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Microbio Flashcards

1
Q

What does the catalse test distinguish between?

A

Streptococci (negative) and staphlycoccus (positive)

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2
Q

What does the coagulase test distinguish between?

A

Staph aureus (positive) and other staphylococci (negative)

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3
Q

Which group of bacteria can you perform haemolysis on to distinguish further?

A

Streptococci

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4
Q

What type of bacteria does lancefield grouping distinguish between?

A

Beta haemolytic streptococci

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5
Q

Which type of bacteria show complete haemolysis?

A

Beta haemolytic

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6
Q

Which type of bacteria show partial haemolysis?

A

Alpha haemolytic (green appearance)

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7
Q

Which type of bacteria do not haemolyse?

A

Enterococci

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8
Q

What organism does a positive optochin test identify?

A

Streptococci pneumonia

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9
Q

Give an example of an organism that is optochin resistant.

A

Viridans streptococci

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10
Q

Describe streptococcus pneumoniae.

A

Gram positive diplococci, alpha haemolytic, catalase negative

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11
Q

Describe neisseria.

A

Gram negative diplococci

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12
Q

What is the first line treatment of gonorrhoea?

A

IM ceftriaxone

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13
Q

What type of antibiotic is gentamicin?

A

Aminoglycoside

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14
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis via 30s ribosomes

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15
Q

What kind of virus is hepatitis B?

A

Double stranded DNA

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16
Q

What is the first line treatment of cellulitis?

A

Flucloxacillin

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17
Q

What organism is Legionnaire’s disease often caused by?

A

Legionella pneumophilia

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18
Q

What antibiotic is given to patients with suspected meningococcal septicaemia?

A

IM benzylpenicillin

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19
Q

What lancefield grouping is strep pyogenes?

A

Lancefield group A

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20
Q

What is the mechanism of trimethoprim?

A

Inhibits folate synthesis

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21
Q

What is the mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis

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22
Q

What agar is used to culture TB?

A

Lowenstein-Jensen

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23
Q

What is blood agar used to grow?

A

Anaerobic bacteria

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24
Q

What is chocolate agar used to grow?

A

Aerobic bacteria

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25
Q

What organism is charcoal agar used to grow?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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26
Q

What is MacConkey agar used to grow?

A

Gram negative bacilli

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27
Q

Is c diff anaerobic or aerobic?

A

Anaerobic

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28
Q

Which types of bacteria are oxidase positive?

A

Neisseria, pseudomonas

29
Q

What is the oxidase test?

A

Determines whether a bacteria possesses the cytochrome c oxidase enzyme

30
Q

Are oxidase positive bacteria aerobic or anaerobic?

31
Q

What kind of bacteria is the optochin test performed on

A

Alpha haemolytic streptococci

32
Q

Give 3 examples of oxidase negative bacteria.

A

Shigella, salmonella, proteus

33
Q

What antibiotic is given immediately to patients with suspected meningococcal septicaemia?

A

IM benzylpenicillin

34
Q

What antibiotic is used in hospital to manage meningitis?

A

IV cefotaxime

35
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for a pregnant woman with a UTI?

A

Nitrofurantoin

36
Q

When is nitrofurantoin contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

At full term

37
Q

Give 3 symptoms of encephalitis.

A

Fever, headache, altered mental state

38
Q

What do anti-fungal medications typically end in?

39
Q

Give 3 examples of antifungals.

A

Clotrimazole, econazole, miconazole

40
Q

Who typically gets symptoms with hepatitis E?

A

Pregnant women

41
Q

What is whooping cough caused by?

A

Bordatella pertussis

42
Q

What antibiotic is added to treat beta lactam resistant bacteria?

A

Clauvonic acid

43
Q

What white cells predominate the CSF in bacterial meningitis?

A

Neutrophils

44
Q

What is the treatment of MRSA?

A

Vancomycin

45
Q

What is the treatment of cellulitis caused by staph aureus?

A

Flucloxacillin

46
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice for treatment of tonisilitis?

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

47
Q

What side effects can ethambutol cause?

A

Optic neuritis

48
Q

What types of antibiotics block DNA gyrase?

A

Quinolones and fluoroquinolones

49
Q

What anitbiotics block folate synthesis?

A

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides

50
Q

What is the treatment of pneumocystis jirovecii in AIDS?

A

Co-trimoxazole

51
Q

What is the structure of a gram positive bacteria?

A

No outer membrane - only cytoplasmic membrane

Thicker peptidoglycan layer

52
Q

What is the structure of a gram negative bacteria?

A

Double membrane - outer membrane and cytoplasmic membrane
Thinner peptidoglycan layer
Lipopolysaccharides present on outer membrane

53
Q

What is XLD agar used for?

A

Gram negative pathogens such as shigella and salmonella

54
Q

What kind of bacteria is haemophilus influenzae?

A

Gram negative bacilli

55
Q

What type of bacteria is pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Gram negative bacilli

56
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rifampicin?

A

Inhibits RNA synthesis

57
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in neonates?

A

Group B streptococcus

58
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in the immunosuppressed?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

59
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in the age group 6-60?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

60
Q

Which age group are at risk of meningitis from E. coli?

A

Neonates (0-3 months)

61
Q

Which antibiotics does atypical pneumonia not respond to and why?

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins - atypical pneumoniae lack a cell wall

62
Q

What is atypical pneumonia treated with?

A

Doxycycline

63
Q

What is the test for latent tuberculosis?

A

Mantoux test or tuberculin skin test

64
Q

What antibiotics is MRSA resistant to?

A

Beta lactams
Gentamicin
Tetracycline
Erythromycin

65
Q

What does MRSA stand for?

A

Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus

66
Q

What is the treatment of threadworms?

A

Mebendazole

67
Q

What are the features of a virus?

A 
Only grows inside living cells
Only possess RNA or DNA
Have no cell wall
Have an outer protein coat
Have protein receptors on the surface that allow attachment to the host's cells
68
Q

How do viruses cause disease?

A

Destruction of host cells
Modification of host cell structure or function
‘Overactivity’ of the host immune system causing damage

69
Q

What is the gold standard investigation in malaria?

A

Blood film

Random Revision Note Questions (10 decks)

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