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Micro KL Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Pneumocystis carinii is what kind of organism?

A

Fungi

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2
Q

DOC Giardiasis

A

Metronidazole

alt Quinacrine

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3
Q

DOC: Cryptosporidium

A

Nitazoxanide

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4
Q

DOC: Cyclospora

A

TMP SMX

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5
Q

DOC: Trichomoniasis

A

Metronidazole

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6
Q

DOC:
Hemolytic stage of Trypanosoma rhodiense
&
Late CNS stage

A

Suramin

Melarsoprol

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7
Q

DOC: Trypanosoma gambiense
Hemolytic and
Late CNS stage

A

Pentamidine

Eflornithine

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8
Q

DOC: Chargas

A

Benzimidazole

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9
Q

DOC: Leishmaniasis

A

Stibogluconate

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10
Q

DOC: Naegleria & Acanthamoeba

A

Amphotericin B

IV + Intrathecal

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11
Q

DOC: P vivax & ovale hypnozoites

A

Primaquine

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12
Q

DOC: P vivax & ovale in areas of LESS resistance

A

Chloroquine

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13
Q

Re-emergence of symptoms in malaria previously treated d/t REACTIVATION of hepatic hypnozoites

A

Relapse

V/O

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14
Q

Re-emergence of malaria symptoms in patients previously asymptomatic d/t decreased immune response with no prior treatment

A

Re-crudescence

F/M

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15
Q

DOC: P falciparum

A

Artemether

lumefantrine

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16
Q

DOC: Toxoplasma

A

Sulfadiazine +

Pyrimethamine

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17
Q

Only common protozoan pathogen found in the duodenum and jejunum of humans causing diarrhea

A

G lamblia

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18
Q

After ingestion of contaminated food or water, patient had watery greasy bulky, foul-smelling stool. probably d/t

A

Giardiasis

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19
Q

Lateral spread or invasion of amoebae in the intestine produces this characteristic histological finding

A

Flask shaped lesions

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20
Q

MC extra-intestinal amebic infection

A

Amebic liver abscess

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21
Q

Description of amebic liver abscess after drainage

A

Anchoby paste

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22
Q

MC misdiagnosed non-pathogenic amebic species

A

Entamoeba dispar

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23
Q

MC source of spread of amebic infections

A

Asymptomatic cyst passers

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24
Q

DOC for Asymptomatic amebic cyst passers

A

Diloxanide furoate

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25
Q

Unilateral swelling of the eyelids in Chagas disease

A

Romana’s sign

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26
Q

MC serious condition or complication in Chagas disease

A

Interstitial myocarditis

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27
Q

Children swimming in ponds develop progressive headache, fever, nuchal rigidity, n/v, disorientation. Causative agent:

A

Naegleria fowleri

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28
Q

Organism implicated in CNS infections d/t contaminated contact lens washing solution

A

Acanthamoeba

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29
Q

Infective stage of plasmodium transmitted from bite of anopheles mosquito

A

Sporozoites

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30
Q

Merozoites are released every 72 hours from lysed RBCs in this particular plasmodium species

A

P malariae

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31
Q

COarse stippling found in blood smears in patients with falciparum malaria

A

Maurer’s clefts/dots

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32
Q

Plasmodium species involved when only ring forms and gametocytes are found in the peripheral blood smear

A

Falciparum

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33
Q

Plasmodium that parimarily invades OLDER RBCs

A

P malariae

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34
Q

Form or variant of malaria with predominant GI manifestations like vomiting and bloody diarrhea

A

Algid malaria

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35
Q

Species implicated in cerebral malaria d/t cyto-adherence

A

Falciparum

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36
Q

Species of plasmodium associated with nephrotic syndrome in children

A

P malariae

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37
Q

Term used to describe severe falciparum malaria with RBC hemolysis causing ATN giving bloody dark urine

A

Blackwater fever

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38
Q 
All forms of malaria can be transmitted via these routes except:
A. Transplacental
B. Blood transfusion
C. Needle stick
D. Sexually
A

Sexually

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39
Q

Most helminths do NOT multiply asexually in humans except

A

E granulosus

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40
Q

Only intracellular helminth causing infection in humans

A

Trichinella inside muscle (nurse cell)

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41
Q

Parasite implicated in nocturnal perianal pruritis

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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42
Q

Method of Dx for nocturnal perianal prutitus (E vermicularis)

A

Scotch tape test

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43
Q

DOC for pinworm infection

A

Pyrantel pamoate

alt mebendazole

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44
Q

DOC for trichuriasis/whip worm

A

Mebendazole

alt albendazole

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45
Q

DOC for ascariasis

A

Mebendazole or albendazole

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46
Q

DOC for hookworm infection

A

Mebendazole or albendazole

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47
Q

DOC for strongyloides

A

Ivermectin

alt albendazole

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48
Q

DOC: trichinella

A

Albendazole

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49
Q

DOC: for cestodes infections

A

Praziquantel

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50
Q

DOC: Filariasis

A

Di-ethyl-carbamazine dec

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51
Q

DOC: Onchocerca

A

Ivermectin

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52
Q

DOC: Dracunculus medinensis

A

Physical manual extraction via stick/surgical

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53
Q

DOC: Fasciola hepatic

A

Triclabendazole/bithionol

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54
Q

DOC: Flukes

A

Praziquantel

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55
Q

DOC: Hydatid disease

A

Albendazole/surgical

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56
Q

Neuro-cysticercosis is caused by ingestion of what infective stage of Taenia solium

A

Eggs

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57
Q

Syndrome from larvael migration causing cough, eosinophilia, pulmonary infiltrates

A

Loeffler’s syndrome

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58
Q

Intesnse erythema pruritus after hookworm penetration on the skin

A

Ground itch

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59
Q

Parasite capable of producing hyperinfection, re-infection, auto-infection, where females are parthenogenic

A

Strongyloides

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60
Q

Cestode infection associated with B12 deficiency

A

D latum

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61
Q

Infective stage of D latum to man

A

Plero-cercoids

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62
Q

Term to characterized the predominant presence of micro-filariae at night in blood of patients

A

Nocturnal periodicity

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63
Q

Second intermediate host of fasciola hepatica

A

Water cress

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64
Q

2nd intermediate host of schistosoma

A

NONE

hahahhaha GOT YOU !

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65
Q

Prodrome symptoms of of headache, fever, chills, diarrhea, eosinophilia AFTER schistosoma infection

A

Katayama fever

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66
Q

Schistosoma spp whose egg contains a lateral spine

A

S mansoni

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67
Q

Itchy rash shortly after schistosomal cercariae penetrate into the skin

A

Swimmers’ itch

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68
Q

Predominant cause of pathology in schistosomiasis

A

Entrapment of eggs in organs and vascular system

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69
Q

What is the FINAL host of Echino-coccus granulosus

A

Dogs

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70
Q

Schistosoma prevalent in areas in the Philippines EXCEPT

  • Mindoro
  • Sorsogon
  • Leyte
  • Mindanao
  • Ilocos
A

Ilocos

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71
Q

Protozoan notorius for causing sexually transmitted infections associated with yellowish, copious, foul-smelling discharge

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

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72
Q

Schistosoma spp that live in mesenteric veins

A

S mansoni and japonicum

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73
Q

De-worming was done by giving mebendazole in a barangay. Which of the ff helminths will NOT be covered?

  • Trichuris
  • Ascaris
  • Hookworms
  • Trichinella
  • E vermicularis
A

Trichinella

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74
Q

Parasite with golden barrel shaped eggs with bipolar plugs

A

Trichuris

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75
Q

Congential protozoal infection causing IURG

A

Toxoplasmosis

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76
Q

DxOC in asymptomatic patients with suspected amebic liver abscess

A

Eia antibody detection

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77
Q

DxOC for differentiating pathogenic and non-pathogenic amoebae adjunct to microscopy

A

Stool antigen test

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78
Q

Helminth mostly associated with human hookworm infections

  • Necator
  • Echino-coccus
  • Toxocara
  • Ancylostoma
  • Uncinaria
A

Necator

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79
Q

2nd intermediate host of the Oriental Lung fluke

A

Crabs

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80
Q

String test can be used to diagnose which 2 parasitic infections

A

Strongyloides and giardiasis

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81
Q

COPT test is used to Dx which of the ff infections

  • Ameba
  • Giardiasis
  • Strongyloides
  • Schistosoma
A
  • Schistosoma
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82
Q

Filariasis causes swelling in what areas on women

A

Legs
Breasts
Arms

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83
Q

A person with Asx infection that can be transmitted to another person

A

Carrier

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84
Q

Ability of an infectious agent to cause disease

A

Pathogenicity

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85
Q

Quantitative ability of an agent to cause disease even in small numbers

A

Virulence

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86
Q

Unique capsule of Bacillus anthracis

A

Poly-D glutamic acid capsule

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87
Q

Infection initially starting as pruritic papule that changes rapidly to a vesicle, ulcerates, leaving a black eschar, also causes mediastinal hemorrhage and sepsis

A

Anthrax

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88
Q

DOC for anthrax

A

Ciprofloxacin

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89
Q

Bacteria assocaited with diarrrhea, vomiting after ingestion of re-heated fried rice, contaminated meat/sauces

A

Bacillus cerus

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90
Q

All of the ff conditions are caused by clostridia EXCEPT

  • Botulism
  • Tetanus
  • Gas gangene
  • Pseudomembranous colitis
  • Necrotizing fasciitis
A

Necrotizing fasciitis

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91
Q

Toxin that cleaves SNARE proteins such as snap 2, syntaxin and synaptobrevin

A

Botulinum toxin

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92
Q

After ingestion of canned goods, sudden onset of dysphagia, speech difficulty, muscle incoordination

A

Botulism

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93
Q

What toxin cleaves synaptobrevin inhibiting inhibitory neuron release or firing

A

Tetanus toxin

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94
Q

Most important aspect in the treatment of C perfringens myonecrosis or infection

A

Surgical debridement

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95
Q

All of the ff describe Clostridium spp EXCEPT

  • Gram + cocci
  • Anaerobic
  • Ferments carbohydrates and digest proteins
  • Terminal endospores
A

Gram + Bacilli

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96
Q

Bacterium with deeply staining meachromatic granules giving a beaded appearance

A

C diphtheriae

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97
Q

Exo-toxing that can inhibit EF-2 by ADP ribosylation is produced by which 2 organisms

A

Pseudomonas

C diphtheriae

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98
Q

Bullneck, grayish pseudomembrane, myocarditis, ATN, demyelination describe

A

Diphtheria

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99
Q

Early onset perinatal disseminated listeria infection causing sepsis, pustules and granulomas in multiple organs

A

Granulomatosis infantiseptic

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100
Q

DOC for Listeria infection

A

Ampicillin and

Gentamicin

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101
Q

DOC for CNS listeria who is allergic to penicillin

A

TMP SMX

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102
Q

Catalase +
Coagulase +
Gram + Cocci producing yellowish colonies

A

S aureus

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103
Q

Resistance to methicillin by S aureus is mediated by what mechanism

A

Chromosomal gene causing altered penicillin binding proteins

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104
Q

Toxin of S aureus able to lyse WBC and acts as importance virulence factor

A

Panton valentine leukocidin

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105
Q

Toxins implicated for staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

Exfoliative toxins

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106
Q

Prototypcial super antigen

A

TSST-1

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107
Q 
Gram + Cocci
Novobiocin R
Catalase +
Coagulase - 
Etiologic agent of UTI
A

S saprophiticus

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108
Q

Causative agent known to cause prosthetic infections by forming biofilms
coagulase -
catalase +

A

S epidermidis

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109
Q

5th generation cephalosporin with coverage for MRSA

A

Ceftaroline

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110
Q

Drug used to eradicate nasal carrier state of S aureus

A

Rifampin

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111
Q

MC bacteria implicated in neonatal sepsis

A

S agalactiae

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112
Q

MC implicated bacteria in dental carries

A

S mutans

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113
Q

Optochin R strep species implicated in endocarditis esp with previously damaged heart valves

A

Viridans strep

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114
Q

Bacitacin S
PYR+
strep causing significant human dse

A

S pyogenes

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115
Q

Bacitracin R strep
CAMP +
Beta hemolytic

A

S agalactiae

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116
Q

Optochin S,
Bile soluble
Quellung +
Alpha hemolytic

A

S pneumoniae

117
Q

Grows in bile and 6.5% NaCl

implicated in bacteremia among colon cancer patients

A

S bovis

118
Q

Catalase +
Coagulase -
Novobiocin S
G + cocci

A

S epidermidis

119
Q

Catalase -
Greenish hue in blood agar
Optochin R

A

Viridans strep

120
Q

Gram +
Branching filaments anaerobic
Non-acid fast

A

Actinomyces

121
Q

Gram +
Branching filaments
Aerobic
Acid fast

A

Nocardia

122
Q

Virulence factor of streptococci which induces antibodies that react with human cardiac sarcolemma implicated in Rheumatic fever

A

M protein

123
Q

Also known as spreading factor of streptococci causing breakdown in the ground substance of connective tissues

A

Hyaluronidase

124
Q

Superantigen produced by streptococci capable of producing toxic shock syndrome

A

Pyrogenic exoteoxins a b c

125
Q

ASO titer cutoff suggestive of recent streptococcal infection

A

160-200 units

126
Q

Agent responsible for the hemolytic zones around strep colongies on blood agar

A

Streptolysin S

127
Q

All of the ff infections are caused by S pyogenes EXCEPT

  • Impetigo
  • Erysipelas
  • Cellulitis
  • Necrotizing fasciitis
  • Scarlet fever
  • Pharyngitis
  • None
A

NONE

S pyogenes causes all of those

128
Q

MC infection caused by group A Beta hemolytic streptococci

A

Pharyngitis

129
Q

Stretococcal skin infection/impetigo could lead to this autoimmune complication

A

Glomerulonephritis

130
Q

Post streptococcal disease commonly proceeded by a streptococcal URTI

A

Rheumatic fever

131
Q

Post streptococcal disease commonly preceeded by a streptococcal URTI

A

1-4 weeks

132
Q

Most serious sequelae of S pyogenes infection

A

Rheumatic fever

133
Q

Post streptococcal disease NOT associated with cutaneous strep infection

A

Rheumatic fever

134
Q

Serologic tests more specific for streptococcal cutaneous infections

A

Anti-DNAse B and

Anti-hyaluronidase

135
Q

DOC for S pyogenes infection

A

Pen G

136
Q

Most prevalent component of the normal flora of the URT

A

Viridans strep

137
Q

Gram + Lancet shaped diplococci in chains with

polysaccharide capsule

A

S pneumoniae

138
Q

Bacteremia from S pneumonia causes a triad of these complications

A

Endocarditis
Meningitis
Septic arthritis

139
Q

DOC for mild pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin

140
Q

DOC for enterococcal infections

A

Ampi

Genta

141
Q

Main virulence factor of S pneumoniae

A

Polysaccharide capsule

142
Q 
Non motile 
Non lactose fermenter 
No gas from dextrose 
No H2S production
G - Rod 
Invasive GI disease
A

Shigella

143
Q

Swarming motility
Urease +
etiologic agent of UTI causing alkaline urine

A

Proteus

144
Q

Iridescent metallic sheen on EMB
Spot indole +
MUG +
Frequent cause of UTI

A

E coli

145
Q 
Pinkish mucoid colonies
Non motile 
Citrate +
Lysine decarboxylase + 
cause of pneumonia
A

Kliebsiella pneumoniae

146
Q

MCC UTI overall

A

E coli

147
Q

E coli subtype that causes diarrhea in infants esp in nurseries and day care centers

A

E-P-EC

148
Q

E coli subtype that causes traveller’s diarrhea

A

E-T-EC

149
Q

E coli subtype causing HUS, hemorrhagic colitis

A

E-H-EC

Shiga toxin producing E coli

150
Q

Virulence factor associated with strains if E coli causing meningitis

A

K-1 antigen

151
Q

DOC for bacillary dysentery/shigella

A

Ciprofloxacin

152
Q

MC manifestation of salmonella infections

A

Enterocolitis

153
Q

Gold standard for Dx of typhoid fever

A

BM culture

154
Q

Hemorrhagic necrosis of the skin often caused by P aeruginosa sepsis

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum

155
Q

Sudden onset of n/v and rice watery voluminous diarrhea

A

Cholera

156
Q

Antibiotic given to reduce stool output and shedding of Vibrios

A

Tetracycline or

Doxycycline

157
Q

Following infection of this organism, there is an associated incidence ofGuillain Barre syndrome and Reiter’s Syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

158
Q

Preferred tx regimen for H pylori

A

Omeprazole
Clarithromycin
Amoxicillin

159
Q

Term used to describe the fact that H influenze does NOT grow on sheep blood agar except around colonies of S aureus

A

Satellite phenomenon

160
Q

Factors needed for H influenze

A 
Factor X (hemin)
Factor V (NAD)
161
Q

Specific capsular structure of H influenzae

A

Poly-ribitol Ribose Phosphate

162
Q

Major virulence factor of H influenzae

A

Capsule

163
Q

Causative agent of epiglottitis

A

H influenzae

164
Q

Etiologic agent of soft chancre of chancroid with ragged ulcer with marked swelling and tenderness of LN

A

H ducreyi

165
Q

Toxins with APD ribosylating activities increasing cAMP activity

A

Pertussis

Cholera toxins

166
Q

DOC for bordetella pertussis

A

Erythromycin

167
Q

Vaginal discharge

Smear shows intracellular G - diplococci and PMNs

A

N gonorrhea

168
Q

Neisseria spp utilizing both glucose and maltose

A

N meningitidis

169
Q

Toxicity of gonococcal infections are largely attributed to the endotoxic effect of this cell wall component

A

LOS

Lipo-oligo-saccharide

170
Q 
Young adult with high risk sexual activity 
Severe infection
Fever
Abdominal pain 
Hemorrhagic papules and pustules 
Septic arthritis
A

Disseminated gonococcal infection

171
Q

Infection prevented by instituion of Crede’s Prophylaxis

A

Ophthalmia neonatorum

172
Q

Agent used in Crede’s prophylaxis

A

Silver nitrate

173
Q

DOC gonorrhea

A

IM ceftriaxone

Oral cefixime

174
Q

Given concomitantly with tx of gonorrhea to cover for chlamydia

A

Azithromycin

175
Q

Portal of entry and site of colonization for N meningitidis

A

Nasophyarnx

176
Q

MC complication of meningococcemia

A

Meningitis

177
Q

DOC for meningococcal disease

A

Pen G

178
Q

MC isolated rapidly growing mycobacteria from pulmonary, skin and soft tissue infections

A

Mycobacterium abscessus

179
Q

Virulence factor of mycobacteria inhibiting migration of leukocytes and causing chronic granulomas

A

Cord factor

180
Q

Virulence factor of mycobacteria that prevents phagolysosome fusion

A

Sulfatide

181
Q

Tuberculosis usually found in the apical segments of the lung

A

Reactivation or secondary TB

182
Q

Dx test used to detect latent TB in patients with equivocal TST

A

IGRA interferon gamma release assay

183
Q

Mycobacterium classification that produces pigment in light and NOT dark conditions

A

Photochromogen

184
Q

MDR resistance of TB referes to resistance to which drugs

A

INH

Rifampicin

185
Q

XDR resistance of TB refers to

A 
INH
Rifampicin 
Quinolone 
1 of 3 injectable 
- Amikacin 
- Capreomycin 
- Kanamycin
186
Q

MC extracellular form of TB infection

A

TB lymphadenitis

187
Q

Photochromogen almost indistinguishable in presentation from TB

A

M kansasii

188
Q

Mycobacterium other than TB involved in opportunistic infections of the lung in patients with AIDS

A

MAC

189
Q

Mycobacterium causing skin nodules, neuritis, paresthesias, madarosis, disfigurement

A

M leprae

190
Q

Dse with painLESS genital ulcer with clear hard base

A

Syphilis

191
Q

Stage of syphilis with condylomata lata

A

Secondary syphilis

192
Q

Refers to granulomatous lesion in the skin, bones and liver in tertiary syphilis

A

Gumma

193
Q

All of the ff symptoms/signs are manifestations of congenital syphilis EXCEPT

  • Interstitial keratitis
  • Hutchinson’s teeth
  • Saddle nose
  • Saber shins
  • PDA
A

PDA

194
Q

Non-treponemal tests used for screening for syphilis EXCEPT

  • RPR
  • USR
  • VDRL
  • Trust
  • TP-PA
A

TP-PA

195
Q

All of the specific treponemal tests EXCEPT

  • TP PA
  • TP HA
  • MHA-TP
  • FTA- ABS
  • None of the above
A

None

196
Q

DOC syphilis

A

Penicillin

197
Q

Fever
Tachycardia
Flu like SSx
after initiating treatment for syphilis

A

Jarisch Herxheimer Reaction

198
Q 
Jaundice 
Fever 
Conjunctival suffusion 
Calf pain 
Renal failure 
After exposure to organisms through breaks in the skin
A

Leptospirosis

199
Q

DOC for leptospirosis

A

Penicillin

200
Q

Refers to the environmentally stable infective particle of chlamydia

A

Elementary body

201
Q

MCC of non-gonococcal urethritis

A

Chlamydia

202
Q

Eary childhood onset of lacrimation, mucupurulent eye discharge, hyperemia, pannus and entropion formation

A

Trachoma

203
Q

DxOC for chlamydia

A

NAAT

204
Q

STI with suppurative inguinal adenitis in chlamydial infection

A

Lympho-granuloa venereum

205
Q

What is the trigger for DIC

  • Hageman factor
  • Factor 5
  • Factor 7
  • Gram - sepsis
A

G - sepsis

206
Q

All are obligate aerobic bacteria except

  • Nocardia
  • Pseudomonas
  • Mycobacterium TB
  • Actinomyces
A

Actinomyces

207
Q

Causes of native valve endocarditis, esp in IV drug users

A

S aureus

208
Q

Causative agent implicated in bacterial vaginosis

A

Gardernella vaginalis

209
Q

MCC of meningitis overall

A

S pneumoniae

210
Q

MCC nosocomial UTI

A

E coli

211
Q

MCC neonatal meningitis

A

Group B streptococci

212
Q

Chlamydia prophylaxis given in pregnany mothers to prevent pneumonia newborns

A

Azithromycin

Amoxicillin

213
Q

Fulminant menigococcemia leading to hemorrage of adrenal grands

A

Waterhouse Friederichsen syndrome

214
Q 
CSF increased Protein 77
Normal glucose
100 WBC w/neutrophil prodominance 
Culture - 
Gram stain -
A

Aseptic meningitis

215
Q

Duration of treatment for extra-pulmonary TB

A

6 months

CNS 9-12 months

216
Q

DOC leptospirosis prophylaxis

A

Doxycycline

217
Q

DOC H influenzae meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone

218
Q

Special lipids in the mycobacterial cell wall responsivle for acid fastness

A

Mycolitic acid

219
Q

aka Gram negative ENDO-toxin

A

Lipo-poly-saccharide

LPS

220
Q

Bacteria w/no cell wall where penicillins are ineffective

A

Mycoplasma

221
Q

All of the ff organisms do NOT stain well w/gram stain EXCEPT

  • Trponema
  • Mycoplasma
  • Legionella
  • Dickettsia
  • Chlamydia
  • Haemophilus
A

Haemophilus stains well on GS

222
Q

All are Catalase + EXCEPT

  • Pseudomonas
  • S aueres
  • Listeria
  • Aspergillus
  • Candida
  • Serratia
  • E coli
  • Streptococci
A

Streptococci

223
Q

Virulence factor of S aureus that prevents opsonization

A

Protein A

224
Q

Organisms the secrete IgA protease

A

S pneumo
HiB
Neisseriae

225
Q

Organisms that secretes ALPHA toxin acting as lecithinase degrading tissue and cell membranes

A

C perfringens

226
Q

Only gram + organism that produces LPS

A

Listeria

227
Q

Oxidase +
Comma shaped
Grow in 42 C
Diarrhea

A

Campylobacter jejuni

228
Q

Causes lobar pneumonia among alcoholics with currant jelly sputum

A

Kliebsiella pneumonia

229
Q

Severe form of Leptospirosis with liver and kidney failure, pulmonary hemorrhage

A

Weil’s disease

230
Q

All of the ff organisms cause STI EXCEPT

  • Gardnerella vaginalis
  • Trichomonas vaginalis
  • Treponema pallidum
  • H ducreyi
A

Bacterial vaginosis is NOT sexually transmitted

231
Q

Convential infection triad

  • Chorioretinitis
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Intra cranial calcifications
A

Toxoplasmosis

232
Q

Congenital infection causing PDA, cataract, deafness, and blueberry muffin rash

A

Rubella aka GERMAN 3 day measles

if w/seizures + petechial rash, consider CMV

233
Q

Congenital infection causing hearing loss, seizures, petechial rash, blueberry muffin rash

A

CMV

if w/o seizures, consider Rubella/German 3 day measles

234
Q

All are live attenuated vaccines EXCEPT

  • Smallpox
  • Yellow fever
  • Chicken pox
  • Sabin polio
  • MMR
  • Intranasal influenza
  • Hep B
A

Hep B

235
Q

All RNA viruses are SINGLE stranded except

A

Reo-viridae

236
Q

All of the ff are POSITIVE ss RNA viruses EXCEPT

  • Retro
  • Toga
  • Flavi
  • Corona
  • Hep E
  • Calici
  • Picorna
  • Orthomyxo
A

Orthomyxo

237
Q

All of the ff are DNA viruses EXCEPT

  • Hepadna
  • Herpes
  • Filoviridae
  • Pox
  • Papilloma
  • Polyoma
  • Adenovirus
A

Filo-viridae

238
Q

All DNA viruses are DOUBLE stranded EXCEPT

A

Parvo-virus

239
Q

All negative sense RNA viruses are enveloped + helical EXCEPT

A

Corona-virus

  • Positive sense
  • Helical
  • Enveloped
240
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus EXCEPT

A

Pox

241
Q

All RNA viruses replicated in the cytoplasm EXCEPT

A

Influenza

Retro

242
Q

All DNA viruses are icosahedral EXCEPT

A

Pox

243
Q

All DNA viruses are enveloped EXCEPT

A

Picorna
Calici
Reo
Hepe

244
Q

Which of the ff is a negative sense RNA enveloped helical virus

  • Herpes
  • Rhabdo
  • Caliciviridae
  • Papilloma
A

Rhabdo

245
Q

Causes 5th disease aka

Erythema infectiosum w slapped cheeks appearance

A

Parvo B19

246
Q

Causes

  • Pharyngoconjunctival fever,
  • Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
  • Hemorrhagic cystitis
A

Adeno virus

247
Q

Agent for Roseola infantum aka exanthem subitum

A

HHV 6

248
Q

Contains reverse transcriptase

NOT a retrovirus

A

Heb B virus

249
Q

Progressive multifocal leuko-encephalopathy in AIDS patients is probably d/t

A

JC virus

250
Q

Heterophile monospot negative
Infectious mononucleosis retinitis
Owl’s eye inclusions
aka HHV 5

A

CMV

251
Q

Infectious mononucleosis
Burkitt’s Lymphoma
Hodgkin’s lymphoma
HHV 4

A

EBV

252
Q

Smear or test of skin vesicle to detect multinucleated giant cells in HERPES

A

Tzanck smear

253
Q

Reoviridae virus w/ double stranded RNA virus

Major causative agent of infectious diarrhea in children

A

Rota-virus

254
Q

ff are members of Picornaviridae family

  • Polio
  • Echo
  • Rhino
  • Cocksackie
  • Hep A
  • Hep E
A

Hep E

255
Q

Members of paramyxoviridae

  • Rubella
  • Parainfluenza
  • Mumps
  • RSV
  • Roseola
A

Rubella

256
Q

Causes Croup or Laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis among children

A

Parainfluenza virus

257
Q

MCC common cold

Acid labile viruses

A

Rhinovirus

258
Q

All are segmented viruses EXCEPT

  • Adenovirus
  • Bunyavirus
  • Orthovirus
  • arena
  • Reo
A

Adeno

259
Q

Component of influenza virus promoting viral entry

A

Hemagluttinin

260
Q

Component of influenza virus involved with progeny viral release

A

Neuraminidase

261
Q

Fever, post auricular lymphadenopathy, arthralgias,
Fine maculopapular rash
- Face –> trunk –> extremities

A

Rubella

262
Q 
Cough
Conjunctivitis 
Runny nose 
Maculopapular rash (diffuse)
Koplik's spots
A

Rubeola

aka MEASLES

263
Q

Parotitis
Orchitis
Aseptic meningitis

A

Mumps

264
Q

Only Hep B serological marker POSITIVE during window period

A

IgM Anti HBC

265
Q

Hep B antigen indicating HIGH replicative activity and risk for transmission

A

HBe antigen

266
Q

HIV protein for attachment to CD4 lymphocytes

A

Gp 120

267
Q

HIV protein for fusion and entry into cells

A

GP 41

268
Q

Used to monitor the effect of anti-retroviral therapy and associated with poorer prognosis if elevated in HIV/AIDS

A

HIV PCR viral load

269
Q

CD4 count level which PCP prophylaxis should be initiated in AIDS

A

CD4

270
Q

Opportunistic dse to watch out for specifically as the CD4 count goes down to less than 50 in AIDS

A

MAC
CMV
Cryptococcus neoformans

271
Q

Virus implicated in viral myocarditis

A

Cocksachie B virus

272
Q

Plant pathogens or blotches in fruits consisting of RNA which do NOT cause human dse

A

Viroids

273
Q

Viral Hemorrhagic fever is cause by (3)

A

Ebola
Marburg
Dengue

274
Q

Hepatitis implicated to cause

  • Hepatocellular Ca,
  • Cirrhosis and
  • Chronic carrier state
A

Heb B

275
Q

Transplacental transmission EXCEPT

  • Rubella
  • CMV
  • HSV
  • VZV
  • Toxoplasma
A

Toxoplasma

276
Q

Contraindicated vaccines for pregnant pts

  • Hep B
  • Tetanus
  • MMR
  • Influenza
A

MMR

277
Q

All systemic mycoses are caused by Di-morphic fungi EXCEPT

A

Coccidioidomyosis

278
Q

Systemic fungal infection causing

  • Inflammatory lung dse
  • with skin and bone involvement,
  • broad based budding under microscopy
A

Blastomycosis

279
Q

Systemic mycosis with Captain’s/Mariner’s Wheel

A

Paracoccidioido mycosis

280
Q

Causative agent of Tinea versicolor with spaghetti and meatballs presentation microscopically

A

Malasszia furfur

281
Q

Soap bubble lesions in the brain,
Meningitis in HIB,
India ink +

A

Crytococcal meningitis

282
Q

Infection of the hair with this species causes a greenish fluorescence under wood’s light

A

Microsporum (ECTO-thrix)

283
Q

MC severe complication of measles

A

Secondary pneumonia

284
Q

MC complication of measles

A

Otitis media

285
Q

Long term complication of measles caused by measles reactivation in the CNS, leading to demylination and myoclonic seizures

A

SSPE

286
Q

Hepatitis viruses transmitted via the fecal oral route

A

Hep A

Hep E

287
Q

Most important cause of epidemic viral gastroenteritis in ADULTS

A

Noro-virus

Norwalk virus

288
Q

Leading cause of viral encephalitis in ASIA

A

Japanese B encephalitis

TN Microbiology (9 decks)

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