Microb Lab Flashcards

0
Q

CSF volume of neonates?

A

10-60 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

CSF volume of adults?

A

85-150 ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is CSF?

A

“Selective” ultrafiltrate of plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Adult rate of formation?

A

500 ml/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Turnover of CSF?

A

20 ml/hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CSF functions?

A

1) CNS protection
2) Waste management
3) Lubrication
4) Nutrition
5) Reduction of real weight of brain (1.5 kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Site of lumbar puncture for adults?

A

Between L3/L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Site of lumbar puncture for infants?

A

Between L4/L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lumbar puncture procedure?

A

1) Positioned in a fetal position
2) Skin of lower back is prepared using antiseptic solution and local anasthetic is injected
3) Spinal needle is inserted between two lower lumbar vertebrae into subarachnoid space
4) After CSF is collected needle is withdrawn and bandage is placed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Precautions for lumbar puncture

A

1) Spinal needle must be connected to manometer to measure CSF pressure
2) If the pressure is normal (50-180 mm H2O), CSF can be collected
3) Up to 20 ml of CSF can be taken from adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

3 sterile tubes for CSF sample

A

1) Chemistry lab -> to measure protein and glucose levels
2) Microbiology lab -> to study if we have bacterial or viral infections
3) Hematology lab -> to count lymphocytes, neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Small volume of CSF sample?

A

Sent to microbiology lab first (sterile issue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Storage of 3 sterile tubes

A

1) Freeze it after centrifugation
2) Keep at room temperature (avoid autolysis of H. influenzae, N. meningiditis)
3) Refrigerate for only 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Normal CSF appearance?

A

Crystal clear & colorless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pleocytosis

A

Increased CSF cell numbers

1) WBC > 200 cells/µ L
2) RBC > 400 cells/µ L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cloudy or turbid CSF

A

High concentration of protein or neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Bloody CSF

A

RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Clot CSF

A

TB meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Viscous CSF

A

Cryptococcosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Xanthochromic

A

Orange or pinky supernatant after centrifuge of CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Difference between traumatic tap and CNS hemorrhage

A

1) Maximum amount of blood in 3 samples:
- Traumatic tap -> progressive decrease in subsequent sample tubes
- CNS hemorrhage -> blood evenly mixed in all tubes
2) After centrifugation:
- Traumatic tap -> Clear supernatant
- CNS hemorrhage -> Xanthochromic supernatant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Blood clot in CSF sample

A

Very bloody traumatic tap (not usually associated with CNS hemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CSF glucose

A

50-80 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

CSF protein

A

20-45 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CSF pressure

A

50-180 mm. H20

25
Q

Leukocyte count in normal CSF

A

1) Adults -> 0-5 cell/ml

2) Neonates -> 0-30 cell/ml

26
Q

CSF analysis for virus

A

1) Normal pressure
2) Clear
3) Lymphocyte
4) Protein increased slightly
5) CSF sugar normal
6) Special lab

27
Q

CSF analysis for bacteria

A

1) Normal, increased pressure (increased protein concentration)
2) Turbid
3) PMN (neutrophils)
4) Protein increased significantly
5) CSF sugar decreased
6) Gram stain, culture, CIE, latex agglutination

28
Q

Microbiology examination procedure

A

1) Centrifuge must be done if volume more than 1 mL
2) Remove supernatant (sterile pipette) and leave about 0.5 mL over sediment to concentrate suspension
3) Take 1-2 drops of suspension for culture media

29
Q

Types of culture media

A

1) Chocolate agar
2) 5% Sheep Blood agar
3) Modified Thayer-Martin media
4) MacConkey agar
5) Lowenstein-Jensen agar

30
Q

Enriched medium

A

Blood and Chocolate agar

31
Q

Selective, differential for gram negative bacteria

A

MacConkey agar

32
Q

Selective for Neisseria spp.

A

Modified Thayer-Martin media

33
Q

Used for culture of TB

A

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

34
Q

Organisms most frequently encountered in infants

A

1) E. coli
2) Klebsiella pneumonia
3) K. oxytoca
4) Group B streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae)
5) Listeria monocytogenes

35
Q

Organisms most frequently encountered in children (6 months-3 years)

A

1) Haemophilus influenzae
2) Neisseria meningitidis
3) Streptococcus pneumoniae

36
Q

Organisms most frequently encountered in adults (5-29 years)

A

Neisseria meningitidis

37
Q

Organisms most frequently encountered in old adults (30-60 years)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

38
Q

Organisms most frequently encountered in elderly (>60 years)

A

1) E. coli

2) Listeria monocytogenes

39
Q

1) MacConkey agar -> Dry, pink (lactose positive) colonies with surrounding pink areas
2) EMB agar -> Metallic green sheen colonies
3) Motile bacteria
4) IMViC ++–
5) kIA test A/A (glucose lactose fermenter)

A

E. coli

40
Q

Klebsiella spp.

A

1) Lactose positive
2) Most urease positive
3) Non-motile

41
Q

1) MacConkey agar -> Pink (lactose fermentation) and mucoid (large colonies, honey appearance because it’s encapsulated bacteria)
2) IMViC –++
3) kIA test A/A glucose lactose fermenter

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

42
Q

1) Klebsiella spp.

2) Differs from others by being Indole Test + IMViC +-++

A

Klebsiella oxytoca

43
Q

1) G+ diplococci, lancet-shaped, crystal violet
2) Blood agar -> Narrow zone of β-hemolysis (complete reduction of RBCs)
3) Whitish colonies
4) Most bacitracin resistant
5) Positive CAMP test

A

Group B Streptococci (Streptococcus agalactiae)

44
Q

Catalase test for Streptococcus

A

Negative (-)

45
Q

Catalase test for Staphylococcus

A

Positive (+)

46
Q

CAMP test

A

1) Specific for S. agalactiae (Group B)

2) CAMP act synergistically with staphylococcal β-lysin (lysis of RBCs)

47
Q

How to differentiate Streptococcus and Staphylococcus?

A

Catalase test

48
Q

How to differentiate β-hemolytic streptococci?

A

1) Lancefield Classification
2) Bacitracin susceptibility test (Bacitracin Disk):
- Group A (pyogenes) -> sensitive (zone of inhibition)
- Group B (agalactiae) -> non-sensitive/resistant (no zone of
inhibition)

49
Q

Procedure of CAMP test

A

1) 2 streaks of Streptococcus spp. and S. aureus perpendicular to each other
2) 3-5 mm distance between the 2 streaks
3) After incubation an arrowhead-shaped zone shows complete hemolysis
4) S. agalactiae is CAMP test-positive (other streptococci negative)

50
Q

1) 5% sheep blood agar -> α-hemolysis (partial reduction of RBCs)
2) Sensitivity to optochin (inhibition)

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

51
Q

How to differentiate α-hemolytic Streptococci?

A

Optochin Susceptibility test (S. pneumoniae sensitive, S. viridans non-sensitive)

52
Q

1) Facultative anaerobic, Gram-negative coccobacilli
2) Small short-rod, pleomorphism
3) Non-motile
4) Grows on Chocolate agar only (Grayish mucoid colonies)
5) Blood-loving
6) Need X and V factor in Chocolate agar

A

Haemophilus influenzae

53
Q

Special characteristic of H. influenzae

A

Satellitism (Can grow in Blood agar (X-factor only) when streaked in the middle with a line of S. aureus (produce V-factor from RBCs)

54
Q

1) Aerobic
2) Gram-negative cocci arranged in pairs (diplococci) with adjacent side flattened (coffee beans)
3) Oxidase positive
4) Non-motile

A

Neisseria meningiditis (Meningococcus)

55
Q

How to diagnose Neisseria meningitidis?

A

1) Direct smear from CSF -> Intra- & extracellular Gram-negative diplococci
2) Sheep Blood agar & Chocolate agar in CO2 (must be incubated at 35°C in 3-5% CO2 or candle jar)
3) Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) agar -> small, gray, translucent, raised colonies
4) Oxidase test -> Positive (Violet) other Enterobacteriacae negative

56
Q

1) Aerobic and facultatively anaerobic
2) Motile, β-hemolytic, non-spore forming
3) Gram-positive rod, regular, short
4) Singly or in short chains

A

Listeria monocytgenes

57
Q

“Umbrella” growth in semi-solid medium (motility test)?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

58
Q

How to diagnose Tuberculosis meningitis?

A

1) Acid-fast Positive Stain (Ziehl-Neelsen stain) -> Bright red stain (Acid-fast bacilli)
2) Lowenstein-Jensen media -> Puff, rough and tough colonies like bread crumbs (21 days to grow on this media)
3) We don’t depend on culture because it takes 4-6 weeks to grow

59
Q

1) Encapsulated yeast

2) Grows as yeast (unicellular) and replicates by budding

A

Cryptococcus neoformans (fungus)

60
Q

How to diagnose Cryptococcus neoformans?

A

1) India Ink preparation (negrosin, eosin) -> Colorless halo (stained background leaving halo representing distinct, wide and gelatinous capsule)