MICRO - PAHABOL NOTES Flashcards
1
Q
**Migrating larva causing eosinophilia and pneumonitis:
a. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. S. stercoralis
c. A. lumbricoides
D. ALL
A
D. ALL
IF WALANG ALL, CHOOSE ASCARIS
2
Q
**Only known host of trichiuris trichura:
a. Human
b. Animal
A
a. Human
*Humans are the only known host of T trichiura and no animal reservoir is recognized.
2
Q
**At least how many stool collections for Ascaris lumbricoides
a. At least 2
b. At least 3
A
b. At least 3
*For accurate diagnosis of Ascaris infection, it’s recommended to collect at least three independently collected stool specimens over a few days to maximize the chances of detecting the parasite.
3
Q
**Tapeworm most common in the Philippines
a. H. nana
b. Echinococcus
c. T. saginata
d. T. solium
A
c. T. saginata
In the Philippines, T. saginata infections are more common than T. solium infections.
4
Q
**What will grow in a nutrient-scarce medium?
a. Fastidious
b. Non-fastidious
A
b. Non-fastidious
For culturing non-fastidious bacteria on a nutrient-scarce medium, nutrient agar is a suitable choice, as it is a
general-purpose medium supporting a wide range of bacteria that don’t require extra nutrients.
5
Q
**Epidemiology investigation except;
a. environment
b. agent
c. host
d. behavior
A
d. behavior
**if no except; agent is the best
**Understanding the Epidemiologic Triad —
The epidemiologic triad helps us understand how diseases occur and spread by examining the interactions between these three elements:
6
Q
The agent must come into contact with a susceptible host for an infection or disease to occur.
A
Agent-Host Interaction:
7
Q
These can influence the transmission of the agent to the host, such as climate, water quality,
or the presence of vectors.
A
Environmental Factors:
8
Q
The three elements are interconnected, and changes in one can affect the others, leading to shifts in disease patterns.
A
Interconnectedness:
9
Q
Important feature for the life cycle of plasmodium
a. Sporozoitemia
b. Rupture of infected red blood cells
A
b. Rupture of infected red blood cells- 2nd best
**A critical part of the malaria parasite’s life cycle is invasion of red blood cells (RBCs) by merozoites. 1st best
10
Q
**example blood fluke?
**parasite’s egg can be seen in urine?-
A
**example blood fluke? Schistosoma
**parasite’s egg can be seen in urine?- S. haematobium
11
Q
**What is the most commonly used for preliminary differentiation of bacteria?
A. Biochem test and gram staining
B. MAC, BAP
C. Biochem, MAC
D. Thio, CAP
A
A. Biochem test and gram staining
12
Q
**BAP is __________.
a. Selective
b. Differential
A
b. Differential
Both differential and enriched
13
Q
Biochem tests that all points out to C. diphtheriae
A
catalase positive
(NON MOTILE)
urease negative
h2s negative
14
Q
Diagnostic stage of strongyloides?
A
L1 larva
Can be L1, egg and L3.. best is L1
15
Q
Correct parasite-infective form of Strongy should be?
A
Strongy: Filariform
**Incorrect parasite-infective form; Strongy: rhabditiform
16
Q
For DSSM; Gargle mouth with water
DSSM, or Direct Sputum Smear Microscopy: examination of ____
A
afb in sputum
**As soon as you wake up in the morning (before you eat or drink anything), brush your teeth and rinse your mouth with water. Do not use mouthwash.
17
Q
SIGNS..COVID-19… EXCEPT
a. Loss of taste
b. Productive cough
c. + test
A
a. Loss of taste
Loss of taste since it is a symptom
18
Q
**media used for AST
A
(Mueller Hinton)
- Tryptone Soya Agar (TSA): While TSA is a general-purpose medium, MHA is generally preferred for susceptibility testing due to its specific characteristics.
- Nutrient Agar (NA): In some situations, where MHA is not feasible, NA can be used for AST.
- Blood Agar: MHA supplemented with blood may be used for bacteria with special requirements.
19
Q
Why 3 samples for Giardia examination?
A
Stool examination may be performed on fresh specimens or after preservation with polyvinyl alcohol or 10% formalin (with appropriate staining). Ideally, three specimens from different days should be examined because of potential variations in fecal excretion of cysts.
20
Q
Incorrect about AMST in anaerobic
A. Not common
B. Sparse literature
C. Unpredictable AST pattern
D. Predictable AST pattern
A
D. Predictable AST pattern
AGAR DILUTION AND BROTH MICRODILUTION ARE RECOMMENDED
20
Q
Most common diagnostic test in COVID
A. Detection/amplification of virus specific RNA
B. Southern blot
C. Serology
D. Western blot”
A
A. Detection/amplification of virus specific RNA
**For detecting current COVID-19 infections, PCR (polymerase chain reaction) tests are more common than serology tests because they directly detect the virus’s genetic material (RNA), while serology tests identify antibodies produced in response to infection.
21
Q
Why is it hard to determine Helicobacter pylori
A. Only IgM
B. Not present in the blood-BEST AMONG THE GIVEN
C.
D. There is no ELISA test”
A
B. Not present in the blood-BEST AMONG THE GIVEN
**Testing for H. pylori could be done using invasive detection methods (endoscopy and biopsy) and non-invasive methods (urea breath test, RT-PCR, antibody detection). Antibody detection mainly involves IgG detection since
most infections have become chronic before diagnosis.
**Determining Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection can be challenging due to the bacteria’s patchy distribution in the stomach, the limitations of serological tests, and the difficulty of isolating the bacteria for culture
**Patchy Distribution:
H. pylori doesn’t colonize the stomach evenly; it’s present in patches, making it difficult to obtain a
representative sample for testing, especially with biopsies.
**Serology Limitations:
Blood tests for H. pylori antibodies can’t distinguish between current and past infections, and antibodies persist even after successful treatment, leading to false positives.
**Culture Challenges:
H. pylori is difficult to culture due to its fastidious nature and slow growth, making it a less reliable method for
diagnosis.
22
Q
- The most specific test for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) infection, particularly for confirming infection and monitoring treatment, is an
- 2ND CHOICE?
A
- endoscopic biopsy with histology.
- 2ND CHOICE: CULTURE
23
Causative agent of tinea versicolor?
Malassezia globosa, Malassezia sympodialis, and Malassezia furfur.
M. furfur
***Malassezia globosa
Malassezia sympodialis
Malassezia furfur.
24
What is shed in stool that can be diagnostic for taenia/tapeworm infection?
a. ova
b. scolex
c. proglottid.
All correct.
gravid proglottids (uterine
branches) = best and most commonly seen
25
What is the color of MR-VP when inoculated with a loop that contains E. Coli. ?
Yellow, Red, Brown
E. coli in MR broth- red; VP broth- no color change (yellow)
26
Difference between E. histolytica and E. dispar?
E. histolytica has ingested RBC
**These 2 are differentiated based on PCR, Isoenzyme analysis, monoclonal antibody typing
27
Which of the following is commensal/nonpathogenic:
E. dispar
28
Temp for virus:
-70 (long storage)
29
For how long is the contact time for decontaminating BSC?
A. 15-30 mins
B. 45-60 mins"
A. 15-30 mins
**Best should be 10-30 min
*Quats, ethanol, iodine containing compounds,phenolics: 10 min
*Chlorine: 30 mins
30
Confirmatory for chlamydia:
NAAT
30
NOT used for decontamination BSC:?
Glutaraldehyde
Formaldehyde,
Paraformaldehyde
Ethylene oxide
31
Confirmatory for treponema:
darkfield microscope
**Better than DF in secondary syphilis: FTA-Abs; best among all: NAAT
32
S. Haematobium MORPHOLOGY seen in the urine
S. haematobium egg with huge terminal spine
33
Part of tapeworm with hooks-
SCOLEX
**Trematode morphology seen in stool- operculated and unoperculated eggs, embryonated and unembryonated
eggs, adults
34
S. Japonicum sample of choice-
STOOL
35
Spaghetti meatballs-
Malassezia furfur
36
MAC is ?
differential and selective
37
A virus causative agent of infantile diarrhea
Rotavirus
37
Pork tapeworm
T. solium
38
Hepatitis common in Blood transfusion-
HEPA C
39
Plasmodium elongated or crescent gametocyte-
P. falciparum
40
THE LIA SHOWS ALKALINE SLANT, BLACK PRECIPITATE ; what spp typically exhibit a purple (alkaline) slant and butt, along with
blackening (H2S production)
Salmonella species
41
Case study about a gram positive rod with (-) motility
a) bacillus
b) clostridium
c) listeria
d) erysipelothrix,
d) erysipelothrix,
42
Ascaris lumbricoides except
A. corticated
B. Round
C. Elongated
None..lahat for ascaris…pero kng I group cla, naiiba yung elongated..kasi corticated and round ay mostly for fertilized eggs.
43
Free the plug of debris from the top of the tube (sedimentation technique)
A ringing the side with an applicator stick
B. Ringing the side with platinum wire loop"
A ringing the side with an applicator stick
*To free the plug of debris from the top of the tube in a sedimentation technique, gently "ring" the plug with an applicator stick, then carefully decant the supernatant fluid and debris, leaving the sediment at the bottom.
44
Colorless growth in MAC?
a. Lactose fermenter
b. Non-Lactose fermenter
b. Non-Lactose fermenter
45
Counterstain that makes the color pink in gram staining?
a. Safranin
b. Methylene blue
c. Carbolfuchsin
d. Crystal Violet
a. Safranin
45
What is the color of E.coli after adding methyl red in Methyl Red and Voges Proskauer test?
a. Yellow
b. Red
c. Pink
d. Colorless
b. Red
46
After addition of safranin, _____ will remain color pink?
A Gram negative
b. Gram positive
c. Acid-fast
d. Non-acid fast
A Gram negative
47
Specimen for virus is stored at?
a. 4°C
b. -70°C
c. 20°C
d. 25°C
a. 4°C-no mention of time.. go for short term
47
Sars-Cov is under what virus?
Coronavirus
47
Specimen should be processed within
a. 1hr
b. 30mins
c. 2hrs
d. 20mins
b. 30mins—the most common in ref so far
48
Cary-blair medium is used to transport what type of specimen?
a. Stool
b. Urine
c. Swab
d. Blood
a. Stool
49
Test that differentiates microaerophilic and strict anaerobes?
a. Oxidase
b. Gram stain
c. Aerotolerance test
d. Urease
c. Aerotolerance test
*Aerotolerance test with thioglycollate broth can be used to identify the bacteria’s oxygen requirement
50
All of the following are characteristic of ascaris lumbricoides fertilized egg except:
a. Thin shell
b. Round
c. Elongated
d. Thick shell
a. Thin shell
51
Anaerobes bacteria is most commonly found in?
a. Superficial wound
b. Brain abscess
c. Throat swab
b. Brain abscess
*Commonly isolated anaerobic bacteria include Bacteroides, Fusobacterium, Prevotella, and Clostridium species, often found in intra-abdominal infections, abscesses, and other anaerobic environments.
52
Which of the following stains is for coccidians?
a. Modified trichrome stain
b. Zinc Sulfate Flotation
c. Modified acid fast stain
d. Formalin
c. Modified acid fast stain
53
Which of the following can be transported alone?
a. Wound
b. CSF
c. Tissue
also inoculated by itself
b. CSF
54
Gram + bacilli
Motility negative
H2S negative
Catalase positive
A. Corynebacterium
B. Erysipelothrix
C. Listeria
D. Group B streptococcus
A. Corynebacterium
55
Type of hepatitis that has a fecal-oral route?
a. Hepa B
b. Hepa A
c. Hepa C
d. Hepa E
b. Hepa A
Hepa E-also
56
Stain used for H. pylori:
Giemsa
**Ideally, toluidine blue or cresyl violet acetate
*For histological identification of Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori), several staining methods are used, including routine hematoxylin and eosin (H&E), as well as special stains like Giemsa, Warthin-Starry, and immunohistochemical (IHC) stains.
57
Grows in Mac, non motile
A. Salmonella
B. Klebsiella
B. Klebsiella
58
Gram positive cocci
Catalase, Coagulase, MSA :positive
A. S. ludunensis
B. S. haemolyticus
C. S. epidermidis
D. S. aureus
D. S. aureus
59
Sample For Paragonimus westermani:
sputum or stool
**For diagnosing paragonimiasis, the best samples to examine microscopically for Paragonimus eggs are sputum and stool, with sputum being the primary sample.
60
The most common congenital infection is ______ which affects an estimated 1 in 200 babies, and is the leading cause of non-genetic sensorineural hearing loss in children.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection
60
CAP is?
CAP: differential, selective, or enriched (nutritive)
61
In human parasitology, an acceptable or normal range for eggs per gram (EPG) in fecal samples,
depending on the parasite, typically ranges from low to moderate levels, with counts ______ often considered SIGNIFICANT and requiring further investigation.
above 200 EPG
62
Hooks are found in the ____
scolex
63
Aspergillus flavus toxin?
aflatoxin
64
For fungi transport what to use to avoid growth of nonpathologic organism?
best: cychloheximide
**Cycloheximide, chloramphenicol, gentamicin
**Substitute to cycloheximide (natamycin or any type of anti-fungal agent.
65
When malaria smears are requested, what patient information should be obtained as most relevant to the potential infection?
(c): Travel history (areas of drug resistance), the date of return to the United States (primary vs. relapse case), and history of antimalarial medication (severe illness, few organisms on smear) are very important questions to ask.
66
diseases caused by a fungus (yeast or mold)?
* Fungal infections, or MYCOSES
67
**What is the primary role of disease surveillance?
a. Primary care
b. Public health
c. Diagnosis
d. Triage
b. Public health
**Disease surveillance data serves as the basis for the detection of potential outbreaks for an early warning system to prevent what could become public health emergencies.
68
**Which of the following is correct?
A. Northern Blot: DNA
B. Southern Blot: DNA
C. Northern Blot: RNA
D. Souther Blot: RNA
B. Southern Blot: DNA
C. Northern Blot: RNA
69
**Residual chlorine:
a. Overchlorination
b. Not protected from bacteria and other contaminants
c. Protected from contamination during storage
d. Unsafe water
c. Protected from contamination during storage
**Residual chlorine is the low level amount of chlorine remaining in the water after a certain period or contact time after its initial application.
*It constitutes an important safeguard against the risk of subsequent microbial contamination after treatment
**When excess chlorine (5 to 15 mg/l) is added during an epidemic such that it gives a residual of 1 to 2 mg/l beyond breakpoint is called super chlorination
70
** A gram-positive coccus that is catalase positive, nonmotile, lysostaphin resistant, and modified oxidase positive
is best identified as a member of the genus
A. Micrococcus
B. Lactococcus
C. Pediococcus
D. Staphylococcus
A. Micrococcus
71
**Correct base pairs:
A;T G;C
71
** Streptococci obtain all their energy from
the fermentation of sugars to
A. Formic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Succinic acid
D. Valeric acid
B. Lactic acid
72
**All of the following are spiral-shaped, EXCEPT:
A.Clostridium botulinum
B.Helicobacter pylori
C.Treponema pallidum
D.Vibrio cholerae
A.Clostridium botulinum
73
**Cetrimide agar is for? P. aeruginosa
P. aeruginosa
**Cetrimide Agar is used as a selective medium for the isolation of Pseudomonas aeruginosa from pus, sputum and drains etc. Also used for determining the ability of an organism to produce fluorescein and pyocyanin
(Antibiotica).
74
_____ indicators are designed to show that an autoclave cycle was successful at eliminating microorganisms. These indicators utilize bacterial spores such as Geobacillus stearothermophilus which are highly resistant to heat and steam. Gold standard
Biological
74
**What is the best indicator for autoclaves?
a. biological
b. chemical
c. Mechanical
a. biological
75
______ indicators allow us to verify the proper sterilization procedures of instruments in between biological monitoring. Mechanical monitoring can detect equipment malfunctions by ensuring that any machinery involved, such as the autoclave machine, is operating optimally, at the right temperature, time, and for the correct duration.
Chemical
75
**Acquired through ingestion/inhalation:
E. vermicularis
ALSO: aspergillus
***Transmission occurs through inhaling airborne Aspergillus spores. People with weakened immune systems or lung diseases are most at risk. Aspergillosis treatment depends on the type of infection.
76
**The presence of residual chlorine in drinking water means:
A. Sufficient amount of chlorine was added initially to the water
B. Water is unsafe for drinking
C. Additional treatment is required to remove chlorine
D. Water is contaminated with coliform
A. Sufficient amount of chlorine was added initially to the water
77
**MALARIAL STAGE INGESTED BY FEMALE ANOPHELES MOSQUITO:
GAMETOCYTES
77
** Storage of viruses:
a. 4
b. 0
c. -70
d. 70
a. 4
The World Health Organization (WHO) and CDC recommend cooled storage (2–8 °C) and transport of respiratory specimens in a specific viral transport medium (VTM) up to 5 days for accurate results by molecular testing.
**Long storage: -70
**Viral RNA: 24C
78
**How to detect MRSA?
a. biochemical
b. culture
c. microscopy
b. culture
**Doctors diagnose methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) by checking a tissue sample or nasal secretions for signs of drug-resistant bacteria. The sample is sent to a lab where it's placed in a dish of nutrients that encourage bacterial growth. Also sensitivity testing
79
**How to validate the result of AST?
A. Parallel testing with a new method
B. Parallel testing with another personnel
C. Testing with a reference reagent
D. Testing with a reference organism
D. Testing with a reference organism - this is the nearest to the stipulations of clsi and cdc
**The interpretations are valid only if testing is performed according to CLSI recommendations or by a method that produces results comparable to the CLSI method
**To verify that antimicrobial susceptibility test results are accurate, at least one control organism should be included with each test.
**B. Parallel testing with another personnel – this is the common answer of some
80
**Pseudomembrane of the throat:
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
81
**microorganisms are killed By autoclave through
a. High temp
b. Low temp
c. Pressure
d. time
a. High temp
**Autoclaves use steam heat to raise temperatures to such a degree that proteins within the cell walls of a microbe break down and begin to coagulate, thereby killing the bacterium and achieving sterilization.
**High temperatures are achieve through increased pressure
82
**What test is employed in the differentiation of the Enterobacteriacae family.
a. IMViC
b. Indole
c. Glucose Fermentation
d. Capsule
a. IMViC
83
** Incubating the culture at 25°C: Best for what spp?
Best for Streptomyces growth
84
**What is the most sensitive test for chlamydia?
a. Cell culture
b. Serologic
c. NAAT
d. Microscopic
c. NAAT
**NAAT is the preferred method for detecting a chlamydia infection. This type of test detects the genetic material (DNA or RNA) of Chlamydia trachomatis. It can be performed using a urine sample or swab of fluid taken from a site of potential infection such as the urethra, vagina, rectum, or eye.
85
**What is the Pre-Analytical part of Microbiology Testing?
a. Standardization of Parasite naming
b. Something about slides
c. Proper storage of reagents and stains
d. Identify Patient
d. Identify Patient
**proper storage must be of samples and not reagents
86
**PYR disk id for?
S. pyogenes
87
**Best time to collect E. Vermicularis ova.
a. Morning
b. Afternoon
c. Night
d. Midday
a. Morning
****The adhesive part of the swube tube or tape is applied to the perianal area first thing in the morning. Specimens should be collected on three consecutive mornings prior to bathing.
88
**How Parasitism is expressed when malaria parasite is quantitated against RBC.
a. Parasite/ul of Blood
b. Ratio
c. Average
d. Mean
a. Parasite/ul of Blood
****To quantify malaria parasites against RBCs, count the parasitized RBCs among 500-2,000 RBCs on the thin smear and express the results as % parasitemia.
% parasitemia = (parasitized RBCs/total RBCs) × 100
88
**Test not done for diagnosis of chlamydia:
a. Cell culture
b. EIA
c. NAAT
d. Microscopy
d. Microscopy
89
** Pathology at the point of entrance of the organism:
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
90
**Method that uses heat to facilitate better staining of bacterial cell walls
a. Gram stain
b. Kinyoun
c. Ziehl neelsen
d. Acid fast stain
c. Ziehl neelsen
**The Ziehl-Neelsen method of staining is also called the hot method as it involves heating the carbolfuchsin stain. In contrast, the historic method of staining called the Kinyoun method does not involve heating and is hence
known as the cold method
90
**Which type of organism isolated if growth in MAC is pink?
a. Non-lactose fermenter
b. Microaerophile
c. Lactose fermenter
d. Obligate aerobe
c. Lactose fermenter
91
*Bile esculin hydrolysis is for
Enterococcus faecalis
92
**Specimen is obtained from an intravascular catheter. Gram stain showed gram positive bacteria. Which of the following is the most probable cause?
a. S. aureus
b. e. coli
c. P. aeruginosa
d. K. pneumoniae
a. S. aureus
93
** Nocardia can be differentiated from Actinomyces based on
A. Nocardia being an obligate anaerobe
B. The partial-acid fast staining reaction of Actinomyces
C. The production of sulfur granules incases of nocardiosis
D. Nocardia being catalase positive
D. Nocardia being catalase positive
94
**Uses catalase test, EXCEPT:
a. Salmonella
b. S. aureus
c. Shigella
d. S. pyogenes
d. S. pyogenes
95
**In a MacConkey Agar, what is the color of the lactose fermenting colonies?
a. Colorless
b. White
c. Red
d. Pink
d. Pink
96
**Westgard rule considered as Mandatory rule.
A. 12s
B. 41s
C. 22s
D. 13s
D. 13s
**Mandatory: 13S: R4S: 10x
Warning 12S: 22S: 41S
97
** Nocardia asteroides infections in humans
characteristically produce
A. Carbuncles
B. Draining cutaneous sinuses
C. Septic shock
D. Serous effusions
B. Draining cutaneous sinuses
98
**All of the following are spiral-shaped, EXCEPT:
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Vibrio cholerae
a. Clostridium botulinum
99
**Actinomyces are:
Gram negative bacilli, facultative anaerobe
a. Gram positive bacilli, branching, non Gram negative bacilli, facultative anaerobe
spore forming
b. Gram positive bacilli, acid-fast non-glucose fermenter
Gram-positive, branching, filamentous rods, facultative anaerobe, non-acid fast
Gram-positive, branching, filamentous rods, facultative anaerobe, non-acid fast
100
**Babes-Ernst granules are the metachromatic granules produced by:
a. M. tuberculosis
b. Y. pestis
c. C. diptheriae
d. E. aerogenes
c. C. diptheriae
101
** Abiotrophia, formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci, will not grow on routine blood or chocolate
agars because they are deficient in
A. Hemin
B. Pyridoxal
C. Vitamin B12
D. Thiophene-2-carboxylic hydrazide
B. Pyridoxal
102
**According to arrangement, bacteria may take the form of:
a. rods
b. spheres
c. pairs
d. spiralis
c. pairs
**Bacterial cell arrangement depends upon the number and pattern of bacteria attached after binary fission. The basic types of arrangement are single (one), diplo (pair), tetrad (four, square), sarcina (eight, cube), staphylo arrangement (cluster), and strepto- arrangement (sheets, chains).
103
** The etiologic agent of the majority of adult joint infections is:
SAU
104
**Mc. Farland standard is equivalent to:
a. 0.5 x 10^8 CFU/ml
b. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/ml
c. 0.5 x 10^9 CFU/ml
d. 1.5 x 10^9 CFU/ml
b. 1.5 x 10^8 CFU/ml
105
**What is the characteristic odor of Proteus?
a. Grape-like/Corn tortilla-like odor
b. Bleach like odor
c. Fruity odor resembling apples or strawberries
d. Burnt chocolate odor
d. Burnt chocolate odor
106
**What is the most sensitive test for Chlamydia?
a. NAAT
b. Cell culture
c. EIA
d. Microscopy
a. NAAT
**A voided urine sample, whether midstream or first-void, effectively captures the chlamydial organism for nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT). NAATs are the most sensitive tests for these specimens and therefore are
recommended for detecting C trachomatis infection.
107
A spx that provides the most sensitive and specific test result for Chlamydia
cervical swab
108
**____ are best for isolation of gram-positive cocci
PEA and Columbia CNA
109
**Happens during microorganism resistance EXCEPT:
a. ag-ab complex
b. penetration of membrane protein
c. reduced antimicrobial therapy
d. by passing the membrane protein
a. ag-ab complex
110
**Best in monitoring malaria
a. Microscopy
b. NAAT
c. Serology
a. Microscopy - ours
b. NAAT –their answer
**Latest- NAAT-based diagnosis of malaria should be followed by microscopy testing to determine percent parasitemia for monitoring parasitemia decrease following therapy.
**In microscopy, Quantification of parasites possible-to monitor drug efficacy
111
** The chemotherapeutic agents structurally similar to the vitamin p-aminobenzoic acid that act by inhibiting
bacteria via inhibition of folic acid synthesis are
A. Aminoglycosides
B. Penicillins
C. Macrolides
D. Sulfonamides
D. Sulfonamides
112
*gold standard for laboratory confirmation of malaria parasites
*A ____is an alternate way of quickly establishing the diagnosis of malaria.
*___can help identify the Plasmodium species to ensure proper treatment
*Microscopic examination of blood films
*Rapid Diagnostic Test (RDT)
*PCR
113
**anthrax pulmonary:
Woolsorter’s
114
**identification of hydatid cysts is the best
**E. granulosus:
115
**Which statement is correct for specimen collection and processing?
A. Stool samples can contain urine.
B. Stools can be frozen without affecting parasitic structure.
C. Liquid stools are best for detecting ameba and flagellate trophozoites.
D. Unpreserved stools can remain at room temperature for up to 72 hours.
C. Liquid stools are best for detecting ameba and flagellate trophozoites.
116
**Approximately __% of the world's population is at risk of getting malaria.
10%
25%
50%
75%
50%
116
** Mueller-Hinton base supplemented with 5% lysed horse blood:
S. pneumoniae
117
**Which drug known to be active against parasitic infections has importance as a therapeutic agent in cases of
disease caused by anaerobic bacteria?
A. Isoniazid
B. Metronidazole
C. Rifampin
D. Trimethoprim
B. Metronidazole
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**Major strategies for preventing malaria do NOT include:
Insecticide-treated bed nets
Indoor residual spraying
Aerial insecticide fogging
Preventive treatment
Aerial insecticide fogging
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** Which of the following is the most commonly isolated species of Bacillus in opportunistic infections such as
bacteremia, post-traumatic infections of the eye, and endocarditis?
A. B. circulans
B. B. cereus
C. B. licheniformis
D. B. subtilis
B. B. cereus
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**Host with sexual reproduction of parasites:
Definitive or final hosts
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**Nitrogen source:
a. Yeast extract
b. Peptone
c. Beef extract
d. Meat extract
b. Peptone
122
** An aerobic gram-positive rod known to cause bacteremia in hospitalized immunocompromised patients is
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Corynebacterium jeikeium
C. Corynebacterium ulcerans
D. Corynebacterium urealyticum
B. Corynebacterium jeikeium
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** Which of the following is not characteristicof Listeria monocytogenes ?
A. CAMP test postive
B. Catalase negative
C. Esculin hydrolysis positive
D. Motile
B. Catalase negative
Seen in meats and improperly pasteurized dairy products?
124
**The ff. are parasite:infective stage EXCEPT:
a. Strongyloides stercoralis: Rhabditiform larva
b. Ascaris lumbricoides : Embryonated egg
c. Ancylostoma duodenale : Filariform larva
d. Trichuris trichuria : Embryonated egg
a. Strongyloides stercoralis: Rhabditiform larva
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** in-vitro toxigenic test C. diphteriae
**Elek’s test
126
**Subacute bacterial endocarditis, what spp
**S. sanguis
127
**anterior nares ?
S. aureus
128
**MBC means ?
killing 99.9% of the original inoculum.
129
**Preferred specimen for M. pneumoniaea
Nasopharyngeal swab
Bronchial aspirate
Pleural
Pericardial
Nasopharyngeal swab
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reagent used to detect indole production, is a solution containing isoamyl alcohol, paradimethylaminobenzaldehyde (DMAB), and concentrated hydrochloric acid
Kovács reagent
131
**The most effective method of sterilization:
Moist heat (autoclave)
132
**In ____, pressure is used to raise the temperature but not to kill microorganisms
autoclaving
133
** HIV surveillance:
Understanding trends in HIV data is a cornerstone of the public health response to HIV. HIV surveillance brings together information from a range of sources to:
* estimate how many people are living with HIV;
* understand who is being infected and why; and
* assess the impact of HIV prevention, testing, and treatment services across different population groups.
133
**Highest viral shedding occurs at what stage?
a. Early
b. Middle
c. any d. late
a. Early
Virus may no longer be present as early as 2 days after the appearance of symptoms. However, other factors, such as the patient’s immune status or age, the type of virus, and the amount of systemic involvement, may play a role
in the length of time viral shedding is evident, allowing effective laboratory detection.
134
** Humans can serve as all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. fomites
b. reservoirs
c. Hosts d. Humans cannot serve as any of these
a. fomites
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* Reservoir hosts may be categorized into the following types:
human reservoirs
animal reservoirs
environmental reservoirs
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