Micro Final Old Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

microbe

A

a living organism that requires a microscope to be seen

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2
Q

What differentiates prokaryotic from Eukaryotic?

A

absence of membrane bound organelles

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3
Q

What tool was critically for advancing the germ theory?

A

microscope

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4
Q

Viruses and cells always contains?

A

DNA or RNA

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5
Q

Beneficial products of microorganisms

A

1.Nitrogen Fixation
2.Synthesis of vitamins
3.production of fermented foods

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6
Q

Germ Theory

A
  • disease is caused by transmissible germs
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7
Q

A microbe that causes sickness in healthy people is what?

A

primary pathogen

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8
Q

Koch’s Postulate

A
  1. Pathogen isolated from disease host
    2.Pathogen grown in pure culture
    3.pathogen introduced into healthy host and disease occurs
  2. Same pathogen is isolated in newly infected diseased host
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9
Q

What thing can’t be grown in a pure culture and can pass through tiny-pored filter

A

virus

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10
Q

During which phase of an infectious disease do disease symptoms begin to subside

A

decline phase

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11
Q

The ability of the microbe to cause disease

A

pathogenicity

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12
Q

Relationship between the microbiota and the human host

A

mutualistic

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13
Q

What impact will deforestation for a new suburban housing project have on disease transmissibility?

A

It will bring vectors and reservoirs closer to humans

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14
Q

Sequelae

A

A condition that arises from the complication of a previous disease

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15
Q

Virulence

A

degree of severity of a disease

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16
Q

symptom

A

something felt only by a patient

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17
Q

parenteral route

A

Pathogen enters the body through insect bite or needle injection

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18
Q

Classes of cytoskeletal Proteins

A
  1. intermediate filament
    2.Actin Filament
    3.Microtubules
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19
Q

Microaerophiles

A

they need oxygen for growth but lack enough enzymes needed to detoxify reactive oxygen species

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20
Q

Pilus

A

-a protein extension that allows for the transfer of DNA between two bacteria

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21
Q

Ribosomes are associated with which endomembrane organelle

A

endoplasmic reticulum

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22
Q

Psychrophile

A

10-20 degrees

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23
Q

Mesophile

A

20-40 degrees

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24
Q

Thermophiles

A

40-50 degrees

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25
Q

Hyperthermophiles

A

70-100 degrees

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26
Q

autotroph

A

produces carbohydrates

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27
Q

heterotroph

A

breaks down carbohydrate to generate CO2

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28
Q

Lithotroph

A

organism gains it’s energy from the oxidation of ferrous iron to ferric acid and hydrogen sulfide to sulfuric acid

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29
Q

Why are biofilms formed?

A

attach to a surface in an area where food is plentiful

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30
Q

Why do strict anaerobes die in oxygen?

A

They are vulnerable to ROS

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31
Q

What is needed for endospore formation?

A

1.peptidoglycan synthesis
2.Acid Synthesis
3.Calcium Transport
Not exopolysaccharide formation

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32
Q

LD50 means what

A

-lethal dose at 50% mortality

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33
Q

paramecium is classified as what

A

ciliate

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34
Q

What is a unique feature of the influenza viruse genome

A

a segmented RNA genome

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35
Q

Protease inhibitors are common antiviral drug targeting

A

HIV

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36
Q

Tissue Tropism

A

the range of tissue types a virus can infect

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37
Q

Which of these models of action of antivirals would have the broadest spectrum of activity: disruption of viral mRNA,DNA synthesis disruption, enzymes to degrade reverse transriptase, and membrane disruption

A

disruption of mRNA

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38
Q

The host range of a virus depends on which host factor

A

the specific surface receptors found on host cells

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39
Q

Blocking this enzyme/process would have little to no effect on influenza

A

DNA Polymerase

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40
Q

In the lifecycle of a tropanosome, which form proliferates within the definitive host

A

slender

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41
Q

How are cells damaged during a virus infection?

A

Replication and subsequent release of virus particles can lead to impairment of cellular function or cell destruction

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42
Q

Which mechanism does an ameba use for locomotion?

A

pseudopods

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43
Q

Why must the genome of HPV enter the nucleus for replication?

A

The DNA genome of HPV can only be replicated in the nucleus where host DNA polymerase is found

44
Q

an enveloped virus obtains its envelope from what

A

the host cell

45
Q

Which of the following would most likely to stop transmission of plasmodium falciparum and P. Vivax to humans: access to clean drinking water, providing mosquito netting, checking for ticks after waling in wooded areas, and eliminating bedbugs from sleeping quarters

A

Mosquito net

46
Q

Ameba proteus, a lobed ameba, most likely moves using what?

A

cytoplasmic streaming

47
Q

single celled eukayotic microbe proliferating by mitosis is undergoing what?

A

asexual reproduction

48
Q

After budding of new influenza virions, the host cell does what?

A

is destroyed

49
Q

After phage genetics have integrated into the bacterial chromosome, the phage is called a what?

A

prophage

50
Q

when comparing sexual to asexual reproduction, the advantage of sexual reproduction is what?

A

increases genetic diversity, which may be useful in a changing environment

51
Q

An infectious particle with an RNA genome and no capsid

A

viroids

52
Q

Viruses can infect what?

A

bacteria, eukaryotic cells, and archea

53
Q

What is caused by misfolded protein?

A

1.Creutzfeidt-Jakob disease
2.Kuru
3.Scrapie

54
Q

The function of apical complex on a merozoite form of plasmodium falciparum is to do what

A

to allow the merozoite to enter RBCs

55
Q

Segmented Influenza RNA Genome is capable of what?

A

reassortment

56
Q

Which of the following stages of the influenza infection cycle is inhibited by tamiflu?

A

the cleaving of the host receptor and release of the virus by budding

57
Q

West Nile Virus is capable of of infecting many different organisms. This means it is a what?

A

has a broad host range

58
Q

Why is it harder to treat an infection in an human caused by eukaryotic microbes than it is to treat bacterial infections?

A

The cells found in fungi and humans are more similar to one another than cells of bacteria and humans

59
Q

Some human aspergillus and histoplasmosis infection is caused by what?

A

inhalation of fungal spores

60
Q

The blood parasite babesia microti causes what?

A

Babesiosis

61
Q

Prion disease can be acquired by what?

A
  1. the misfolding of an endogenous protein
  2. genetic inheritance
    3.transmission by an infectious protein
62
Q

What type of bacteriophage infection results in imediate death of the host cell?

A

Lytic

63
Q

Trypanosoma Brucei that causes african sleeping sickness is carried by what?

A

tsetse flies

64
Q

Anthropods include what of the following: fleas, lice, mites, tapeworm

A

fleas, lice, mites

65
Q

Why are their so few antiviral agents compared to antibacterial agents?

A

viruses use function of the host to replicate themselves, so achieving selective toxicity id difficult

66
Q

Why are so few HIV virons released in the blood are actually infectious?

A

reverse transcriptase has a high error rate

67
Q

A good target for antifungals is what

A

ergosterol synthesis, a cholesteral specific fungi

68
Q

What enzyme ensures HIV infection is permanent?

A

integrase

69
Q

If the hemagglutinin spike were removed from the influenza viral envelope, then the virus would not be able to do what?

A

integrase

70
Q

How is HPV able to keep its genome so small?

A

overlapping reading frames

71
Q

What process is used to remove pathogens from hospital beds?

A

disinfection

72
Q

Why does it take so long for H2O2 to remove blood?

A

This type of disinfection procedure is best completed at colder temperatures

73
Q

Standard conditions for sterilization at 121 degrees Celsius and 15 psi for 20 minutes

A

autoclaving

74
Q

What is the purpose of low temperatures

A

inhibit growth
stop microbial metabolism
preserve microorganism
NOT KILL

75
Q

What kind of sterilization doesn’t use heat?

A

filtration

76
Q

HAART is used to treat what?

A

HIV

77
Q

What is a good target for antifungal and is a cholesteral specific fungi

A

ergosterol

78
Q

What in a cell wall gives bacteria gives selective toxicity

A

peptidoglycan

79
Q

The trachea has how much bacteria

A

10-100 bacteria per 1,000

80
Q

What is carried out by microbes in the SI

A

-digestion
-immune system stimulation
-promotion of tissue development

81
Q

anerobes colonize an infants mouth when?

A

once teeth emerge

82
Q

P.aeroginosa in the lungs of a patient with cystic fibrosis is what?

A

biofilm

83
Q

Streptococcus mutans and streptococcussalivarius adhering to oral surfaces is what?

A

biofilm

84
Q

Vegetation of a patient with a heart murmur is what

A

Biofilm

85
Q

Faecalibacterium prausnitsil and bacteroides thetaiotaomicrom are involved with what?

A

butyrate and metabolism of complex carbohydrates

86
Q

Lipopolysacharides, flagelin, and double stranded DNA are microbe- associated molecular patterns recognized by what

A

pattern recognition receptors

87
Q

Why do people take probiotics?

A

restore balance to the microbial community

88
Q

Which microbe resevoir has largest anerobe to aerobe ratio

A

intestines

89
Q

Which of the following can affect a fetus?
Influenza, Listeria Monocytogenes, S. Aureus, Hep A

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

90
Q

a germ free animal is more or less susceptible to pathogen infection?

A

more

91
Q

What is used to study microbiota relationships in the labratory?

A

gnotobiotic animals

92
Q

Blood brain barrier is composed of what?

A

really tight junctions

93
Q

Why is it hard to trait an infection in the brain?

A

-abx can’t penetrate blood brain barrier

94
Q

What organism can cross the blood brain barrier

A

neisseriameningitidis

95
Q

In an AB subunit A is responsible for what and B is responsible for what

A

A=toxicity
B=binding to target cells

96
Q

What are some toxins

A

-superantigens
-Ab toxins
-Plasma membrane disruption toxin

97
Q

What are ways for bacteria to evade phagocytic digestion

A

1.escape
2.inhibiting lysosome and phagozome fusion
3.Survival in phagosome

98
Q

genes of what evolved, duplicated, and mutated to serve protein secretion mechanisms

A

-pili

99
Q

Why are biofilms important clinically

A

biofilms can persist against host defenses

100
Q

How can shigella and listeria are able to move cell to cell without being detected by the host immune system?

A

they produce an actin tail that propels them cell to cell

101
Q

Pathogenicity island

A

-a segmented genome that increases the fitness of a pathogen during interaction with the host cell

102
Q

What does E. Coli labile toxin do?

A

-an AB toxin
-reverse the absorption process in intestines
-causes severe diarhea

103
Q

capsule

A

-a thick polysacharide layer that envelopes a bacteria cell and enables it to avoid host’s immune system

104
Q

Most pathogenicity islands are aquired by what?

A

horizontal gene transfer

105
Q

Transduction

A

a bacterial cell infected by a phage and incorporates the phage genome into it’s own