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Micro lab finallll Flashcards

1
Q

enzymes that are active all the time

A

constitutive enzymes

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2
Q

enzymes that are active only periodically (when their product is required)

A

Inducible or adaptive enzymes

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3
Q

enzyme that acts inside the cell

A

Endoenzyme

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4
Q

enzymes that are secreted from the cell and work in the cell’s environment and can reach substrates in agar

A

extracellular enzymes

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5
Q

Are enzymes consumed during a reaction?

A

NO

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6
Q

Enzyme: Catalase

substrate? products? types of organisms?

A

hydrogen peroxide
water and oxygen gas
All organisms that use oxygen for respiration

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7
Q

what does a catalase do?

A

breaks down hydrogen peroxide into water and molecular oxygen

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8
Q

Where are catalases located in mammals?

A

Mitochondrial intermembrane space

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9
Q

Do anaerobic bacteria make catalase? explain

A

No, they do not produce H2O2 as a byproduct so there is no need to have an enzyme to break it down. They use fermentative metabolism instead.

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10
Q

What process generally polymerizes individual subunits into macromolecules?

A

Dehydration synthesis

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11
Q

Catalase Positive?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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12
Q

Catalase Negative?

A

Streptococcus mutans

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13
Q

Enzyme: Cytochrome c Oxidase

Substrate? Products? what type of organisms?

A

reduced form of cytochrome c
H2O or H2O2
All organisms that use oxygen for respiration

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14
Q

Cytochrome c Oxidase oxidizes and reduces what

A

oxidizes cytochrome c

reduces molecular oxygen

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15
Q

appearance of positive oxidase result?

negative?

A

Positive- purple

negative- no color change

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16
Q

Connection between cytochrome c oxidase and catalase?

A

both are made and used by aerobic respiration

cytochrome c oxidase can make H2O2 as a byproduct and catalase is used to detoxify the cell getting rid of the H2O2.

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17
Q

Oxidase postive?

A

Pseudomonas putida

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18
Q

Oxidase negative?

A

Escherichia coli

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19
Q

Cellulose: type of bonds, degraded by?

A

Held by beta (1,4) glycosidic bonds

degraded by cellulase

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20
Q

Major structural component of plants

A

cellulose

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21
Q

Starch: type of bonds, degraded by?

A

held by alpha (1,4) glycosidic bonds

degraded by amylase

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22
Q

reserve food supply for plants

A

amylase

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23
Q

commercial uses of amylase

A

detergents, makes glucose and syrup from starch

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24
Q

Enzyme: Cellulase

Substate? Product? type of organism?

A

cellulose
glucose monomers
cellulose decomposers in the soil and rotting wood (can be aerobic or anaerobic)

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25
Q

Enzyme: Amylase

Substrate? product? Type of organism?

A

starch
glucose monomers
cells that use subunits for energy or cell components

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26
Q

Appearance of Positive amylase result

A

Zone of hydrolysis after flooding with iodine

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27
Q

Positive for Amylase production?

A

Bacillus subtilis

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28
Q

Negative for amylase production?

A

Escherichia coli

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29
Q

Appearance of Cellulase growth

A

yellow color

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30
Q

chains of amino acids joined together by covalent peptide bonds

A

proteins

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31
Q

short chains of amino acids

A

peptides

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32
Q

Enzyme: Caseinase

Substrate? products?

A

Casein

Peptide chains/ amino acids

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33
Q

Type of agar used for caseinase production?

A

Milk agar

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34
Q

Appearance of positive for caseinase

A

Zone of hydrolysis

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35
Q

Positive for Caseinase production?

A

Bacillus subtilis

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36
Q

Negative for Caseinase production?

A

Escherichia coli

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37
Q

Enzyme: Gelatinas

Substrate? products?

A

gelatin

peptide/ amino acids

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38
Q

Can some human pathogens produce gelatinase?

A

YES

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39
Q

Appearance of positive for gelatinase production

A

Zone of hydrolysis

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40
Q

Positive for Gelatinase production?

A

Bacillus subtilis

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41
Q

Negative for Gelatinase production?

A

Escherichia coli

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42
Q

What do you flood the plate with for gelatinase production experiment?

A

dilute HCl

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43
Q

Why is gelatin not useful for isolating human pathogens?

A

Not useful for isolating human pathogens since it becomes liquefied during the 37°C incubation and because some microorganisms produce extracellular proteases that degrade gelatin

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44
Q

Heterotroph

A

gets carbon from the breakdown of an organic compound

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45
Q

Autotroph

A

gets carbon from air (CO2)

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46
Q

What is a source of carbon?

A

sugar

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47
Q

what is a process to make ATP?

A

Fermentation

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48
Q

Phototroph

A

gets energy from light source

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49
Q

Chemotroph

A

organism get energy from chemical source, organic source, or inorganic sources

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50
Q

Appearance of acid production

A

phenol red turns bright yellow

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51
Q

Appearance of gas production

A

bubble in the Durham tube

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52
Q

What happens to the pH surrounding an organism when fermentation occurs?

A

pH decreases

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53
Q

Positive result for fermentation

A

acid and/or gas production

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54
Q

Organisms (from the experiment) capable of fermentation (4)

A

Baciullus cereus
Escherichia coli
Citrobacter freundii
Staphylococcus epidermidis

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55
Q

What did Bacillus cereus not ferment?

A

lactose or sucrose (only glucose)

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56
Q

What did E. coli not ferment?

A

Sucrose (only glucose and lactose)

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57
Q

Why can’t hydrogen sulfide be detected in a durham tube?

A

it is extremely soluble in water. We will use the indicator ferric citrate.

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58
Q

Examples of Coliforms (3)

A

E. coli
Citrobacter freundii
Enterobacter aerogenes

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59
Q

How can you identify which plate is E. coli and which is Citrobacter freundii?

A

Do a cysteine desulfhydrase test

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60
Q

Appearance of positive cysteine desulfhydrase test

A

Black line along stab line

61
Q

Positive for cysteine desulfhydrase?

A

Citrobacter freundii

62
Q

Negative for cysteine desulfhydrase?

A

Escherichia coli

63
Q

Which type of agar deep do you stab the inoculating needle into for a cysteine desulfhydrase test?

A

Peptone ion agar deep

64
Q 
Coliforms: 
\+/-? 
endospore/non-endospore forming?
ferments lactose? 
Aerobic or anaerobic?
A

negative
non-endospore forming
ferments lactose within 24 hours at 37 degrees C
Aerobic or facultatively anaerobic

65
Q

E. coli appearance on EMB plate

A

green metallic sheen

66
Q

Enterobacter aerogenes appearance on EMB plate

A

fish eye colonies

67
Q

Why is enterobacter aerogenes not an indicator organism?

A

because it can be found naturally in decaying vegetation

68
Q

What enzyme is used in an indole test?

A

Enzyme tryptophanase breaks down amino acids tryptophan

69
Q

What type of broth is used to test for Indole

A

1% tryptone broth

70
Q

What is added to the inoculated Tryptone broth to follow up on an indole test?

A

Kovac’s reagent

71
Q

Appearance of positive indole test? Negative?

A

Red layer that floats on the broth

colorless or pale orange band appears at the top

72
Q

Methyl red is used to determine is an organism can ferment glucose by what process?

A

Mixed acid fermentation

73
Q

Appearance of positive methyl red test? Negative?

A

red color = positive mixed acid fermentation (low/acidic pH)
Yellow color= negative mixed acid fermentation (neutral pH)

74
Q

What does mixed acid fermentation mean?

A

many acids were produces and pH dropped

75
Q

Vogues-Proskaur is used to determine is an organism can ferment glucose by what process?

A

butanediol fermentation

76
Q

What do you add to the broth for a VP test?

A

alpha naphthol and 40% potassium hydroxide (KOH)

77
Q

Appearance of positive VP test

78
Q

For a citrate test, what is included in the media as a nitrogen source?

A

Ammonium phosphate

79
Q

Appearance of citrate positive test? Negative

A

Green slant turns deep blue

Green slant remains green

80
Q

Why does the slant in a citrate test turn blue?

A

it is caused by an increase in pH as organism grows and alkaline producers are formed

81
Q

E. coli: +/- for:

Indole, Methyl Red, VP, Citrate

A

+, +, -, -

82
Q

Enterobacter aerogenes: +/- for:

Indole, Methyl Red, VP, Citrate

A

-, -, +, +

83
Q

energy efficient metabolism in the absence of free oxygen

A

anaerobic respiration

84
Q

Organisms can use what as an external electron acceptor

A

sulfate, carbonate, or nitrate ions

85
Q

Series of reactions that reduce nitrate to nitrogen gas

A

denitrification

86
Q

What if the tube smells like ammonia?

A

Nitrate was able to reduce to ammonia

87
Q

What if there is gas in the Durham tube? (nitrate reduction)

A

Nitrate was able to reduce to N2 or N2O

88
Q

What if there is a red color after reagents were added? What are the reagents?

A

Nitrate was able to reduce to nitrite

alpha naphthylamine acetate and sulfanilic acid

89
Q

What if there is a red color after adding a few flakes of zinc?

A

Nitrate was not able to reduce nitrate at all

90
Q

Which organism could reduce nitrate to nitrite?

91
Q

Which organism could reduce nitrate to N2 or N2O?

A

Paracoccus denitrificans

92
Q

Which organism did not reduce nitrate at all?

A

The control

93
Q

List the steps of Nitrate Reduction in order.

A

Smell for ammonia
Check for gas bubbles
Add alpha napthylamine acetate and sulfanilic and check for red color
Add flakes zinc and check for red color

94
Q

What are two ways to obtain nitrogen?

A

Nutrients in the environment

Gaseous nitrogen from the air

95
Q

What is common to all types of nitrogen fixing bacteria? and what is it?

A

Nitrogenase enzyme complex

2 enzymes that convert gaseous nitrogen into ammonia and then into organic nitrogen

96
Q

What are the two enzymes of nitrogenous enzyme complex?

A

Dinitrogenase

Dinitrogenase reductase

97
Q

What uses a third protein that complexes with the nitrogenous enzyme complex to protect it from oxygen inactivation?

A

Azotobacter

98
Q

Has nitrogen been added to the media in Nitrogen-fixing experiment?

99
Q

Why does the use of mannitol favor Azotobacter growth?

A

It can rapidly use mannitol as a carbon/energy source while many other organisms cannot.

100
Q

Planting legumes every 4 years to replenish nitrogen in soil

A

Crop rotation

101
Q

What is added to the nutrient medium for blood agar

A

5% sterile sheep blood

102
Q

proteins that damage animal cell walls and can cause them to lyse

A

Hemolysins

103
Q

Alpha hemolysis definition and appearance on blood agar

A

incomplete lysis of blood cells

greenish color/darkening around colonies due to methemoglobin

104
Q

Beta hemolysis definition and appearance on blood agar

A

Complete lysis of red blood cell

complete clearing around colonies

105
Q

Gamma hemolysis defintion and appearance on blood agar

A

no hemolysis

no change around colonies

106
Q

cause tooth decay (alpha hemolysis)

A

Streptococcus mutans

107
Q

cause strep throat (beta hemolysis)

A

Streptococcus pyrogenes

108
Q

structures or substances produced by microorganisms that helps ability to form disease

A

Virulence factor

109
Q

lyses blood cells

A

hemolysins

110
Q

Dissolves fibrin clots in blood

A

Streptokinase

111
Q

What does the candle jar incubation facilitates?

A

optimum growth and production of hemolysins

112
Q

Appearance of Streptococcus mutans on blood agar

113
Q

Appearance of Staphylococcus epidermidis on blood agar

114
Q

What is produced in homofermentation?

A

only lactic acid

115
Q

What is produced in heterofermentation?

A

ethanol, lactic acid, and CO2

116
Q

Do most lactic acid bacteria use peroxidases or catalase to degrade H2O2?

A

peroxidases

117
Q

one species establishes themselves, followed by another species after growing conditions are rendered ideal

A

Succession

118
Q

Media that is selective for Lactobacillus due to low pH

119
Q

Difference between catalase and peroxidase?

A

both are used to get rid of toxic hydrogen peroxide but only catalase will have oxygen as a product, peroxidase uses a completely different mechanism

120
Q

recruits new cells to the biofilms and signal all members of the biofilm to form a certain compound simultaneously

A

Homeserine lactone

121
Q

Adhesion of a few cells to a surface

A

Attachment

122
Q

Growth, polysaccharide production, cell communication

A

Colonization

123
Q

objects appear with significant contrast to their surroundings due to differences in refractive index of the specimen

A

Phase Contrast

124
Q

Light passes though the specimen through the sides only

A

Dark field

125
Q

A virion is composed of?

A

nucleic acid, capsid, envelope

126
Q

viruses that infect bacteria

A

bacteriophages

127
Q

number of plaque forming units per mL

128
Q

responsible for a large percent of nosocomial infections

A

Staphylococci

129
Q

Virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus

A

B hemolysins and coagulase and exotoxin

130
Q

causes plasma to clot

131
Q

surpasses the growth of unwanted organisms while encouraging the growth of specific microbes

A

selective media

132
Q

Selective component of MSA (Mannitol Salt Agar)

133
Q

differential component of MSA

A

Mannitol and Phenol Red

134
Q

colonies that ferment mannitol (2)

A

S. aureus and S. saprophyticus

135
Q

do not ferment mannitol (2)

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

136
Q

appearance of positive mannitol fermentation

137
Q

appearance of negative mannitol fermentation

A

pale or white on a pink medium

138
Q

any intimate relationship or association of two dissimilar organism

139
Q

both populations benefit

A

mutualistic

140
Q

one population benefits, one is unaffected

A

commensalistic

141
Q

relationship benefits both populations but the association is not necessary for the survival of either species

A

Synergistic

142
Q

host is harmed, while parasite benefits

143
Q

one population produces a substance, which inhibits the growth of another organism’s population

A

Antagonistic

144
Q

cannot grow in the presence of oxygen, do not use oxygen as a final electron acceptor

A

obligate anaerobe

145
Q

exclusively anaerobic type of metabolism but they are insensitive to the presence of O2

A

Aerotolerant

146
Q

doing aerobic respiration in the presence of oxygen but also being able to do anaerobic respiration or fermentation when no oxygen is present

A

Facultative anaerobe

147
Q

requires oxygen for respiration

148
Q

prefer increased carbon dioxide and reduced oxygen tension

A

microaerophilic

Biology 2051 (4 decks)

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