium?
What are examples of Simple Medium?

A

Basic components: protein
source, peptone source, milk
extract, acelyne, agar
- Examples: are nutrient broth,
peptone water, and nutrient agar

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59
Q

Special Nutrients.
These are media containing nutrients in unknown quantities that are added to bring about a particular characteristic of a microbial strain
Give examples

A

Complex media
Examples are tryptic soy broth,
blood agar, and nutrient broth.

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60
Q

It is a type of chemically
defined media and is produced
from pure chemical substances

A

Synthetic Media

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61
Q

A defined media refers to a
medium having a known
concentration of ingredients,
like sugar (glucose or glycerol)

A

Synthetic Media

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62
Q

from pure chemical substances
with its exact composition
known.

A

Synthetic Media

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63
Q

It is a type of chemically
defined media and is produced
from pure chemical substances.
A defined media refers to a
a medium having a known
the concentration of ingredients,
like sugar (glucose or glycerol)
and nitrogen sources (such as
ammonium salt or nitrate as
inorganic nitrogen).
- from pure chemical substances
with its exact composition
known.

A

Synthetic Media

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64
Q

Substances that are added to
enhance the growth

A

Special Media

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65
Q

There are substances added like blood ,serum , egg that are used by
bacteria to provide nutritionally
means especially for the
fastidious bacteria

A

Enriched media

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66
Q

Substances that are added to
enhance the growth.
- Enriched media. There are
substances added like blood
,serum , egg that are used by
bacteria to provide nutritional
means especially for the
fastidious bacteria

Give examples

A

Special Media
Ex. Sheep’s blood agar = may
dugo ng tupa

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67
Q

-This media is prepared by adding
additional substances like blood, serum, or egg yolk in the basal medium. It’s used to grow fastidious microorganisms
as they require additional nutrients and growth-promoting substances.

A

ENRICHED MEDIA

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68
Q

-It is a liquid medium which selectively favors the growth of certain pathogenic bacteria and inhibits commensal bacteria.

A

ENRICHMENT MEDIUM

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69
Q

This media allows the growth of certain microbes while inhibiting the growth of others. It’s an agar-based medium that is used to isolate microorganisms in labs.

A

SELECTIVE MEDIA

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70
Q

An indicator is included in the
medium. A particular organism
causes change in the indicator, e.g. blood, neutral red, tellurite.

Give example

A

INDICATOR MEDIA
Examples: Blood agar and
MacConkey agar are indicator
media.

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71
Q
  • contain compounds that allow groups of microorganisms to be visually distinguished by the appearance of the colony or the surrounding media, usually on the basis of some biochemical difference between the two
    groups.
A

DIFFERENTIAL MEDIA

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72
Q
  • help in the identification of bacteria. The term sugar in microbiology denotes any fermentable substance. Glucose, lactose,
    sucrose and mannitol routinely employed for fermentation tests.
A

SUGAR MEDIA

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73
Q

These media are used when
specie-men cannot be cultured
soon after collection. Bacteria to
be transported to the lab.

Give examples

A

TRANSPORT MEDIA
Examples: Cary-Blair medium,
Amie medium, Stuart medium.

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74
Q

can be used to grow Halophiles.
It is both a selective and
differential media. It uses salt as
the selective agent and a pH
indicator of sugar fermentation
to differentiate species

A

MANITOL SALT AGAR (MSA)

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75
Q

Requires with oxygen environment in order to grow aerobic bacteria.

A

AEROBIC MEDIA

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76
Q

This media is for anaerobic bacteria that require low oxygen levels, extra nutrients, and reduced
oxidation-reduction potential.
- It is supplemented with hemin and
vitamin K nutrients and oxygen are
removed by boiling it in a water bath and sealing it with paraffin
film.

Give examples

A

ANAEROBIC MEDIA
Examples are:
Thioglycollate medium and Robertson Cooked Meat (RCM) medium which is commonly used to grow Clostridium spp.

77
Q

TYPES OF AGAR PLATES
WHAT COLOR?
- no growth at
all

A

WHITE
Blood Agar plate

78
Q

TYPES OF AGAR PLATES
WHAT COLOR?
enrich plate, more nutritious an organism grew on the chocolate, the organism is Haemophilus.

A

BLACK
Chocolate plate

79
Q

TYPES OF AGAR PLATES
WHAT COLOR?
broad growth of organism because the gram negative organism has growth the whole plate.

A

PINK
Selective plate

80
Q

TYPES OF AGAR PLATES
WHAT COLOR?
is a differential plate that utilizes lactose to differentiate one bacteria to
another.

A

ORANGE
McConkey Plate

81
Q

TYPES OF AGAR PLATES
WHAT COLOR?
colonies are clearly
visible and clearly accessible, this
is differential because it uses
antibiotics colistin, lactic acidosis
that inhibits the proteus and
allows the gram-positive
organism to grow.

A

GREEN
CNA Plate

82
Q

TYPES OF AGAR PLATES
WHAT COLOR?
an example is mannitol, mannitol
uses salt to make to make it
selective and it uses mannitol to
make it differential is used to
isolate and identify staph
aureus, this is tolerant to salt so it
grows and it utilizes mannitol

A

YELLOW
Selective and Differential

83
Q

used to grow anaerobic organism
- dito linalagay yung mga bacteria na mamamatay in the presence of oxygen
- the mead will serve as will reduce
oxygen levels in the medium so that
anaerobic bacteria can wright.

Give example

A

Anaerobic media
Ex. Robert’s culture medium and
glycolate medium

84
Q
  • biochemical test medium to confirm E. coli
  • test that will identify bacteria.
A

TSI MEDIUM (TRIPLE SUGAR IRON
AGAR)

85
Q

for investigation of food poisoning
- collect and test sample of food to find out the reason

A

FOOD BACTERIOLOGY

86
Q

the study of immune functions of the body, frequently uses serology (which is the study of serum) to detect, determine the state, and investigate problems associated with the immune system that
bring about diseases, disorders or
conditions.

A

IMMUNOLOGY AND
SEROLOGY

87
Q

deals primarily with identifying antigens or antibodies in blood samples. It may also determine organ, fluid and tissue compatibility for transplantation known as histocompatibility test or HLA test.
The detection of antigen or antibody in the blood
can help identify exposure to or reaction to
disease-causing microorganisms or foreign bodies.

A

immunology and serology lab

88
Q

determine organ, fluid and tissue compatibility for transplantation

A

histocompatibility test or HLA test

89
Q

WHAT ARE THE antigen- antibody reactions?

A
  1. Precipitation
  2. Agglutination
  3. Complement-fixation
  4. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
  5. Radio immunoassay (RIA
90
Q

responsible for the recognition and disposal of nonself substances; the response and interaction of body components and related interactions and the way the immune system can be eliminated to protect against or treat diseases
- Study of molecules, cells, organs, and systems.

A

IMMUNOLOGY

91
Q

Study of molecules, cells, organs and systems.

A

IMMUNOLOGY

92
Q

Study of serum

A

SEROLOGY

93
Q

is a division of immunology that
specializes in laboratory detection and measurement of specific antibodies that develop in the blood during a response to exposure to a disease producing
antigen

A

SEROLOGY

94
Q

Study of serum
- is a division of immunology that
specializes in laboratory detection and
measurement of specific antibodies that
develop in the blood during a response
to exposure to a disease producing
antigen.

A

SEROLOGY

95
Q

What do we get when we are exposed to bacteria, we
get synthesized or this limbering antigen?

A

antibody

96
Q

it is an immunogobulin.

A

ANTIBODY

97
Q

protein found in blood. Specifically in liquid portion of our blood. It is in
serum

A

Gobulin

98
Q

are the visible demonstration of the aggregation of antigens and antibodies. When a particular antigen particles attach to its
corresponding antibody they form lattice network that is observable to the eyes

A

Precipitation and agglutination

99
Q

Involves aggregation of soluble test
antigens.

A

PRECIPITATION

100
Q

Involves aggregation of soluble test
antigens.

A

PRECIPITATION

101
Q

the formation of clumps of cells or inert
particles by specific antibodies to
surface antigenic components (direct
agglutination) or to antigenic
components adsorbed or chemically
coupled to red cells or inert particles
(passive hemagglutination and passive
agglutination, respectively).

A

AGGLUTINATION

102
Q

pag nagkaron ng antigen-antibody
reaction magkakaroon ng pamumuo or
clumping. More sensitive than
precipitation.

A

AGGLUTINATION

103
Q

marker that there is a corresponding
antibody that attach to particular
antigen.
- term used to describe the aggregation of
particular test antigens

A

AGGLUTINATION

104
Q

marker that there is a corresponding
antibody that attach to particular
antigen.

A

AGGLUTINATION

105
Q

2 STAGES OF AGGLUTINATION

A

sensitization and lattice formation Sensitization

106
Q

1ST STEP OF AGGLUTINATION

A

sensitization

107
Q

2ND STEP OF AGGLUTINATION

A

lattice formation

108
Q

This involves the initial binding of antibodies to the red cell antigen through non-covalent bonds.

A

sensitization

109
Q

Once a red cell is coated with antibodies, the binding of the antibodies to multiple red cells causes visible red cell clumping to occur.

A

lattice formation

110
Q

demonstrates antibody in serum. This method is comprised of two
components. The first component is called an indicator system made up of sheep’s RBC, complement-fixing antibody produced against the sheep’s RBC in another animal, and a source of complement often guinea pig serum.

A

COMPLEMENT-FIXATION

111
Q

antigen-antibody
complex will be formed resulting to

A

binding of the complement.

112
Q

If no antigen- antibody complex is formed, the complement is free to bind to the indicator system resulting in??
What is the result?

A

hemolysis
negative result

113
Q

the patient’ serum contains a
complement-fixing antibody, the
complement is not free to bind the
indicator system
Result:

A

NO HEMOLYSIS
POSITIVE

114
Q

RESULT WHEN THERE IS HEMOLYSIS?

A

NEGATIVE

115
Q

RESULT WHEN THERE IS NO HEMOLYSIS?

A

POSITIVE

116
Q

as the name implies uses enzyme
labeled antibody or enzyme labeled
antigen for detection of either antigen or
antibody in patient’s blood.
- A plastic bead or plate is coated with antigen. The antigen reacts with antibody in the patient’s serum. The enzyme activity is measured spectrophotometrically.
- The result is computed by comparing the reading of patient’s serum against the control serum.

A

ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY (EIA)

117
Q

A plastic bead or plate is coated with antigen. The antigen reacts with antibody in the patient’s serum. The enzyme activity is measured spectrophotometrically

A

ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY (EIA)

118
Q

The result is computed by comparing the reading of patient’s serum against the control serum.

A

ENZYME IMMUNOASSAY (EIA)

119
Q

Radioisotopes are used to measure the
concentration of antibody or antigen in a
patient’s serum sample. If the level of
antibody is being quantitated,
radioactive labeled antibody competes
with patient unlabeled antibody for
binding sites on a known concentration
of antigen. The method has the ability to
detect trace amounts ofantigen or
antibody in just a short period of time.
- The downside though is that
radioisotopes present health hazards.

A

RADIO IMMUNOASSAY (RIA)

120
Q

are used to measure the
concentration of antibody or antigen in a patient’s serum sample

A

Radioisotopes

121
Q

The downside though is that
radioisotopes present health hazards.

A

RADIO IMMUNOASSAY (RIA)

122
Q

non-treponemal serologic tests used as
screening test for syphilis.

A

RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) & VDRL

123
Q

treponemal
tests used as a confirmatory test for
syphilis

A

FTA-ABS & MHA-TP

124
Q

What are the Syphilis Serology tests?

A

RPR (Rapid Plasma Reagin) & VDRL
FTA-ABS & MHA-TP

125
Q

used in the detection of antibodies
produced in salmonellosis, brucellosis
andrickettsial diseases.

A

Febrile Antigen test

126
Q

to diagnose typhoid fever

A

Typhidot

127
Q

(to diagnose rickettsial
diseases)

A

Weil-Felix test

128
Q

(to diagnose
infection with the dengue virus

A
  • Dengue fever test
129
Q

rapid test used
to screen for HIV

A

ELISA and Spot test

130
Q

used as a
confirmatory test for HIV

A

Western blot assay

131
Q

Hepatitis A, B, C, D and E detection

A

Viral hepatitis serology

132
Q

acute phase proteins detected in
inflammatory conditions therefore this is
a non-specific marker of acute infection similar
to ESR.

A

CRP (C-Reactive Protein)

133
Q

used to diagnose streptococcal infection
caused by bacteria known as
Streptococcus pyogenes. The toxin
produced by this bacteria called
Streptolysin-O stimulates production of
the antibody called ____ . It is often used
to diagnose sequelae of
post-streptococcal infection such as
rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis.

A

ASO

134
Q

antibody produced in some disease of the joint called rheumatoid arthritis

A

Rheumatoid Factor

135
Q

one of the basic serologic reactions,
along with agglutination,
hemagglutination and precipitation. A flocculation test is characterized by a flocculent precipitate of antigen and antibody.

A

FLOCCULATION

136
Q

designed for antibody detection that are
based on interaction of soluble antigens
with antibodies, producing a precipitate
of fine particles that can be seen with
the naked eye.
- nakasuspend yung precipitate or soluble
antigens bound with antibodies
- particles here are suspended

A

FLOCCULATION

137
Q

one of the basic serologic reactions,
along with agglutination

A

FLOCCULATION

138
Q

is the scientific study of serum or
- plasma, especially with regard to the body’s immune system response

A

SEROLOGY

139
Q

tests detect and measure the level of immunoglobulins or antibodies made by the immune system to fight antigens such as bacteria, viruses or other microorganisms.

A

SEROLOGY

140
Q
  • antibodies are the body’s first line of defense and are produced shortly after someone is infected with a virus.
  • don’t stay long in the
    body.
A

Immunoglobulin M or IgM

141
Q

which are sustained in the body and depending upon the virus and
individual, could last from weeks to
months to years

A

immunoglobulin G or lgG antibodies

142
Q
  • someone has long-lasting immunity or long lasting response
A

IgG

143
Q

classis is already phased out. Kukunin sakanya: typhidot - tinitignan yung pasyente na meron thypoid

A

Widal test

144
Q

used to detect anti streptolysin o
in a patient serum in
case of streptococcus infection.

A

ASO test

145
Q

for people with syphilis. Used to detect syphilis antibodies in patient serum. Reagin syphilis antibodies

A

RPR ( Rapid plasma reagin)

146
Q

antibody na
nafoform sa serum niya pag naexpose sa
treponema pallidum. Treponema
pallidum exposure. Tests in serology
include HIV testing

A

Reaginic antibodies

147
Q

the procedures involved in collecting, storing and processing blood and the distribution of RBCs and blood components.

A

Blood Banking

148
Q

the academic knowledge and procedures
involve in the study of the immunologic
responses to blood components.

A

Immunohematology

149
Q

the medical practice and techniques
associated with replacement of RBCs
and blood components

A
  • Transfusion Medicine
150
Q

is a section in the lab that takes care of
storing blood and blood products for
transfusion. This section ensures that
continuous and safe supply of blood is
available to patients by conducting
screening of blood donors, blood
collection and preservation, and testing
units of collected for blood-borne
diseases

A

Blood Bank

151
Q

The most common blood test done by this section is blood grouping also known as?

A

blood typing

152
Q

It also performs compatibility testing, blood component preparation, blood screening for transfusion transmitted diseases and antibody screening.

A

Blood Bank

153
Q

employs undetermined RBCs
and known antibody or antisera

A
  • Forward typing or Direct typing RBC typing
154
Q

employs undetermined serum
and known RBC antigens

A

Reverse typing or Back typing or
Serum typing

155
Q

WHAT ARE THE TESTS IN BLOOD BANKING?

A
  1. BLOOD TYPING
  2. COMPATIBILITY TESTING
  3. COMPONENT PREPARATION
156
Q

Blood testing that most applied in
med practice

A

ABO grouping and Rh grouping

157
Q

ABO Group types

A

Type A, type B, type AB, type O

158
Q

if you are Rh positive or Rh negative

A

RH grouping

159
Q

99% of filipinos are ___ positive.

A

RH

160
Q

People who are ______
Rh-negative

A

Caucasian or Indian

161
Q

-found in red cell.
- according to antigen, you will get your blood type.

A

Antigen

162
Q

What type of blood when you have A antigen?

A

blood type A

163
Q

What type of blood when you have B antigen?

A

blood type B

164
Q

What type of blood when you have A & B antigen?

A

blood type A & B

165
Q

What type of blood when you have NO antigen of A and B?

A

type O positive

166
Q

WHAT ARE THE SERIES TEST OF COMPATIBILITY TESTING?

A
  • Correct identification of donor and recipient
  • A review of patient’s past history and blood bank records for type and the presence of unexpected antibodies
  • ABO and RH typing (donor and recipient)
  • Testing of serum or plasma for the presence of unexpected antibodies (donor and recipient)
  • Identification of unexpected antibodies
  • Cross matching of the donor’s RBC with the patient’s serum
167
Q

testing the donor’s RBC with the patient’s serum

A

MAJOR crossmatch

168
Q

testing donor’s serum with patient’s RBC

A

MINOR crossmatch

169
Q

products prepared from whole blood by mechanical method particularly centrifugation
by various speed

A

COMPONENT PREPARATION

170
Q
  • products prepared from whole blood by
    mechanical method particularly centrifugation
    by various speed
  • Products separated from whole blood by
    more complex automated processes are
    called Plasma Derivatives or Fractions
A

COMPONENT PREPARATION

171
Q

Products separated from whole blood by more complex automated processes are called??

A

Plasma Derivatives or Fractions

172
Q

COMPONENT PREPARATION
GIVE THE FF:
Blood Components-
Plasma Derivatives-

A
  • Blood Components : RBC concentrates, Platelet concentrates, Fresh Frozen Plasma and Cryoprecipitate
  • Plasma Derivatives : Factor VIII
    concentrate, Factor IX concentrate, Albumin, Immune Globulins, Anti-thrombin III concentrate etc.
173
Q

How many percent is Plasma?

A

55%

174
Q

How many percent is WBC and Platelets?

A

1%

175
Q

How many percent is RBC?

A

45%

176
Q

tests done to the collected blood or blood products to detect infectious pathogens that can be transmitted to recipient during transfusion.

A

BLOOD BAG SCREENING

177
Q

GIVE THE Screening tests conducted:

A
  • HIV-1 and HIV-2
  • HTLV I & II
  • Hepatitis B & C
  • Syphilis
  • Malaria
  • Bacterial contamination
178
Q
  • procedure done to detect the presence of
    unexpected antibodies, particularly serum
    alloantibodies to the antigens of the non-ABO
    blood group system such as the Duffy, Kell,
    Kidd, MNS, P and few RH types.
A

ANTIBODY SCREENING

179
Q

same antigens in another
transfusion it can result in?

A

extravascular or
intravascular hemolysis

180
Q

Has about 50 antigens
* The blood type for this antigen can be either
Rh positive or Rh negative
* Rh negative patient cannot receive blood
from a Rh positive donor.
* Most people can produce ROBUST antibodies
against A, B and D antigens, which may NOT
be the case for other antigens.

A

RH (RHESUS) SYSTEM

181
Q

the detection of one or more illegal
and/or legal substances in the urine or blood, saliva, hair or sweat.

A

Drugs of abuse testing

182
Q

Positive screening test shall be
confirmed by ________

A

GCMS (Gas
Chromatography Mass Spectrometry)
method.

183
Q

The conduct of testing requires
that a ______________________
be used for legal documentation of the
sample collection procedure up to
specimen receipt

A

CCF (Custody and Control Form)

184
Q

can determine whether or not a
particular man is the biological father of a particular child.

A

Paternity testing

185
Q

it is an emerging field that study
illnesses at the sub-cellular level. This includes the molecules found in different tissues, organs and even body fluid. The part by which it is used to diagnose diseases is called “molecular diagnostics”. It is often used in the diagnosis of cancer and infectious diseases. - Many techniques are applied
in this discipline but more commonly, PCR, DNA sequencing, microarrays, FISH (Flourescence-in
situ-hybridization)

A

Molecular Pathology tests

186
Q

It is often used in the diagnosis of cancer and infectious diseases

A

molecular diagnostics

187
Q

a procedure that combines histological, immunological and biochemical techniques for the identification of specific tissue components by means of a
specific antigen/antibody reaction tagged with a visible label. IHC makes it possible to visualize
the distribution and localization of specific cellular components within a cell or tissue.
GIVE * Example:

A

Immunohistochemistry
* Example: Bone Marrow
Progenitors/Leukemia/ Blastic
Markers, Breast Markers

188
Q

Example: Bladder
Cancer panel, Breast
cancer, Prostate cancer

A

Oncology

189
Q
A

MT-PRAC FINALS (3 decks)

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