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1
Q

What are the 5 key signs of inflammation?

A 
Rubor - redness
Calor - heat
Tumor - swelling
Dolor - pain
Loss of function
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2
Q

What is supparation?

A

Creation of pus

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3
Q

Which cell types are capable of regeneration?

A 
Osteocytes
Pneumocytes
Hepatocytes
Epithelial skin and gut cells
All blood cells
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4
Q

Which cell types are not capable of regeneration?

A

Neurones

Myocardial cells

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5
Q

Define hyperplasia.

A

Increase in tissue size due to increase in number of constituent cells

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6
Q

Define hypertrophy.

A

Increase in tissue size due to increase of size of constituent cells

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7
Q

Define metaplasia.

A

Change in differentiation of a cell from one fully differentiated type, to another fully differentiated type.

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8
Q

Define neoplasia.

A

Abnormal growth of a tissue which persists despite the initial stimulus being removed

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9
Q

Define apoptosis.

A

Decrease in tissue size due to programmed cell death.

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10
Q

What is the name for a malignant tumour of smooth muscle?

A

Leiomyosarcoma

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11
Q

What is the name for a benign tumour of smooth muscle?

A

Leiomyoma

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12
Q

What is the name for a malignant striated muscle tumour?

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

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13
Q

What is the name for a benign striated muscle tumour?

A

Rhabdomyoma

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14
Q

What is the name for a malignant adipose tissue tumour?

A

Liposarcoma

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15
Q

What is the name for a benign adipose tissue tumour?

A

Lipoma

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16
Q

What type of white blood cells predominate during acute infection?

A

Neutrophil polymorphs

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17
Q

What white blood cell types dominate during chronic inflammation?

A

B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, macrophages

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18
Q

What is the definition of a granuloma?

A

Aggregate of epithelioid histiocytes

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19
Q

What is granulation tissue?

A

New connective tissue and blood vessels forming on a wound surface

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20
Q

What are the 4 constituents of atherosclerotic plaque?

A

Lymphocytes
Smooth muscle cells
Connective tissue
Foam cells

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21
Q

What are the changes undergone in Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium to simple columnar epithelium

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22
Q

What is the action of loop diuretics?

A

Inhibition of Na+/K+/2Cl- channels in the ascending limb of loop of henle

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23
Q

What is the action of thiazide diuretics?

A

Inhibition of Na+/Cl- channels in the distal convoluted tubule

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24
Q

What is the mechanism of rivaroxaban?

A

DOAC - inhibits factor Xa to prevent the conversion of prothrombin into thrombin

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25
Q

What is the mechanism of action of warfarin?

A

Inhibits the production of vitamin K dependent clotting factors

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26
Q

Give a side effect of isoniazid.

A

Peripheral neuropathy

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27
Q

What is the typical pharmacological management of tuberculosis?

A

Rifampicin and isoniazid for 6 months, with ethambutamol and pyrazinamide for the first two months

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28
Q

What is the mechanism of action of paracetamol?

A

Weak COX-2 inhibitor

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29
Q

What is the mechanism of action of P2Y12 inhibitors?

A

ADP receptor antagonist - binds to ADP receptors on the surface of platelets

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30
Q

Which conditions should ACE inhibitors be avoided in?

A

AKI, asthma

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31
Q

What common analgesia can cause constipation?

A

Opioids

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32
Q

What kind of foods can reduce the effect of warfarin?

A

Leafy green vegetables

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33
Q

What is the definition of sensitivity?

A

The number of people with the disease that test positive

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34
Q

What is the definition of specificity?

A

The number of people without the disease that test negative.

35
Q

What is prevelance?

A

The number of current cases

36
Q

What is incidence?

A

The number of new cases

37
Q

How do you calculate units of alcohol?

A

(% ABV x number of ml consumed) / 1000

38
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

Prevention of a disease

39
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

Early detection and treatment of a disease

40
Q

What is tertiary prevention?

A

Treatment of the complications of a disease

41
Q

What is the definition of autonomy?

A

Allowing patients with capacity to have input into their care

42
Q

What types of drug reactions need to be reported under the MHRA yellow card scheme?

A 
A - augmented 
B - bizarre
C - chronic
D - delayed
E - end use
43
Q

What is the process of neutrophil emigration?

A

Margination
Adhesion
Neutrophil emigration
Diapedesis (other cells follow)

44
Q

What are the effects of fluid exudate?

A 
Dilutes toxins
Swelling 
Impairs normal tissue function 
Improves nutrient delivery
Improves immune response
45
Q

What does Bax do?

A

Induces apoptosis

46
Q

What does Bcl-2 do?

A

Inhibits apoptosis

47
Q

Where does liver cancer commonly metastasise to?

A

Lungs and bones

48
Q

How does liver cancer spread to the lungs?

A

Haematogenous spread

49
Q

What mechanism stops bleeding after venepuncture?

A

Platelet and fibrin plug forming over the damaged endothelial wall

50
Q

What is the concept of deontology?

A

The morality of an action is based upon whether you followed the rules and your duties, not the consequences of your actions

51
Q

What are the four quadrants of medical ethics?

A

Medical indications, patient preferences, quality of life and contextual features

52
Q

What is the role of TLR-4 (toll like receptor 4)?

A

Senses lipopolysaccharides found on the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria

53
Q

What is the role of TLR-5?

A

Senses flagellin (part of flagellated bacteria)

54
Q

What does an elevated 1,3 - beta D glucan indicate?

A

Fungal infection

55
Q

What is the pathogenesis of vibrio cholerae?

A

The cholera toxin deregulates ion transport in epithelial cells

56
Q

How do bacteria become resistant to beta lactams?

A

Beta lactamases that break down the beta lactam ring in antibiotics

57
Q

What type of bacteria is mycobacterim tuberculosis?

A

Acid-fast bacilli

58
Q

What is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Damage to tissues mediated by the deposition of antibody-antibody complexes, resulting in the activation of complement

59
Q

Give an example of a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction.

A

Systemic lupus erythematous

60
Q

Which cell in the body can become macrophages in different parts of the body?

61
Q

Which antibody response is the initial response to pathogens?

62
Q

What is the principle molecule in viral responses?

A

Interferon alpha

63
Q

What is the most common infective presentation of AIDS?

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii

64
Q

What is the treatment of pneumocystis jirovecci?

A

Co-trimoxazole for 21 days

65
Q

What is the most common causative organism of traveller’s diarrhoea

A

ETEC (enterotoxigenic E. coli)

66
Q

What organism is associated with diarrhoea in HIV?

A

Cryptosporidium

67
Q

What type of antigen circulates as a pentamer?

68
Q

What antigen is the pentamer IgM made up of?

69
Q

What is cancer grading?

A

How abnormal the cancer cells appear histologically

70
Q

What is cancer staging?

A

How big the cancer is and how it has spread

71
Q

Define inflammation.

A

The local physiological response to tissue injury

72
Q

Which cells are characteristic in acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophil polymorphs

73
Q

Which cells predominate in chronic inflammation?

A

Macrophages, plasma cells and lymphocytes

74
Q

What is the commonest cause of granuloma?

75
Q

What are the different types of vaccinations?

A

Live attenuated, whole inactivated pathogen, subunit vaccines, DNA vaccines, recombinant vector

76
Q

What is the ideal vaccine?

A 
Safe
Effective
Easy to store and transport 
Strong immune response
Memory 
Doesn't require booster
77
Q

Define affinity.

A

Affinity is how readily a drug binds to its receptor. It is measured by the concentration of a drug that occupies 50% of available receptors

78
Q

Define efficacy.

A

The maximum response that can be achieved with a drug

79
Q

Which types of drugs show affinity?

A

Both agonists and antagonists

80
Q

Which types of drugs show efficacy?

A

Agonists only

81
Q

What is pharmacological tolerance?

A

Reduction in the efficacy of an agonist over time

82
Q

What is desensitisation?

A

A procedure that alters the immune response to a drug and results in temporary tolerance

83
Q

What is the mechanism of action of PPIs?

A

They bind to and inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase pump on the luminal surface of parietal cells

Random Revision Note Questions (10 decks)

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