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DLE > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

most common undercooked food

A

Taenia Solium

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2
Q

drug induced causes: Pseudomembranous Colitis

A

C.Difficile

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3
Q

produces Lecithenase that causes Gas Gangrene

A

C.Perfringens

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4
Q

causes Diptheria & Pseudomembranous pharyngitis

A

C. Diptheria ( Klebs- Loffler bacillus)

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5
Q

grape-like normal microbiota skin . causes infection form of abscess with golden yellow pigmentation

A

Staph. Aureus

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6
Q

inhibit complement fixation

A

Protein A.

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7
Q

clots the blood around the infection site

A

Coagulase

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8
Q

converts plasminogen to plasmin

A

Staphylokinase (Fibrinolysin)

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9
Q

spreading fx

A

Hyaluronidase

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10
Q

most severe pneumonia

A

Legionnaire’s disease

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11
Q

most numerous in plaque formarion & hard tissuee

most common microorganisms that causes endocarditis

A

Strep. Viridans

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12
Q

initiates plaque formation

A

Strep. Sanguis

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13
Q

most common of all beta strep

A

Group A. strep, pyogenes

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14
Q

causes neonatal pneumonia

A

Strep, Agalactiae

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15
Q

only group with No hemolysis

A

Gamma Strep

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16
Q

facultative anaerobic that causes infection in failed RCT

A

Entero Faecalis

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17
Q

longest chain normally found on the soft tissue of the oral cavity. 1st microbiota appeared in the oral cavity after birth

A

Strep. Salivarius

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18
Q

normally found on the cheek area it is bile insoluble

A

Strep. Mitis

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19
Q

gm (+) endotoxin like

A

Listeria

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20
Q

acid-fast found in the healthy gingiva

A

Nocardia

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21
Q

coagulative necrosis

A

Zenker Hyaline Degeneration

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22
Q

bubonic plaque

A

Yersinia Pestis

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23
Q

non-motile polysaccharide capsule

A

Klebsiella

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24
Q

Lactose fermenters

A

Enterobacter
Escherichia
Klebsiella

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25
Q

Lactose fermenters cultured by

A

McConkey Agar

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26
Q

most common infection found in the hospitals

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

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27
Q

common in Hospitals

A
  1. E.coli
  2. Strep. Pneumonia
  3. Staph. Aureus
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28
Q

aerobic & non motile

A

Neiserria

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29
Q

cause young adult meningitis, septic arthritis, & waterhouse friderichsen (adrenal gland failure)

A

N. Meningitides

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30
Q

venereal disease
opthalmia neonatorum
Tx. Doxycylcine

A

N. Gonorrhea

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31
Q

norma microbiota in throat

A

N. Catarrhalis

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32
Q

affects children, epiglottis causes sinusitis , otitis media & upper respiratory tract infection. Cultured with chocolate agar

A

Haemophilus Influenzae

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33
Q

normal microbiota in GIT

A

B. Fragillis

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34
Q

aerobic causes whooping cough

A

Bordetella Pertussis

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35
Q

normal microbiota in stomach causes peptic ulcer & gastric ulcer

A

Helicobacter Pylori

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36
Q
  1. what organ is affected in peptic ulcer & Gastric ulcer
  2. Most common complication of peptic/ gastric ulcer
  3. Major complications of peptic / gastric ulcer
  4. Complication of chronic peptic ulcer
  5. Complication of chronic gastric ulcer
A
  1. Stomach
  2. bleeding
  3. Stenosis & Fibrous
  4. Iron deficiency anemia
  5. Pernicious Anemia (Vit.b12)
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37
Q

obligate parasites that contain DNA & RNA within their nucleus

A

Chlamydia & Rickettsia

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38
Q

infects columnar cells that cause venereal disease

A

Chlamydia

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39
Q

causes conjunctivitis & lower genito urinary tract infection

A

C. Trachoma

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40
Q

causes epizootic infection that leads to atypical pneumonia

A

C. Psittaci

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41
Q

infects epithelial cells

A

Rickettsia

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42
Q

rocky mountain spotted fever through tick bite

A

R. Rickettsii

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43
Q

cause epidemic typhus through lice

A

R. Prwazerkii

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44
Q

fleas

A

R. typhi

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45
Q

scrub typhus through mites

A

R. Tsutsugamushi

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46
Q

rickettsial infection but it has no anthropoid involved.

Transmission results from inhalation of dust & soil

A

Q fever

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47
Q

are free living anaerobic microorganisms that contain neither exotoxins & endotoxins

A

Spirochetes

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48
Q

observed under darkfield microscope

not readily stain by common bacterial stain

A

Treponema

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49
Q

Test for syphilis

A

FTA

VDRL

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50
Q

causes Bejel

A

T. Pallidum endemicum

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51
Q

causes pinta

A

T. Pallidum Carateum

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52
Q

causes yaws

A

T. Pallidum pertenue

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53
Q

tick bite Causes lyme disease

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

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54
Q

MENINGITIS

  1. Neonatal
  2. Infants to children
  3. young adult
  4. Old adult
A
  1. e coli
  2. H. influenzae
  3. N. meningitides
  4. S. pneumonia
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55
Q

PIGMENTS

  1. Yellow sulfur
  2. Golden yellow
  3. Blue green
  4. Red
A
  1. A. israelli
  2. S. aureus
  3. P. aeruginosa
  4. Serratia Marcescens
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56
Q

major components of virus

A

RNA/DNA
Capsid
Nuclear envelope

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57
Q

DNA Virus

A

HHAPPPI

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58
Q

causes Hep. B most difficult to eradicate contain reverse transcriptase (HIv)

A

Hepadna virus

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59
Q

Lipschutz sign

initial lesion of herpes infection is subclinical

A

Herpes viridae

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60
Q

primary herpetic gingivostomatitis which is common in child . it can cause SCC

A

HSV 1

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61
Q

genitals female

infants during birth causing herpes conjunctivitis

A

HSV2

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62
Q

roseola / 3 day fever

A

HSV -6

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63
Q

cause kaposi sarcoma commonly affect the palate

the early lesion of appears Red nodule

A

Kaposis Sarcoma HHV- 6

64
Q

3 types of kaposi sarcoma

A
  1. Classic
  2. African
  3. Immunodeficient type
65
Q

is a rare type multifocal reddish brown. skin lower extremities
prognosis is Good

A

Classic

66
Q

endemic blacks

A

African type

67
Q

seen in with AIDs with oral & lymph nodes lesion are common. Prognosis is Poor

A

Immunodeficient type

68
Q

causes burkitt lymphoma, indectiousnmononucleosis, nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

EBV

69
Q

Features of Infectious mononucleosis

A
  1. Splenomegaly
  2. Necrotizing pharyngitis
  3. Increased heterophile titer
  4. Increased number of lymphocytes
70
Q

causes Hepatosplenomegaly

A

Cytomegalovirus

71
Q

causes pharyngitis, respiratory illness & conjunctivitis

A

Adenovirus

72
Q

smallest DNA virus

A

Parvoviridae

73
Q

affect only animals & birds

A

Parvovirus

74
Q

affects the Human

A

Erythrovirus

75
Q

causes warts , cervical cancer & SCC

A

Human Papilloma Virus

76
Q

largest & most complex virus

A

Poxvirus

77
Q

spread via Respiratory tract. Guarneri bodies

Incubation period

A

smallpox

10-14 days

78
Q

spreads via Skin contact

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

79
Q

member of otprthomyxovirus causes Flu
contains Hemaglutinin & Neuraminidase
ability to change its strain

A

Infulenza virus

80
Q

rubeola- exanthem / skin eruption

kopliks spot buccal mucosa

A

Measeles

81
Q

histologic cell in measles

A

Warthin finkeldeg cells

82
Q

causes mumps

complication - orchitis

A

Mumps rubula virus

83
Q

causes lower respiratory tract infection lime bronchitis & pneumonia in infants

A

RSV

84
Q

causes Upper respiratory infection loke croup

A

Parainfluenzae virus

85
Q

member of togaviridae

A

Myxovirus

86
Q

causes German Measles/ 3 days measles
usually 1st trimester
Sign,:

A

Rubella

Forcheimer’s spot

87
Q

Congenital triad of rubella virus

A
  1. Sensoneural- Deafness
  2. Eye abnormality- Retinopathy
  3. Cardiac - Pulmonary artery stenosis
88
Q

spread via oral- fecal route

A

Enterovirus

89
Q

causes poliomyelitis. Most serious disease

Incubation:

A

Poliovirus

7-14 days

90
Q

common in children

A

Coxsackie serotype A

91
Q

appears blisters & ulcerations that affect soft palate & oropharynx

A

Herpangina (Vesicular Pharyngitis)

92
Q

causes pleurodynia, myocarditis & pericarditis

A

Coxsackie serotype B

93
Q

Aseptic meningitis

A 
ECHO
Enteric
Cytopathic 
Human
Orphan
94
Q

common colds & only virus that causes sore throat

A

Rhinovirus

95
Q

least severe hepatitis

A

Hep. A (Infectious Hepatitis)

96
Q

member of Reovirus that causes Gastroenteritis in children

A

Rotavirus

97
Q

causes Rabies that affects Substancia Nigra
Cell
Incubation period

A

Rhabdovirus
Negri bodies
3-8 wks

98
Q

member of Retroviridae

A

HIV

99
Q

Enzymes of HIV

A
  1. Reverse transcritase
  2. Protease
  3. Integrase
  4. Glycoprotein 120
100
Q

Laboratory tesr HIV

A
  1. CD4 Count
  2. ELISA
  3. Western blot
101
Q

used to detect HIV antibodies

A

ELISA

102
Q 
if elisa (+)
if elisa (-)
A

western blot

need to do Elisa again after 1-3 mos.

103
Q

most accurate & used to detect HIV protein

A

Western Blot

104
Q

most common caused by Pneumocystis carinii

A

Pneumonia

105
Q

highest occurence rate of cancer

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

106
Q

momosquito borne that infects liver

A

Yellow virus

107
Q

mosquito borne affect the platelets

A

Dengue

108
Q

only hepatitis has no vaccine

A

Hepatitis C

109
Q

culturing medium of fungi

A

Sabourauds Phenomenon

110
Q

causes San Joaquin Valley Fever

A

Coccidiomycosis

111
Q

affects reticulo- endothelial cells
via soil & dust
mimics TB microscopically & clinically

A

Histoplasmosis- most common systemic fungal infection

112
Q

caused by B. dermatitidis that produces granulomatous ulcers in the oral cavity

A

Blastomycosis

113
Q

causes Hemorrhagic infarction

A

Mucormycosis

114
Q

spreads through blood that causes Meningitis

A

Cryptococcus

115
Q

mostly found in rotten vegetables with underlying illnesses such as TB & COPD

A

Aspergillus

116
Q

due to prolong exposure of penicillin drugs

A

Acute Candidiasis

117
Q

due to denture stomatitis

A

Chronics

118
Q

intimate association with 2 organisms

A

Symbiosis

119
Q

one organism lives in or ona second organis, called the Host

A

Parasitism

120
Q

one organism benefit & other benefit nos is harmed

A

Commensalism

121
Q

both organisms benefit from the relationship

A

Mutualism

122
Q

arried by anopheles mosquito

A

Plasmodium

123
Q

most common cause of malaria

A

P. Malariae

124
Q

w/ schuffner’s dots , a parasite protein found in RBC

A

P. Vivax

125
Q

most severe w/ Maurer’s spots

A

P. Falciparum

126
Q

Tx. for Plasmodium

A

Quinolones & Antimalarial Drug

127
Q

Quinolones
contraindicated children
Adverse effect

A

Inhibits cartilaginous growth

128
Q

causes intestinal dysentery thatnaffects the small intestine

fatal the liver

A

Entoameba Histolytica

129
Q

Tx of Entoamoeba histolytica

A

Metronidazole

130
Q

cause Giardiasis / diarrhea

A

Cryptosprodium parvum

131
Q

for TB

A

BCG- Bacillus Calmette Guerin

132
Q

should be given to newborn 48hrs after birth

A

Hepa Vaccine

133
Q

killing all microorganisms

A

Sterilization

134
Q

eliminating orreducing harmful microorganisms from inanimate objects

A

Disinfection

135
Q

coagulation of proteins

A

Dry Heat

136
Q

Dry heat

A

160* - 2hrs

171*c - 1 hr

137
Q

denature protein

A

Moist heat

138
Q

wrapped

unwrapped

A 
121*C = 15psi  for 15mins
134*C= 30 psi for 3mins.
139
Q

alkylating agents that denatures nucleic acid & protein

A

Ethylene oxide

2% Glutaldehyde

140
Q

ethylene oxide

A

1-12 hrs

141
Q

2% glutaldehyde

A

10-12hrs

142
Q

process of eliminating or reducing harnful microorganisms from living tissues

A

Asepsis / antiseptic

143
Q

disruption of cell membrane

A

Tinture of iodine

144
Q

dissolution of lipids on cell membrane
denature proteins
most common antiseptic & disinfectant

A

Alcohol

145
Q

denatures & precipitates proteins

A

Formaldehyde

146
Q

cationic detergent that disrupt the cell membrane

they are inactivated by anionic compound

A

Quarternary ammonium chloride

benzalkonium chloride

147
Q

anionic compound physically remove microbes
inactivated by cationic compounds
they target the cell membrane

A

Soap & detergents

148
Q

most efficient method in the field of dentistry

A

Moist heat

149
Q

common method i cold sterilization

A

2% Glutaraldehyde

150
Q

most common antiseptic & disinfectant

A

Isopropyl alcohol

151
Q

used to sterilize large instruments & objects

A

Gamma Rays

152
Q

used to sterilize hospital rooms

A

Ultraviolet radiation

153
Q

Teratogenic Dse.

A
  1. Cytomegalovirus
  2. Rubella
  3. Toxoplasmosis
  4. Herpes simplex infection
154
Q

Mosquito- Borne Dse

A
  1. Dengue fever
  2. Malaria
  3. Japanese encephalitis
  4. Yellow fever
  5. Filariasis (elephantiasis)
  6. St. Louis encephalitis
155
Q

Infection thru soil & dust

A
  1. tetanus
  2. Histoplasmosis
  3. Legionnaires dse
  4. Q fever
156
Q

Nosocomial infection

A
  1. Staphyloccus
  2. Streptococcus
  3. E. coli
  4. Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

DLE (14 decks)

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