micro final Flashcards by Alexandra Ochs

All of the following are characteristics or components of innate immunity except _____.
Toll-like receptors
nonspecific
mucociliary escalator
mechanical barriers
memory

memory

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The cells of the epidermis contain _____, a waterproofing protein that provides strength to the outer layer of skin.

keratin

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All of the following contain lysozyme except_____.
saliva
stomach acid
perspiration
tears
urine

stomach acid

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All of the following are examples of granulocytes except _____.
B lymphocytes
mast cells
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils

B lymphocytes

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During parasitic infections and allergy, the number of circulating _____ increases significantly.

eosinophils

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_____ differentiate into macrophages at sites of inflammation.

monocytes

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Which of the following is a mismatched pair?
lung: alveolar macrophages
liver: Kupffer cells
epidermis: dendritic cells
microglial cells: spleen
blood: monocytes

microglial cells: spleen

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Dendritic cells located in the skin are referred to as _____.

Langerhans cells

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Which of the following is not a outcome of complement activation?
membrane attack complex
inflammation
histamine release
opsonization
iron depletion

iron depletion

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Which of the following is not a trigger of vasodilation?
kinin
histamine
leukotriene
prostaglandin
leukocyte endogenous mediator

leukocyte endogenous mediator

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The combination of complement proteins C5 to C9 is known as

the membrane attack complex

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The classical pathway for activation of the complement cascade requires

antigen-antibody complexes

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Which are the first to arrive at an infection site?

neutrophils

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The characteristics of cytokines include all of the following except

phagocytic activity

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Tears contain…
lysozyme
all of the answers are correct
lipocalin
none of the answers are correct
IgA

all

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The function of the mucocilliary escalator is to

remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory tract

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Non-specific defense is…
The bodies lack of resistance to infection
The body’s defenses against all pathogens
The body’s defense against a particular pathogen
None of the choices

The bodies defenses against all pathogens

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Neutrophils attach to the blood capillary linings and move out of the blood and into tissues in a process known as

diapedesis

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The innate response includes all of the following except
A. Phagocytosis
B. Inflammation
C. Production of antibody
D. Production of interferon
E. Activation of complement

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Which of the following is not a mechanical barrier to
protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection?
A. Lysozyme
B. Tears
C. Layers of cells
D. Saliva
E. Gastric juice

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The function of the mucociliary escalator is to
A. Kill microorganisms
B. Remove microorganisms from the upper respiratory
tract
C. Remove microorganisms from body cavities
D. Remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory
tract
E. All of the above

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Tears contain
A. Lipocalin
B. Lysozyme
C. IgA
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

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Perspiration inhibits bacteria because
A. It contains mucus
B. It contains IgA
C. It contains lysozyme
D. It flushes them away
E. Both C and D are correct

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Toll-like receptors are used by the immune system to distinguish between

viruses and bacteria
self and nonself
alive and dead cells
toxins and nutrients
eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells

self and nonself

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All of the following cells are involved in the innate response except A. Neutrophils B. Eosinophils C. Basophils D. Monocytes E. Lymphocytes

Neutrophils attach to the vascular linings and move out of the blood and into the tissues in a process known as A. Intravascular clotting B. Selection C. Diapedesis D. Margination E. None of the above

The primary phagocytes in the blood are A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Lymphocytes D. Monocytes E. Neutrophils

Margination is the process in which white blood cells A. Separate from red blood cells B. Leave the blood vessels C. Produce selectin D. Slow down, stop, and attach to vessel walls E. Speed up and attach to vessel walls

The most phagocytic white blood cells are A. Neutrophils B. Macrophages C. Basophils D. Monocytes E. Lymphocytes

Macrophages located in the liver are called A. Alveolar macrophages B. Dendrites C. Microglial cells D. Kupffer cells E. None of the above

Macrophages located in the central nervous system are called A. Alveolar macrophages B. Dendritic macrophages C. Microglial cells D. Kupffer cells E. None of the above

The characteristics of cytokines include all of the following except A. Regulation of inflammation response B. Secretion from white blood cells C. Reaction with specific receptors on target cells D. Phagocytic activity E. Having overlapping functions with other cytokines

Mediators released by mast cells include A. Histamine B. Serotonin C. Cytokines D. Proteases E. All of the above

Dendritic cells found in the skin are called A. Langerhans cells B. Kupffer cells C. Microglial cells D. None of the above

Natural killer cells are A. Restricted to immune surveillance of tumors B. Part of the adaptive immune response C. Involved in both surveillance of tumors and response to pathogens D. Restricted to destruction of pathogens

The sequence of phases in phagocytosis is A. Ingestion, chemotaxis, adherence, digestion, excretion B. Digestion, adherence, chemotaxis, ingestion, excretion C. Chemotaxis, ingestion, adherence, digestion, excretion D. Chemotaxis, adherence, digestion, ingestion, excretion E. Chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, excretion

Phagolysosomes are formed during which phase of phagocytosis? A. Ingestion B. Chemotaxis C. Digestion D. Adherence E. Excretion

Redness, pain, heat, and swelling are hallmarks of A. Phagocytosis B. Vasoconstriction C. An anti-inflammatory response D. An inflammatory response E. Intravascular clotting

The acute-phase response is seen only in A. Recovering patients B. Patients with no visible signs of infection C. Acutely ill patients D. Patients who are immune E. Patients who are immunodeficient

C (sudden)

Fever is caused by chemicals known as A. Pyretics B. Intravascular clotting factors C. Pyrogens D. Pyrotechnics E. None of the above

The complement system is activated by A. The alternative pathway B. The restriction pathway C. The lectin-binding pathway D. A and C E. None of the above

The classical pathway for activation of the complement system requires A. A phagocytic response B. Mannose-binding ligands C. Factor D D. Antigen–antibody complexes E. Properdin

The combination of complement proteins C5 to C9 is known as A. The terminal complex B. The defense complex C. The membrane defense complex D. The membrane attack complex E. None of the above

The alternative pathway for activation of the complement system is initiated at protein A. C1 B. C2 C. C6 D. C3 E. C1–C2–C4 complex

the loss of which barrier makes burns victims most vulnerable to infection skin lysozyme mucocilliary escalator saliva

skin

Gamma interferon is produced by A. T lymphocytes B. T lymphocytes and NK cells C. T lymphocytes, NK cells, and neutrophils D. NK cells E. NK cells and neutrophils

Which are the first cells to arrive at an infection site A. Neutrophils B. Macrophages C. Basophils D. Monocytes E. Lymphocytes

neutrophils

Mannose binding protein is involved in complement activation in A The classical pathway B The alternative pathway C Neither the classical or alternative pathway D Both the classical and alternative pathway

Factors B and D are involved in complement activation in A The classical pathway B The alternative pathway C Neither the classical or alternative pathway D Both the classical and alternative pathway

C3 is involved in complement activation in A The classical pathway B The alternative pathway C Neither the classical or alternative pathway D Both the classical and alternative pathway

C2 and C4 is involved in complement activation in A The classical pathway B The alternative pathway C Neither the classical or alternative pathway D Both the classical and alternative pathway

Derived from myeloid stem cell is true for A) neutrophils B) basophils C) both D) neither

Directly involved in inflammation is true for A) neutrophils B) basophils C) both D) neither

Directly involved in phagocytosis is true for A) neutrophils B) basophils C) both D) neither

Directly involved in an adaptive immune response is true for A) neutrophils B) basophils C) both D) neither

Expression of antiviral protein genes is true for A) only cells infected with virus B) only cells not infected with virus C) both cells infected and not infected with virus D) none of the choices

Expression of interferon genes is true for A) only cells infected with virus B) only cells not infected with virus C) both cells infected and not infected with virus D) none of the choices

Contain interferon receptors is true for A) only cells infected with virus B) only cells not infected with virus C) both cells infected and not infected with virus D) none of the choices

The concentration of antibody in the serum generated in response to an infectious pathogen is called the _____.

titer

T-cell receptors have _____ of antigen-binding sites in comparison with B-cell receptors.

half the number

The B-cell antigen receptor is called a(n) _____.

immunoglobin

T lymphocytes mature in the _____.

thymus

Lymphocytes bearing antigen receptors that have a high degree of affinity for self antigen undergo _____ during B-cell development.

clonal deletion

Long-lived lymphocytes that respond more rapidly and effectively to an antigen encountered at a later time are known as _____ cells.

memory

The isotype of an antibody is determined by the _____.

constant region of the heavy chain

The location on the immunoglobulin that contributes to the unique antigen-binding site is referred to as the _____.

hypervariable region

All of the following are examples of chemical interactions used to facilitate the binding of antigen to antibody except_____. hydrophobic forces hydrogen bonds electrostatic forces peptide bonds

peptide bonds

Which of the following is nota function of the immunoglobulin constant region? binds non-covalently to foreign antigens during infection enhances opsonization of encapsulated bacteria enables antibody transport out of the bloodstream to other anatomical locations binds to specialized receptors on phagocytic cells activates the classical pathway of complement

binds non-covalently to foreign antigens during infection

The movement of antibodies across epithelial barriers is called _____.

transcytosis

Babies who breast feed are afforded passive immune protection of their gastrointestinal tracts by the presence of _____ in colostrum.

IgA

When antigen binds to _____ on the surface of mast cells, inflammatory mediators are released, provoking vomiting, coughing, and sneezing.

IgE

_____ control antibody synthesis and isotype switching.

CD4 T cells

Circulating T lymphocytes that have never before encountered antigen to which they are specific are referred to as _____ cells.

naive T

The production of armed effector T cells is made possible by all of the following except _____. mast cells B cells dendritic cells macrophages

mast cells

All of the following are consequences of macrophage activation except _____. the release of perforin increased expression of cytokine receptors the enhancement of phagosome to lysosome fusion the production of oxygen free radicals the induction of co-stimulatory molecule expression elevated levels of class II MHC

the release of perforin

All of the following are characteristics of memory cells except _____. they are generated after antigen encounter they are maintained with the assistance of interleukins they are formed in both B and T cell responses they are more sensitive to re-stimulation and produce cytokines more effectively than naive cells once generated they do not undergo cell division

once generated they do not undergo cell division

A(n) _____ is any foreign substance that provokes an immune response.

antigen

Chemicals included in vaccines to enhance their efficacy are called _____.

adjuvants

Superantigens

are recognized by T cells without being bound to MHC molecules

Vaccination, such as the MMR vaccine, is an example of

artifically acquired active immunity

Antibody molecules are bivalent because they have

two identical binding sites

Which of the following statements is not true of the B-cell receptor? It is an immunoglobulin Its stucture is Y-shaped It can only recognize antigen bound to MHC molecules It has constant and variable regions It has two antigen binding sites

It can only recognize antigen bound to MHC molecules

The antibody response is part of the A. Humoral response B. The cellular response C. The phagocytic response D. The propagation response E. None of the above

The amount of antibody to a specific pathogen found in serum is referred to as the A. Level of antibody B. Antibody concentration C. Antibody titer D. Antibody minimum E. Antibody maximum

Specificity is seen in each of the following except A. The humoral response B. The cellular response C. The adaptive immune response D. The innate response E. Antigen–antibody complexes

The adaptive response relies upon distinguishing A. Complete from incomplete antigens B. Proteins from lipid antigens C. Carbohydrates from protein antigens D. Self from nonself antigens E. Carbohydrates from lipids

Presentation of antigen is done by A. Macrophages B. Dendritic cells C. Monocytes D. Macrophages and dendritic cells E. All of the above

Antibody is produced by A. T cells B. B cells C. Plasma cells D. Macrophages E. Dendritic cells

T cells mature in the A. Bone marrow B. Liver C. Lymph nodes D. Thymus E. Thyroid

B cells mature in the A. Bone marrow B. Liver C. Lymph nodes D. Thymus E. Thyroid

There are two classes of T cells called A. Antigen presenting and suppressor B. Suppressor and killer C. Cytotoxic and helper D. Suppressor and cytotoxic E. None of these pairs is correct

Clonal selection involves all of the following except A. Rearrangement of gene segments B. Specific antigen receptors C. Reversible genetic rearrangement D. Irreversible genetic rearrangement E. Passage of genetic rearrangement to progeny

M cells are found in all of the following except A. The intestine B. The Peyer’s patches C. The GALT D. The MALT E. Lymph nodes

A mature antigen-presenting cell A. Is older than other cells B. Has recognized antigens C. Is able to phagocytose proteins D. Has recognized and processed antigens E. Is able to recognize antigens better than an imma ture cell

After antigen presentation, T cells in the lymph nodes A. Immediately leave the node B. Become activated and leave the node C. Become activated and remain in the node D. Become inactivated and remain in the node E. Become inactivated and leave the node

Anergy is A. Lymphocyte activation by B cells B. Lymphocyte inactivation by B cells C. Lymphocyte inactivation due to increased co-stimulatory signals D. Lymphocyte inactivation due to lack of co-stimulatory signals E. Another name for apoptosis

The thymus A. Grows larger when puberty is reached B. Becomes populated with dendritic cells when puberty is reached C. Atrophies when puberty is reached D. Becomes filled with activated T cells when puberty is reached E. None of the above

T cells are found in which part of the lymph node? A. Stroma B. Follicles C. Paracortical areas D. Capsular areas E. Both A and B

Interaction of T cells with self-antigen–MHC causes A. Maintenance of the T-cell population B. Apoptosis of T cells C. Activation of T cells D. Inactivation of T cells E. None of the above

which of these statements is not true of the B-cell receptor A) its structure is Y-shaped B) it has two antigen binding sites C) it can only recognize antigen bound to MHC molecules D) it has constant and variable regions E) it is an immunoglobin

The T-cell receptor A. Recognizes antigens B. Recognizes antigens linked to MHC molecules C. Recognizes MHC molecules only D. Recognizes small pieces of antigen associated with MHC molecules E. None of the above

Class I MHC molecules present antigen to A. Phagocytic cells B. B cells C. Helper T cells D. Cytotoxic T cells E. All of the above

Class II MHC molecules present antigen to A. Phagocytic cells B. B cells C. Helper T cells D. Cytotoxic T cells E. All of the above

Superantigens are A. Extra-large proteins B. Recognized by T cells after being bound to MHC molecules C. Recognized by T cells without being bound to MHC molecules D. Presented by special antigen-presenting cells E. Presented only by dendrites

Antibody molecules are bivalent because they have A. One binding site B. One attachment site for macrophages C. Two identical binding sites D. Two binding sites that recognize different antigens E. Four identical binding sites

Antibody generally recognizes a specific A. Receptor B. T cell C. Antigen D. Epitope E. B cell

The antibody molecule that is found in colostrum (mother’s milk) is A. IgG B. IgA C. IgD D. IgE E. All of the above

T cells that have not been presented with antigen are referred to as A. Armed B. Effector C. Cytotoxic D. Primed E. Naive

Immunological memory A. Allows protection on re-exposure to a previous pathogen B. Is associated with both T and B cells C. Is the responsibility of long-lived T cells D. Is the responsibility of bone marrow B cells E. All of the above

Vaccines were first administered by A. Pasteur B. Salk C. Jenner D. Sabin E. None of the above

Which antibody is produced first A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM

vaccination is an example of A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) naturally acquired active immunity C) artificially acquired passive immunity D) artificially acquired active immunity

Which of the following is a mismatched pair? sterilization: destruction of all forms of microbes pasteurization: heat without boiling to kill pathogens bacteriocidal: kills bacteria aseptic: pathogen-free environment antisepsis: inanimate objects disinfected

antisepsis: inanimate objects disinfected

De-germing is best described as _____.

a mechanical process for removing microbes

Which of the following is not susceptible to the effects of surfactants?

non-enveloped viruses

Microbial death has occurred if _____.

reproductive capability is lost even when microbe is placed in optimal conditions

The microbial death rate associated with antimicrobial agents is _____.

logarithmic

Of the following, the most effective method of nucleic acid disruption is _____. freeze-drying surfactants filtration radiation pasteurization

radiation

A _____ is a solution made by combining alcohol with another antimicrobial compound.

tincture

Which of the following is used to destroy endospores in a liquid medium that will subsequently be used to culture bacteria?

pressurized steam

Which of the following is a mismatched pair? food preservation: hypotonic medium non-ionizing radiation: ultraviolet rays pressurized steam: autoclave freeze-drying: lyophilization pasteurization: flash method

food preservation: hypotonic medium

The effectiveness of all chemical disinfectants increases with the following except length of exposure higher concentration None; they all increase the effectiveness of all chemical disinfectants increasing temperature

higher concentration

Which of the following substances is the least effective antimicrobial agent? soap phenol alcohol iodine hydrogen peroxide

soap

Oxidizing agents target

metabolic pathways

QUATS target

plasma membrane

Which of the following can sterilize? autoclaving pasteurization boiling UV irradiation freeze drying

autoclaving

Which of the following best describes microbial death rate A. All the cells in a culture die at once. B. The cells in a population die at a constant rate. C. All of the cells in a culture are never killed. D. The pattern varies depending on the antimicrobial agent. E. The pattern varies depending on the species.

The cells in a population die at a constant rate.

Bacterial death will result from damage to which of the following structures A. Plasma membrane B. Proteins C. Nucleic acids D. Cell wall E. All of the above

Sterilization involves A. Removal of all microbes and endospores B. Removal of all microbes but not endospores C. Killing only pathogens D. Bacteriostatic agents E. All of the above

Which of the following is a direct result of heat? A. Breaking hydrogen bonds B. Cell lysis C. Denaturing enzymes D. Breaking sulfhydryl bonds E. All of the above

Which of these factors affect the rate of bacterial cell death A. The number of organisms present B. The time of exposure C. The environment D. Endospore formation E. All of the above

The bacteriocidal versus the bacteriostatic nature of a disinfectant can be determined with which of the following test methods? A. The phenol coefficient B. The disk method C. The thermal death point D. The use dilution method E. The thermal death time

The effectiveness of chemical disinfectants increases with each of the following except A. Length of exposure B. Temperature C. higher concentration E. None of the above

Which of the following substances is the least effective antimicrobial agent? A. Phenol B. Cationic detergents C. Soap D. Alcohol E. Iodine

Which of the following are unaffected by alcohol? A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Fungi D. Endospores E. None of the above

Oxidizing agents target A. Cell membranes B. Metabolic pathways C. The cell wall D. Protein synthesis E. None of the above

QUATS target A. Metabolic pathways B. The cell wall C. The plasma membrane D. Protein synthesis E. Endospores

Which one of the following is the best advertisement for a disinfectant? A. Kills Staphylococcus aureus B. Kills lipophilic viruses C. Kills E. coli D. Kills Pseudomonas E. All are equal

All of the following are involved in the control of microbial growth except A. Disinfection B. Antisepsis C. Neutralization D. Pasteurization E. Sanitization

All of the following are chemicals used in disinfection except A. Aldehydes B. Ultraviolet irradiation C. Phenolic compounds D. Halogens E. Surfactants

Pasteurization kills A. All microorganisms B. Only endospores C. Only pathogens D. Gram-positive organisms preferentially E. Gram-negative organisms preferentially

Refrigeration at –20°C A. Sterilizes food B. Preserves food for a period of time C. Causes bacterial cell death through changes in osmotic pressure D. Has no effect on microbial growth

Which of the following can sterilize? A. Pasteurization B. Autoclaving C. Refrigeration D. Freezing E. None of the above

Compare pasteurization with sterilization. Which is the best option for killing endospores? A) pasteurization B) sterilization C) both D) neither

Compare pasteurization with sterilization. Which is the best option for killing bacteria? A) pasteurization B) sterilization C) both D) neither

Compare pasteurization with sterilization. Which option is a milder treatment? A) pasteurization B) sterilization C) both D) neither

Compare pasteurization with sterilization. Which is the best option for destroying prions? A) pasteurization B) sterilization C) both D) neither

compare ionizing with non-ionizing radiation. Which uses ultraviolet light? A) Ionizing radiation B) non-ionizing radiation C) both D) neither

compare ionizing with non-ionizing radiation. Which uses gamma rays? A) Ionizing radiation B) non-ionizing radiation C) both D) neither

compare ionizing with non-ionizing radiation. Which alters DNA? A) Ionizing radiation B) non-ionizing radiation C) both D) neither

compare ionizing with non-ionizing radiation. Which uses X-rays? A) Ionizing radiation B) non-ionizing radiation C) both D) neither

By incorporating antibiotics into animal feed, farmers _____.

increase the weight gain of their livestock

Penicillin resistance in bacteria is conferred by the production of _____.

beta-lactamase

Augmentin combines amoxicillin with _____ to overcome enzymatic resistance to the antibiotic by the microbe

potassium clavulanate

The efficacy of penicillin is highest during the _____ phase of the bacterial life cycle.

log

Which of the following antibiotics contains a double bond in the beta-lactam ring that protects against beta-lactamase cleavage?

carbapenems

Disruption of DNA synthesis occurs if _____ is targeted by antibiotics.

bacterial topoisomerase

A _____ is a antimicrobial compound that is activated enzymatically after its introduction into the body.

prodrug

Which of the following is not a drug used for viral infections? rimantadine flucytosine ganciclovir 3TC (lamivudine) ritonavir

flucytosine

All of the following target the 30S ribosomal subunit except ____. spectinomycin ampicillin kanamycin tetracycline

ampicillin

All of the following target the 50S ribosomal subunit except _____. azithromycin chloramphenicol clindamycin vancomycin

vancomycin

Which of the following is used in treating protozoan infections? bacitracin none of the answers are correct polyenes all of the answers are correct griseofulvin

none

All of the following are antifungal drugs except griseofulvin bacitracin polyenes azoles flucytosine

bacitracin

Acyclovir

is administered to patients as a prodrug

All of the following target the bacterial ribosome except tetracycline vancomycin erythromycin streptomycin chloramphenical

vancomycin

A bacteriostatic antibiotic

inhibits bacterial growth but does not kill the organism

Which of the following organisms would most probably be sensitive to natural penicillin? Mycoplasma penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhea Histoplasma Penicillium Streptococcus pyogenes

Streptococcus pyogenes

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? a cephalosporin amphotericin B a penicillin polymyxin B bacitracin

amphotericin B

Which of these antibiotics has the fewest side effects? amoxicillin neomycin tetracycline chloramphenicol streptomycin

amoxicillin

Which of the following does not target the same component as the others? vancomycin aminoglycosides cephalosporins monbactams carbapemens

aminoglycosides

Which of the following drugs is not used primarily to treat tuberculosis? sulfonamide ethambutol rifampin None, all these drugs are used to treat TB isoniazid

sulfonamide

The first antibiotic discovered was A. Streptomycin B. Quinine C. Sulfa drugs D. Penicillin

penicillin

Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against A. Viruses B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Protozoa E. All of the above

bacteria

Which of the following does not target the same bacterial component as the others? Monobactam Cephalosporin Bacitracin Streptomycin Penicillin

Streptomycin

Which of these antibiotics has the fewest side effects? Penicillin chloramphenicol tetracycline erythromycin streptomycin

Penicillin

Which of the following methods of action would be bacteriostatic? A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis B. Inhibition of RNA synthesis C. Competitive inhibition with folic acid synthesis D. Injury to plasma membrane E. None of the above

Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? A. Amphotericin B B. Penicillin C. Bacitracin D. Cephalosporin E. Polymyxin

More than half of our antibiotics are A. Produced by Fleming B. Produced by bacteria C. Produced by fungi D. Synthesized in laboratories E. None of the above

Which of the following drugs is NOT used primarily to treat tuberculosis? A. Sulfonamide B. Rifampin C. Isoniazid D. Ethambutol E. None of the above

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are A. Aminoglycosides B. Macrolides C. Chloramphenicol D. Lincomycin E. Tetracyclines

Which of the following organisms would most probably be sensitive to natural penicillin? A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Penicillium C. Penicillinase-producing Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. Mycoplasma

Streptomyces bacteria produce all of the following antibiotics except A. Erythromycin B. Nystatin C. Kanamycin D. Rifampin E. Bacitracin

A bacteriostatic antibiotic A. Inhibits bacterial growth by killing the organism B. Increases the electrical charge of the organism C. Damages the bacterial plasma membrane D. Inhibits bacterial growth but does not kill the organism E. None of the above

Broad-spectrum antibiotics A. React only with Gram-positive bacteria B. React only with Gram-negative bacteria C. React only with Pseudomonas D. React with Gram-positive bacteria, Gram-negative bacteria and Pseudomonas E. React only with large bacteria

The difference between penicillin and ampicillin is A. The b-lactam ring B. The type of carbohydrates associated with the drug C. The side chains affixed to the core ring structure D. All of the above

b-Lactamase is A. A ring structure seen in semi-synthetic penicillin B. Found only on cephalosporin C. A chemical that enhances the effect of antibiotics D. An enzyme that cleaves the ring structure of penicillin E. None of the above

Carbapenem antibiotics have A. The same structure as penicillin B. Different side chains from penicillin’s C. The same ring structure as penicillin D. A different ring structure from penicillin’s E. Three rings in the core

The antibiotic isoniazid is A. Similar to ethambutol B. Never used with ethambutol C. Used with rifampin D. Used with ethambutol and rifampin for the treatment of tuberculosis E. None of the above

All of the following are targets for antibiotics except A. The cell wall B. Bacterial ribosomes C. The glycocalyx D. The plasma membrane of the bacteria E. Nucleic acids

Protein synthesis is A. Not a target for antibiotics B. Not a selectively toxic target C. A selective target D. A target of last resort for antibiotic therapy E. Used only for viral infections

All of the following target the ribosome except A. Streptomycin B. Tetracycline C. Penicillin D. Chloramphenicol E. Erythromycin

Sulfa drugs target A. folate B. The cell wall C. The bacterial plasma membrane D. Ribosomes E. DNA

Acyclovir A. Is effective against herpes infections B. Is selectively toxic C. Blockades viral DNA replication D. All of the above E. Only A and C above

Antiviral drugs A. Are all selectively toxic B. Only affect infected cells C. Only affect free viral particles D. Must eliminate all viral particles to be effective E. Only effect uncoating of viral particles

Which of the following is used for protozoan infections? A. Griseofulvin B. Bacitracin C. Polyenes D. All of the above E. None of the above

Which of the following antimicrobial peptides is naturally produced by frogs? A. Lantibiotics B. Defensins C. Marginins D. Drosocin

All of the following are antifungal drugs except A. Polyenes B. Bacitracin C. Azoles D. Griseofulvin E. Flucytosine

Which of the following tests gives the MBC? A. The Kirby–Bauer test B. The E test C. The broth dilution test D. B and C above E. A above only

Monobactam antibiotics have A) different side chains from penicillin B) the same ring structure as penicillin C) A different ring structure to penicillin D) no core structure

T/F The activity of penicillin is most effective during cell growth because penicillin prevents the cross-linking of the NAG and NAM units and thereby prevents the formation of an intact cell wall.

T/F The plasma membrane in bacteria is a prime target for antibiotics because any disruption of this membrane will destroy the bacteria’s ability to survive.

T/F Isoniazid is very effective against mycobacteria because it inhibits the synthesis of protein

T/F The synthetic forms of erythromycin known as azithromycin and clarithromycin have expanded spectra and are used for respiratory infections because they are more potent.

T/F Rifampin is used only in combination therapy because resistance develops rapidly if the antibiotic is used alone.

Which of the following antibiotics destroys red blood cells as its mechanism of action? A) azoles B) Chloroquine C) Flucytosine D) Mebendazole

Which of the following antibiotics inhibits the production of sterols as its mechanism of action? A) azoles B) Chloroquine C) Flucytosine D) Mebendazole

Inhibition of microtubule formation is the mechanism of action for which of the following antibiotics? A) azoles B) Chloroquine C) Flucytosine D) Mebendazole

Which of the following antibiotics interferes with nucleic acid synthesis as its mechanism of action? A) azoles B) Chloroquine C) Flucytosine D) Mebendazole

_____ are locations in the bacterial genome where antibiotic resistance genes integrate and accumulate.

resistance islands

Which of the following is not an example of an autoprotective mechanism used by microbes producing antibiotics?

producing antibody only during the log phase of growth

Which of the following is not a mechanism for acquiring resistance to antibiotics?

increasing the growth rate to decrease inhibitory concentrations

Potassium clavulanate is a(n) _____.

beta-lactamase inhibitor

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an efflux pump?

Some are energy-independent.

Resistance to antibiotics seen at the level of the ribosome is caused by

changes in the shape of the ribosome

The best way to slow the development and higher levels of bacterial resistance is to

use antibiotics as sparingly and precisely as possible

The useful life of antibiotics may be increased by

using combinations of antibiotics

The adaptive immune system is a __________ response.

lymphocyte (B, T, and NK cells)

Why is the innate immune response important?

A: Innate immunity mechanisms (Ch15) are immediately available, while the Adaptive immune response (Ch 16) has a delay of 7-10 days. Only the adaptive immune response can clear an infection. You need Innate immunity or you don't survive long enough from the Adaptive immunity to kick in. With only Innate immunity, an infection would not be cleared and you would still succumb.

Why is a complement regulation system a cascade?

A: Systems that need to be carefully regulated often use a cascade (not a simple on/off switch)

3 ways to activate complement and 3 consequences

classical, alternative, and lectin-binding cytosis, inflammation, and opsonization

T cells are made in the ___ and mature in the ___.

bone marrow; thymus

What is the humoral and cellular parts of the adaptive response?

Humoral- production of antibodies Cellular- killing and regulation of infected cells

What makes a good (nonself) antigen?

good antigens are proteins and large molecular weight polysaccharides (such as found in cells walls)

Where do B and T cells originate from?

bone marrow

What makes a bad (nonself) antigen?

poor antigens are lipids, nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) and small molecules (metabolites). The fact that small molecules are poor antigens that do not evoke an immune response is what makes the entire field of pharmacology possible. Most drugs are low molecular weight so as not to stimulate an immune response

What does GALT, BALT, and MALT stand for?

gut-associated lymphoid tissue, bronchial associated lymphoid tissue, and mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue

What is the first antibody to be made?

IgM

What are Peyer's patches in the GALT?

- contain M cells - M cells are antigen-collecting cells - under M cells are germinal centers filled with B cells.

What is MHC?

major histocompatibility complex; marker for what is self; two classe

What is clonal selection?

It is both the concept that the lymphocyte response is selected from a diversity of cells with different receptors to antigen AND that selected lymphocyte undergoes division to create an entire population (or clones) of lymphocytes with that identical receptor

Why have so many genes that are unique in MHC?

The MHC must undergo randomization in sexually reproducing hosts, such as humans to generate diversity. If all human hosts had the same MHC, a pathogen with that same molecule would be "invisible " to the immune system. It would be presumed to be self and therefore would avoid the host immune response. The MHC is different in all of us in the same way that combination locks all have different combinations.

Why is breastfeeding for one year recommended?

There is NO substitute for the passive transfer of antibody in human breast milk to a nursing infant. Cow milk, goat milk, powdered formula may satisfy the nutritional needs , but do NOT provide immune protection. Breast-fed babies have fewer digestive and respiratory infections than bottle-fed infants. "Breast is Best" The gut microbiome in breast-fed infants benefit from pre-biotics in human beast milk.

Define sterile

Absence of all living microorganisms including spores

Define disinfectant

reduction in the # of potential pathogens; associated with inanimate objects

Define antiseptics

destroying microbial life associated with human skin and tissue

Define aseptic

an environment or procedure free from contamination

define de-germing

the removal of microbes from skin surface by antiseptic and mechanical means

define sanitization

used to reduce the number of pathogens to meet acceptable public health standards

Define pasteurization

using heat to kill pathogens

What defines microbial death?

permanent loss of reproductive capabilities

What are the 4 principles of microbial killing?

1) Microbes are killed at a log rate 2) The more microbes you have to start, the longer it takes to achieve sterility 3) Numerous conditions affect rate of microbial killing 4) Microbes vary widely in their susceptibility to killing Know this: the most resistant forms are endospores and that the most resistant vegetative cell are the Mycobacterium (acid-fast ). Gram negatives are more resistant than Gram positives Naked viruses are more resistant than enveloped viruses

What is the best disinfectant?

there is no ideal disinfectant

for most chemical agents, _____ in concentration = increase in potency

increase (except for alcohol)

The active ingredient in Clearasil is benzoyl peroxide. Why does it work so well against anaerobic bacteria?

the bacteria are obligate anaerobes without SOD, peroxidase and catalase (enzymes that detoxify oxygen), so oxidizing agents work well against them

Soap is a poor at microbial killing, so why is it so useful for handwashing?

It works by solubilizing microbes and washing them down the drain

Should you use 10% bleach or a QUAT disinfectant in a nursery school?

Not bleach, it would harm the children and put holes in their clothes. Quats are very nontoxic, so if they put a toy in their mouths, they will not be poisoned or harmed (but may taste terrible?)

Coins are inherently safer than bills. Why?

Coins are alloys of metals that create ions that disrupt protein structure. Bills can get wet and soiled, even food stained, and hold plenty of food from microbes.

Two types of heat and examples

Moist heat (boiling, autoclave) Dry heat (hot air with low moisture like from ovens)

The bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan is assembled by enzymes _______ of the bacterial plasma membrane

outside

What are PCPs?

Penicillin-binding proteins; bacterial enzymes that synthesize peptidoglycan

Organisms that produce _________ are resistant to penicillin.

Beta-lactamase; example of antibiotic resistance mechanism

Gram-______ (such as mycoplasma) bacteria have less peptidoglycan and are less sensitive to ________.

negative; penicillin

What sub-structure does a penicillin and a cephalosporin have in common?

beta-lactam ring

What do you do if a bacteria is resistant to all antibiotics?

Tough situation. These days they may try old, toxic antibiotics that are little used. The calculation is the toxic side effects may be less risky than dying from the infection.

Neosporin contains _____, ____, and _____. Why?

Bacitracin (cell wall synthesis inhibitor) Polymyxin (disrupts plasma membrane) Neomycin (an aminoglycoside inhibitor of bacterial protein synthesis) Using all 3 makes it very unlikely that bacteria will be resistant to all 3

"inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis" has _____ different mechanisms

many

What is synergy?

the holy grail of pharmacology: it multiplies rather than adds the effects of two drugs. Lower doses can be used to reduce toxicity to host , and the synergy is more effective that each drug alone.

What is the grandaddy of antiviral drugs?

acyclovir

The problem with treating fungi, protozoans, and helminths is that they are ___________.

eukaryotic, like human cells, so they're harder to target with selective toxicity

The golden age of antibiotic discovery is...

well behind us

Is the patient resistant to the antibiotics that don't work on them?

No, the bacteria inside them is resistant.

Why is microbial resistance to a drug inevitable?

mutation happens, and evolution via artificial selection

Has there ever been a drug that has not induced resistance in bacteria?

no, they all have

How can you resist the pt. as a "customer" demanding antibiotics?

Medical providers are acting unethically if they prescribe worthless or harmful treatments when the patient "customer" demands it. The customer is not always right in the medical setting

The ______ of antibiotics has led to widespread resistance.

over-prescribing

All of the following are involved in the spread of antibiotic resistance except A. Travel B. Overuse of antibiotics C. Specific prescriptions for antibiotics D. Improper use of antibiotics E. Immunocompromised population

Resistance to antibiotics is facilitated by which of the following? A. The antibody response B. Host immunity C. Frequency of use D. The inflammatory response

All of the following are mechanisms of resistance except A. Activation of the antibiotic B. Efflux pumping C. Modification of the target structure D. Inactivation of the antibiotic E. None of the above

The second most often used mechanism in development of antibiotic resistance is A. Target modification B. Efflux pumping C. Destruction of the antibiotic D. Enhancement of antibiotic activity

MRSA stands for which of the following? A. Microbial-resistant Streptococcus aureus B. Microbial-resistant Staphylococcus aureus C. Methicillin-reactive Staphylococcus aureus D. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

MRSA organisms are resistant to which of the following? A. Penicillin B. Cephalosporins C. Carbapenems D. None of the above E. All of the above

Resistance to antibiotics seen at the level of the ribosome is caused by A. Efflux pumping B. Destruction of anti-ribosomal antibiotics C. Changes in the shape of the ribosome D. None of the above

Increased use of antibiotics can be attributed to the following A. An increasing number of large cities B. Emerging infectious diseases C. Increased levels of immunodeficiency diseases D. All of the inappropriate prescription, food production, and increased numbers of immunodeficient people

The best way to deal with antibiotic resistance is to use A. More antibiotics B. use antibiotics as sparingly and precisely as possible C. Combinations of antibiotics D. None of the above

The useful life of antibiotics can be extended by A. Increasing the doses B. Using more broad-spectrum antibiotics C. Using combinations of antibiotics D. None of the above

VRSA stands for which of the following? A) very resistant Streptococcus aureus B) Vancomycin-resistant Streptococcus aureus C) Variably resistant Staphylococcus aureus D)Vancomycin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

T/F Active transport of penicillin out of the bacterial cell is required because the concentration of antibiotic is lower outside than inside the cell.

T/F Genes for antibiotic resistance are more of a problem on plasmids because they are expressed at a higher rate.

T/F Bacteria can resist the action of β-lactam antibiotics by producing penicillin-binding proteins that do not bind penicillin.

T/F Potassium clavulanate augments the action of antibiotics by inhibiting the action of β-lactamase enzymes.

T/F Antibiotics promote superinfections because they make the bacteria normally present in the body stronger.

T/F Because antibiotics are not effective against viruses, taking antibiotics does not prevent or cure viral infections.

T/F The main cause of viral resistance to antiviral drugs is because they produce many proteins.

T/F E. coli has become a clinical problem because it has acquired antibiotic resistance and can cause dangerous systemic infections.

T/F Because metabolic pathways can parallel one another, circumvention of the blockade of an established pathway can occur.

T/F Mutants that are resistant to antibiotics are selected for in the presence of antibiotics.

T/F Antibiotic resistance does not spread easily in health care facilities.

T/F Handwashing is important to combat the spread of antibiotic resistance.

T/F The time taken for antibiotic resistance to develop can be lengthened by using more broad-spectrum antibiotics.

T/F Resistance to an antibiotic can only occur through destruction of the antibiotic.