Micro class exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
It’s the microbes who will have the last word
A
Louis Pasteur
2
Q
She was puzzled as to why learned people didn’t adopt chemistry as a religion
A
Betty Smith
3
Q
Inhalation anthrax
A
Bacillus anthracis
4
Q
immunocompromised
A
a condition in which a persons immune system is not properly functioning, causes difficulty dealing with illness
5
Q
Echerichia coli
A
bacterial hemorrhagic disease, enterohemorrhagic bacteria
gram negative
6
Q
nosocomial
A
hospital acquired infections
7
Q
virulence
A
the potential to cause disease
8
Q
epidemiology
A
the study of the factors determining the frequency and distribution of disease
9
Q
pathogenesis
A
the study of how disease develops
10
Q
innate immune response
A
nonspecific defense
first line of defense by the host
lethal for most diseases
11
Q
adaptive immune response
A
lethal and specific
has the benefit of memory
12
Q
Peptidoglycan
A
main component of cell wall, not found in human cells
13
Q
Which of the following is true about the relationship between humans and pathogens
a) the human body has its own population of microbes
b)most microbes are pathogenic and cause disease
c) humans do not come into contact with many microbes
d) non-pathogenic organisms can never be pathogenic
A
A
14
Q
In the past 10 years the earth has become warmer. this has probably caused which of the following
a) more respiratory disease (transmitted by droplets)
b) spread of insect-transmitted disease
c) less respiratory disease
d) less digestive disease
A
B
15
Q
If the availability of clean drinking water decreases, then we can expect
a) more respiratory disease
b) more digestive disease
c) more insect-borne disease
d) less respiratory disease
A
B
16
Q
A term reserved for diseases acquired in a clinical setting is a(n) _____ infection
a) enterohemorrhagic
b) contagious factors
c) nosocomial
d) multi-drug resistant
e) acute
A
C
17
Q
Which type of microorganism causes the majority of infectious disease
A) bacteria
b) fungi
c)parasites
d) viruses
A
D-viruses
18
Q
Which of the following are important in guarding against the spread of infectious disease?
A) handwashing between working with different patients in healthcare situations
b) handwashing after using restrooms
c) handwashing before and after food preparation
d) none of the choices
e) all of the choices
A
E
19
Q
The general term for features of microorganisms that enhance pathogenesis
a) virulence factors
b) toxins
c) inflammatory agents
d) antibiotics
A
a) virulence factors
20
Q
Redness swelling and pain indicate which of the following
a) inflammation
b) blush reflex
c) presence of non-pathogenic organisms
d) adaptive immune response
A
A
21
Q
Why are infectious diseases a serious healthcare problem in the developed world again?
a) the human immune system is becoming less effective
b) there is increasing resistance to treatments that were once completely effective
c) there are more pathogenic organisms than there used to be
d) pathogens have a wider variety of mechanisms to damage host cells
A
B
22
Q
Protons
A
located in the nucleus of the atom, have a positive charge
23
Q
atomic number
A
equal to the number of protons in the core of that atom
24
Q
Neutrons
A
located in the core of the atom but have no charge. the atomic weight of an element equals the number of protons plus neutrons
25
electrons
these atomic particles have a negative charge and are located in shells (or clouds) that surround the core of the atom. In neutral molecules the number of uncharged electrons equals the number of protons
26
cation
lost an electron, positive
27
ion
gains an electron, negative
28
nonpolar covalent bond
sharing of the electrons between two atoms is equal
29
polar covalent bond
the sharing of electrons between two atoms is unequal (one side pulling more than the other) results in a weak electric charge
30
Why is water the most important component of life
1) solubility (spheres of hydration saturate)
2) reactivity (dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis)
3) heat capacity
31
dehydration synthesis
removal of a water molecule to build molecules
32
hydrolysis
addition of a water molecule to break down molecules
33
Carbohydrates
cellulose and starch, broken down and stored as glycogen
34
Lipids
chemically diverse group of substances that includes fats, phospholipids, and steroids. Lipids are used as energy sources
35
Fatty acids
long chains of C with bound hydrogens, a fat is made of 3C molecule glycerol
36
Other forms of lipids
phospolipids (lipid + phosphate)
Glycolipid (lipid + carbohydrate)
Steroids
37
formation of proteins
made of amino acids, form a peptide bond between amino and carboxyl group, amino acids link into peptides and peptides link into proteins, if amino acids contain sulfur atoms they form disulfide bridges used in protein folding
38
primary protein structure
sequence of amino acids in polypeptide chain
39
secondary protein structure
a folding or coiling of the polypeptide
that is brought about by the sequence of the amino acids and hydrogen
bonds that form between amino acids. This secondary folding is usually
seen as either a helix or a pleated sheet form.
40
Tertiary protein structure
folding of the chain upon itself. This
folding confers the major three-dimensional structure of the polypeptide
and is held in place in part by hydrogen bonding and the formation
of disulfide bridges. This folding can result in several shapes, including
globular and fibrous (threadlike) structures.
41
Quaternary protein structure
occurs in very large proteins for which more
than one polypeptide is joined together. This joining together of individual
polypeptide chains also occurs through the formation of bonds
and between amino acids in the individual polypeptide chains.
42
Nucleic acids
cellular info and energy
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) had adenine, thymine, guanine, or cytosine
ribonucleic acid (RNA) has that but with uracil instead of thymine
43
Purines
two aromatic rings, adenine and guanine
44
Pyrimidines
one aromatic ring, cytosine, thymine, and uracil
45
ATP
adenosine triphosphate
major energy molecule in biological systems
remove phosphate to get energy (create ADP), then recycle ADP into more ATP
46
An atom has 17 electrons it is most likely to
a) be inert
b) form an anion
c) form a cation
d) react with a Cl- ion
B) form an anion
47
Electron sharing leads to covalent bonds which compound contains covalent bonds
a) H2O
b) Glucose
c) fatty acids
d) amino acids
e) all of the choices
E- all of the choices
48
Order the substances based on the most acidic first. which is the most acidic?
a) gastric fluids
b) pure water
c) baking soda
d) soap solutions
e) tomatoes
A, e, b, c,d
49
which of the following has just two reactive groups
a) amino acids
b) fatty acids
c) glucose
d) proteins
e) nucleic acids
a) amino acids
50
Which of these is not a component of the plasma membrane
a) triglyceride
b) phospholipid
c) glucose
d) cholesterol
e) glycolipid
c
51
Which is not a component of DNA
a) cytosine
b) deoxyribose
c) phosphate
d) ribose
e) thymine
d) ribose
52
Metabolism
the chemical process that goes on inside any living organism
53
Autotrophy
"self feeding" obtain carbon atoms from inorganic sources (such as CO2)
photoautotrophs use sunlight ex) plants
chemoautotrophs use chemical reactions with nitrates and sulfates
54
Heterotrophy
get carbon atoms from organic molecules present in other organisms
photoheterotrophs obtain energy from sunlight and convert it to chemical energy
chemoheterotrophs obtain energy by breaking down organic compounds
55
Catabolism
all metabolic processes in which molecules are broken down to release the energy stored in their chemical bonds
involves electron transfer
56
Anabolism
metabolic processes in which energy is derived from catabolism is used to build large organic molecules from smaller ones
involve electron transfer
57
redox reaction
oxidation reaction and reduction partner
reduction (gains electron)
oxidation (loses electron)
58
aerobic respiration
metabolism that uses oxygen
38 ATP for every molecule of glucose
59
anaerobic respiration
metabolism that occurs without the use of oxygen
2 ATP for every molecule of glucose
60
facultative anaerobes
organisms that can carry out metabolic processes either way, aerobically or anaerobically
61
enzymes
protein molecules with distinct 3D shape
act as a catalyst by lowering the energy of activation
62
Enzyme substrate complex
when the substrate is bonded to the enzyme at the active site
causes chemical bonds in the substrate molecule to change and leads to formation of a product
63
cofactor enzyme
enzyme requires the help of a cofactor ( a separate inorganic nonprotein substance) to be able to react with the substrate. Works allosterically (does not bind to active site)
64
coenzyme
nonprotein organic molecule that must bind to the active site of the enzyme to allow the enzyme to react with the substrate
65
carrier molecules
present in metabolic reactions and can carry H atoms or electrons in redox reactions. Ex) cofactors and coenzymes
66
Common carrier molecules in biological reactions
FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) (can carry 2 H and 2e-, called FADH2)
NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide)
67
competitive inhibition
inhibitor molecule similar in structure to the substrate for a given enzyme competes with the substrate to bind to the enzyme's active site
68
Allosteric inhibition
molecules bind to the allosteric site (a separate part of the enzyme, not the active site) this causes the active site to change shape and prevents substrate from binding
69
Feedback inhibition
final product in a pathway accumulates and begins to bind to and inactivate the enzyme that catalyzes the first reaction of the pathway
70
factors that affect enzyme reactions
temperature, pH, concentration of substrate/product/enzyme
71
Glycolysis
carbohydrate such as glucose is broken down through a series of steps that ultimately result in the production of 2 molecules of ATP for each glucose, process occurs at cytoplasm and does not require oxygen, forms NADH, pyruvate, and ATP
72
Kreps cycle
aerobic cellular respiration using the pyruvate from glycolysis
to enter the Krebs cycle the 3C pyruvate from glycolysis must be modified to a 2C acetyl group by losing a carbon as CO2
1) carbon is oxidized to CO2
2) electrons are transferred to coenzyme carrier molecules that take the electrons to the electron transport chain
3) energy is captured and stored when ADP is converted to ATP
73
Electron Transport Chain
cellular process in which electrons are transferred to final electron acceptor (for aerobic this is oxygen)
series of redox reactions
NADH enters ETC and passes on it's electrons who's energy is released through chemiomosis
Krebs + ETC yields 36 ATP
74
location of ETC
Eukaryotes: protons pumped between mitochondria and intermembrane space
Prokaryotes: ETC pumps protons across plasma membrane
75
Proton motive force
ETC create a high proton concentration inside the cell which forms a concentration gradient to pump against, gradient is known as proton motive force
76
Fermentation
enzymatic breakdown of carbohydrates in which the final electron acceptor is an organic molecule, only has 2ATP yielded during glycolysis, different organisms use different fermentation pathways
77
Homolactic fermentation
pyruvate molecule is converted directly to lactate with reactions driven by the energy of the electrons from NADH, does not have gas byproduct, aka lactic fermentation
78
Alcoholic fermentation
CO2 released by pyruvate to for acetaldehyde, reduced to ethanol using NADH
79
Choose best description for enzyme from the following
a) precursor of protein
b) catalyst
c) inorganic compound
d) precursor of ethanol
e) ethanol
B) catalyst
80
Choose the best match for alcohol from the following
a) catalyst
b) precursor of ethanol
c) ethanol
d) inorganic compound
e)Precursor of protein
C)ethanol
81
choose the best match for acetaldehyde from the following
a) precursor of protein
b) inorganic compound
c) catalyst
d) ethanol
e)precursor of ethanol
e) precursor of ethanol
82
Choose the best match for CO2 from the following
a) precursor of protein
b) inorganic compound
c) catalyst
d) ethanol
e)precursor of ethanol
b) inorganic compound
83
Choose the best match for amino acid from the following
a) precursor of protein
b) inorganic compound
c) catalyst
d) ethanol
e)precursor of ethanol
a) precursor of protein
84
Choose the best match for energy of activation from the following
a) energy required to start a reaction
b) stabilize water and protein structure
c) where enzyme catalyzed reactions occur
d) uneven distribution of a chemical in solution or across a membrane
e) released by catabolic reactions
a) energy required to start a reaction
85
Choose the best match for energy (fuel) from the following
a) energy required to start a reaction
b) stabilize water and protein structure
c) where enzyme catalyzed reactions occur
d) uneven distribution of a chemical in solution or across a membrane
e) released by catabolic reactions
e) released by catabolic reactions
86
Choose the best match for gradient from the following
a) energy required to start a reaction
b) stabilize water and protein structure
c) where enzyme catalyzed reactions occur
d) uneven distribution of a chemical in solution or across a membrane
e) released by catabolic reactions
c)where enzyme catalysed reactions occur
87
Choose the best match for hydrogen bonding from the following
a) energy required to start a reaction
b) stabilize water and protein structure
c) where enzyme catalyzed reactions occur
d) uneven distribution of a chemical in solution or across a membrane
e) released by catabolic reactions
b) stabilize water and protein structure
88
Choose the best match for active site from the following
a) energy required to start a reaction
b) stabilize water and protein structure
c) where enzyme catalyzed reactions occur
d) uneven distribution of a chemical in solution or across a membrane
e) released by catabolic reactions
a) energy required to start a reaction
89
Which of the following is a product of catabolism
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) pyruvic acid
d) protein
e) phospholipid
c) pyruvic acid
90
Which of the following is a product of anabolism?
a) CO2 generated during oxidative phosphorylation
b) H+ generated during oxidative phosphorylation
c) lactic acid generated during fermentation
d) acetic acid generated during fermentation
e) lipoproteins generated in membranes
b) H+ generated during oxidative phosphorylation
91
Autotrophic organisms obtain carbon from
a) organic molecules
b) photosynthesis
c) CO2
d) the soil
e) water
c) CO2
92
Heterotrophic organisms obtain carbon from
a) organic molecules
b) photosynthesis
c) CO2
d) the soil
e) water
a)organic molecules
93
Anabolism is the process in which
a) molecules are broken down
b) molecules are transported out of the cell
c) energy in the form of ATP is used up
d) energy in the form of ATP is released
c) energy in the for of ATP is used up
94
Catabolism is the process in which
a) energy is used up
b) molecules are transferred out of the cell
c) molecules are built up
d) molecules are broken down
d) molecules are broken down
95
Oxidation is defined as
a) gaining an electron
b) losing an electron
c) utilizing CO2 for metabolism
d) destroying CO2 during metabolism
e) none of the above
B
96
during a redox reaction
a) protons are lost
b) electrons are gained and lost
c) electrons are generated
d) protons are gained
e) electrons are not used at all
B
97
During a reduction reaction a substance
a) gains an electron and becomes more positively charged
b) loses an electron and becomes positively charged
c) gains an electron and becomes more negatively or less positively charged
d) loses an electron and becomes more negatively charged
e) neither gains or loses an electron
C
98
In prokaryotes, the greatest amount of ATP per glucose molecule is produced through
a) aerobic cellular respiration
b) fermentation
c) anaerobic respiration
d) both 1&2
e) none of the choices
A
99
Organisms that can metabolize either in the presence or absence of oxygen are called
a) obligate anaerobes
b) micro-aerobes
c) obligate aerobes
d) facultative anaerobes
D
100
Complete oxidation of glucose yields
a) only CO2 and water
b) Only CO2 and energy
c) only CO2
d) none of these choices
C, makes CO2 water and 38 ATP
101
enzymes
a) cause a reaction to happen
b) cause a reaction to happen more slowly
c) increase the activation energy
d) decrease the energy of activation
D
102
Which of the following can be required for an enzyme to function
a)cofactors
b)coenzymes
c) prosthetic groups
d) metal ions
e) all of the choices
E
103
Allosteric inhibition occurs
a) because of conformational changes in the enzyme
b) at the active site
c) because a compound binds at a site which reduces the maximum rate at which the enzyme works
d) when inhibitors bind close to the active site
e) because of a molecule identical to the substrate
a
104
Which of the following affect enzyme activity
a) concentration of product
b) temperature
c) pH
d) concentration of substrate
e) all of the above
E
105
The net gain of molecules of ATP solely from glycolysis is
a) 4
b)2
c) 0
d) 19
e) 36
B
106
Fermentation can produce which of the following
a) ethanol
b) proponic acid
c) butyric acid
d) CO2
e) all of the choices
E
107
Homolactic fermentation
a) results in a loss of ATP
b) is not involved in anaerobic respiration
c) is a form of aerobic respiration
d) produces CO2
e) produces lactic acid
E
108
The Krebs cycle only accepts
a) pyruvate from the glycolytic pathway
b) single C products derived from fermentation
c) 3C molecules
d) 2 C molecules
A
109
The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is
a) hydrogen
b) both oxygen and water
c) water
d) oxygen
d) oxygen
110
The majority of electrons are carried to the ETC by
a) FAD
b) NAD+
C) glycolysis
D) the Krebs cycle
e) none of the choices
b) NAD+
111
in anaerobic metabolism, the final electron acceptor can be any of the following except
a) nitrite
b) sulfate
c) oxygen
d) nitrate
C (no oxygen in anaerobic)
112
The total number of ATP molecules that result from the breakdown of one molecule of glucose via glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation by a prokaryote is
a) 4
b)16
c)34
d)38
e)32
d) 38
113
Answer true or false to the following statement: Pathogens with good metabolic function are more successful at causing disease
TRUE
114
T/F: A gastric biopsy is required to determine whether a patient with an ulcer is infected with helicobacteria
FALSE
115
T/F: Iron is critical for the growth of some pathogenic microbes
True
116
Prokaryotes
extremely simple cells that lack a nucleus and other structures enclosed by a membrane
117
Eukaryotes
organisms made up of cells that do contain a membrane enclosed nucleus as well as other membrane-enclosed structures outside the nucleus
118
organelles
membrane enclosed cells
119
cocci
spherical and ovoid bacteria
120
bacilli
rod shaped bacteria
121
spirilla
spiral shaped bacteria
122
spirochetes
flexible and undulating bacteria shape
123
diplococci
two cell arrangements, such as gonorrhea
124
simple stains
only one dye and are used to ID the shape and multicell arrangement of bacteria
125
Differential stains
use 2+ dyes to distinguish either between two or more organisms or between different parts of the same organism
primary dye + decolorizing agent + counterstain
126
gram stain steps
1) apply crystal violet
2) add grams iodine
3) decolorize with alcohol
4) apply safranin
gram positive: purple (contain peptidoglycan wall)
gram negative: pink
127
Negative (capsule) stain
ID bacterial shapes, particularly spirochetes, identifies presence of capsules (limits access of antiseptics , disinfectants, and even antibiotics)
the stain colors only the background and not the cell
128
Flagella Stain
bacteria have flagella (allow for moving), allows organisms to move from the initial site of the infection, flagella stain coats flagella with metals or layers of dye to see them using a microscope
129
Ziehl Neelsen Acid fast Stain
used to detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium leprae (which causes leprosy), have cell wall that contains mycolic acid (waxy) and lipids which make it difficult to penetrate. Only cells with mycolic acid can be stained for being acid fast
130
Endospore stain
differential stain in which sample is colored with malachite green and the endospore walls are thick and need heating to make them permeable to stain
nonspore-red
endospore- green
131
Endospore
small tough dormant structure that forms in bacterial cells and several types of bacteria can undergo sporulation (the process in which endospores are formed)
132
Pathogens
organisms that can infect humans and cause illness in them
133
mutualistic
depend on humans for survival and we live more comfortably with them
most micro organisms are harmless
help protect us from pathogens, produce vitamins, and digest food
134
opportunistic pathogens
organisms that cause disease by taking advantage of a host's increased susceptibility to infection
135
Pathogens must be able to...
a potential pathogen must be able to adhere to, penetrate, and persist in the host cell (get in and stay in)
it must be able avoid, evade, or compromise the host defense mechanisms
it must damage the host and permit the spread of infection
it must be able to exit from one host and infect another host
136
Virulence
how harmful a given pathogen is to a host
137
plasmids
clusters of genes whose activity results in the production of factors that increase its virulents. Bacterial have one chromosome which has mobile genetic elements (plasmids)
138
pathogenicity islands
clusters of virulence genes which occupy distinct regions on the chromosome/plasmid
139
Quorum sensing
specialized sensing proteins relay information about cell's environment to the protiens that regulate transcription of virulence genes (won't become infectious unless enough of a population to cause damage)
140
Biofilms
aggregated assembly of cells which can impede the entry of antimicrobial agent, can capture nutrients, and can increase inflammatory response of hose
141
Steps of biofilms
bacteria begin to accumulate on protein film (substrate layer) then the bacteria can accumulate on the device and be absorbed into it. Next, the bacteria can detach from the device surface and move into liquid surround biofilm ( spreading the infection elsewhere)
biofilm forms a gelatinous mass resistant to host
large pieces of biofilm detach from surface and spread to other locations (sometimes lethal clots)
plaque on teeth is a biofilm
142
Plasma membrane
outer layer of eukaryotic cell, has different amounts of lipids such as cholesterol, phospholipid bilayer allows cell to protect from and interact with environment
fluid mosaic model
143
viral envelope
viral particle acquiers a part of the host's plasma membrane as the particle leaves the infected host cell. This piece of plasma membrane wraps around the virus and corms a viral envelope
144
cytoplasm
eukaryotic, made of semifluids, cytosol, organelles, and membraneless organelles, if infected this is where individual viral particles are manufactured and assembled
145
Cytoskeleton
gives structural integrity
made of microfilaments (scaffolding of cytoskeleton to membrane), intermediate filaments (keratin for strength and stability), and microtubules (hollow tubes of tubulin largest of cytoskeleton)
146
Cilia
microtubules on surface of cell used to move liquids and secretions
147
Flagella
cell motility, protein tubulin
148
ribosome
both prokaryote and eukaryote, responsible for production of proteins, targeted in treatment of bacteria infections (selective toxicity)
149
Mitochondria
ATP produced in folds
creates endosymbiotic theory (bacteria integrated into eukaryotic cells)
150
Endoplasmic Reticulum and golgi apparatus
only in eukaryotes, rough ER (ribosomes) where proteins produced , smooth ER where lipids are produced
Golgi modifies & packages proteins, renews plasma membrane, and produces lysosomes
151
Lysosomes
only eukaryotes
destroy invading microorganisms and any foreign material that gets inside cell, vesicles containing powerful enzymes, can cause phagocytosis
152
Proteosomes
degrade proteins, by tagging with ubiquitin and going through core rings
153
Peroxisomes
organelles responsible for breakdown of fatty acids in cell
154
Nucleus
only in eukaryotes
nuclear membrane (phospholipid bilayer)
nucleoplasm
contains chromatin which condenses into chromosomes
location of transcription
155
endocytosis
cell takes in materials
pinocytosis (vesicles)
phagocytosis (vesicles of pathogens that cells destroy)
receptor-mediated endocytosis (bind on surface of cell)
156
exocytosis
materials leaving cell
vesicles formed by ER and golgi apparatus
157
which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a) alcohol- decolorizer
b) acid- alcohol-decolorizer
c) iodine-mordant
d) gram negative bacteria- staphylococcus
e) none of these choices
E
158
Place steps of the gram stain in the correct order, using this cod: 1 alcohol wash, 2 crystal violet stain, 3 safranin stain, 4 iodine
a) 4-3-2-1
b)2-4-1-3
c)1-2-3-4
d)1-3-2-4
B
159
Name the genus of Neisseria meningitidis
a) meningitidis
b) Nesseria
c) bacjk
d) if-1/2
b
160
which of the following stains allows you to see the capsule of an encapsulated bacterium under the microscope
a) Ziehl Neelsen acid-fast
b) spore
c) gram
d) negative
d
161
Virulence genes are carried on
a) chromosome
b) ribosome
c) chromosome and plasmids
d) ER
e)plasmids
C
162
Virulence genes are often arranged into
a) reservoirs
b) clusters
c) pathogenicity islands
d) plasmids
e)individual chromosomes
c
163
Properties of quorum sensing include which of the following?
a) relaying information about the cell's environment to other proteins
b) regulating genes controlling the transcription of virulence genes
c) detection of pathogen population density
d) involvement of small diffusible molecules
e) all of the above
E
164
Biofilms
a) are aggregations of many bacterial cells
b) often contain polysaccharide matrices
c) protect bacteria
d) all of the above
d
165
organisms that can cause disease even in healthy individuals are
a) primary pathogens
b) opportunistic pathogens
c) variable pathogens
d) directed pathogens
e)none of the choices
a
166
a pathogen must be able to
A) adhere to, penetrate, and persist in host cell
b) avoid, evade, or compromise the hose defense mechanism
c) damage the host and permit the spread of infection
d) all of the above
d
167
Which of the following is false, regarding the gram stain and acid-fast stain
a) in one the primary stain is crystal violet, the other stain is carbolfuchsin
b) mycobacteria stain negative in acid fast and positive in gram stain
c) acid fast bacteria stain poorly or not at all in gam stain
d) in the gram stain a negative cell is red, in acid fast stain a positive result is red
e) one uses alcohol wash, one uses acid-alcohol wash
b
168
Starting from the site of entry of a protein into a proteasome, which is the first part of the proteasome it will encounter
a) ubiquitin
b) first regulatory particle
c) second regulatory particle
d) core particle
a
169
Starting from the site of entry of a protein into a proteasome, which is the second part of the proteasome it will encounter
a) ubiquitin
b) first regulatory particle
c) second regulatory particle
d) core particle
b
170
Starting from the site of entry of a protein into a proteasome, which is the third part of the proteasome it will encounter
a) ubiquitin
b) first regulatory particle
c) second regulatory particle
d) core particle
d
171
Starting from the site of entry of a protein into a proteasome, which is the fourth part of the proteasome it will encounter
a) ubiquitin
b) first regulatory particle
c) second regulatory particle
d) core particle
c
172
virulence factors
characteristics that the pathogens possess that allow them to thrive and survive the host's environment
173
Portal of entry
at an point at which organisms can enter the bod
mucous membranes, skin, and parenteral routes
174
The respiratory tract
most favorable portal of entry to pathogens
also a portal of exit through coughing or sneezing
175
portal of exit
any point at which microorganisms can leave the body
176
The GI tract
enter the body via foods and liquids
many protective barriers against pathogens (stomach acid and bile)
177
Helicobacter pylori
carried gastric mucosa in one out of every two people, increases risk for gastroduodenal ulcers
fecal-oral route of contamination is a source of infections
178
the genitourinary tract
urinary and reproductive tracts
UTI more likely in women & STDs
179
Skin
larges organ in the body (most surface areas for possible contamination)
skin is impenetrable to most organisms unless able to get in through a hair follicle, a perspiration duct, or a break in the skin
180
Parenteral Route
break in skin barrier, injections, bites (vector transmission), and cut/wound severity affects the severity of infection
epidermis-less severe
dermis-more severe
181
Fimbriae
in gram negative organisms, to attach to certain receptors on cells of the small intestine colon bladder
182
adhesins
glycolipids or lipoproteins located on the pathogen surfaces as a means of adhering to tissue
183
pellicle
protein film that coats your teeth and causes tooth decay
184
LD50
lethal dose 50%, the number of organisms required to kill 50% of the hosts, low LD50 means most virulent
185
ID 50
Infectious dose 50%, number of organisms required for 50% of the population to show signs of infection
186
binary fission
how bacteria divide (one bacterium splits into two), low LD50 and short doubling time is extremely dangerous
187
Lytic virus
a virus that functions by filling a host cell with viral particles called virions until host cell burst opens and pours virions into the intercellular fluid (how more hosts are contaminated
188
phagocytosis
phagocyte cells ingest pathogens and then destroy them, cannot attack pathogens with capsules
189
Opsonization
a process where antibody molecules bind to the capsule
190
mycolic acid
waxy substance which inhibits phagocytosis and protects the bacterium against antiseptics, disinfectants, and antibiotics
191
Leukocidins
enzymes that destroy white blood cells in the host (neutrophils and macrophages (phagocytic)), also destroys lymphocytes which are responsible for the adaptive immune response to infection
192
Hemolysins
membrane-damaging toxins that disrupt the plasma membrane of host cells and cause the cells to lyse, can damage red and white blood cell
193
hyaluronidase and collagenase
enzymes that break down connective tissue and collagen in the host
194
kinases
enzymes that break down fibrin and dissolve clots
195
obligate intracellular parasites
only able to survive in one environment, and for viruses that one environment is inside the host cell
196
invasin
produced by salmonella, changes the plasma membrane of host cell
197
Cadherin
used by pathogens to move from one cell to another without ever exposing itself to the host's immune defenses
198
Exotoxins
produced by pathogens and then leave pathogen cells and enter host cells, most lethal, soluble in blood and lymph, cytotoxins, neurotoxins, enterotoxins
antigenic (host produces antibodies) which means that they are easily treated
199
cytotoxins
kill cells that they come in contact with
200
neurotoxins
interfere with neurological signal transmission
201
enterotoxins
affect the lining of the digestive system
202
anthrax
gram positive cytotoxin, toxin interrupts signaling capability of host macrophages and causes their death & disrupts function of dendritic cell
203
Diphtheria
cytotoxin inhibiting protein synthesis, pseudomembranous in back of throat, multiple organ toxicity Corynebacterium diphtheriae
204
Botulinum toxin
Clostridium botulinum, gram positive, inhibit release of acetylcholine which results in paralysis, uses snare proteins to block neurotransmitter release
causes flaccid paralysis
205
Tetanus toxin
Clostrdium tetani, gram positive, neurotoxin blocks relaxation impulse and causes uncontrollable muscle contractions (spasmodic paralysis) and lockjaw, mostly seen in elderly
206
vibrio toxin
cholera toxin
enterotoxin with two poplypeptide chains that bind to the epithelial cells of the digestive system to release large quantities of electrolits
causes severe diarrhea (rice water stool) and vomiting, transmitted through fecal-oral route
207
S. aureus toxin
enterotoxin that affects digestive system and causes toxic shock (loss of electrolyte fluids leads to hypotensive shock), heat stable
208
endotoxins
part of cell wall of gram neg bacteria, only active after a bacterium containing them has dies. less toxic, lipid A, large amounts of endotoxin (such as if using antibiotic) causes DIC, fever, hypotension, septic shock, and death
209
Disseminated intravascular toxin (DIC)
minor clotting occurs throughout the body.
210
Limulus amebocyte lyasate assay LAL
uses white blood cells of horseshoe crab to determine presence of endotoxins, creates gel in endotoxin is present
211
cytopathic effect CPE
virally caused cell death
can be caused by viral overload, cytocidal effect (host defense mechanisms kill virally infected cells) and non-cytocidal effect (virus shuts down host DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis
212
inclusion bodies
cells filled with virus that become visible inside the cell
213
negri bodies
inclusion bodies seen in rabies viral infections and can be diagnostic for the disease
214
a man nicks himself while shaving and the area becomes infected. Which of the following portals of entry did the pathogen probably use
a) gastrointestinal tract
b) respiratory tract
c) genitourinary tract
d) skin (parenteral
e) exotoxin tract
d
215
The adherence of E. coli involves
a) cell surface adhesion molecules binding to receptors on cells lining the respiratory tract
b) adhesion molecules attaching to carbohydrates on respiratory cells
c) bacterial proteins attaching to cells in the reproductive tract
d) adhesion molecules on bacterial flagella attaching to gastrointestinal cells
e)adhesion molecules on bacterial pili attaching to the GI cells
e
216
A pathogen has entered the body. All of the following will have a role in establishment except
a) boring through tissues
b) using adhesions to attach to tissues
c) releasing endotoxin that will cause clotting
d) creating a biofilm on body surface
e) using fimbriae to attach to cell receptors
c
217
The LD50 of a pathogen is the number of organisms require to
a) benefit 50% of the hosts
b) infect 50% of the hosts
c) produce lytic deaminase toxin
d) kill 50% of the hosts
e) none of the choices
d
218
Imagine you are working in a lab and read reports about two different bacteria. Organism A has an ID50 of 20 cells, whereas organism B has an ID50 of 100 cells. Which of the following conclusions would you make
a) organism A must have endotoxin
b) organism A could be considered more virulent than organism B
c) organism B could be considered more virulent than organism A
d) organism B has a portal of entry but organism A does not
B
219
A bacterial toxin that causes damage to the plasma membrane of host red blood cells and results in lysis is
a) coagulase
b) leukocidin
c) collagenase
d) hemolysin
e)hyaluronidase
d
220
A bacterial enzyme that breaks down connective tissue is
a) coagulase
b) hemolysin
c) hyaluronidase
d) all of the choices
e) none of the choices
c
221
In invasin would be used by a microbe to
a) change the nuclear structure of host cells
b) inhibit the functions of host ribosomes
c) increase the rate of bacterial division
d) change the shape of microtubules in host cells
e) change the structure of actin filaments in host cells
E
222
A culture of cells is producing exotoxins. On the basis of this information, the organisms are probably
a) gram negative bacteria
b) viruses
c) gram positive bacteria
d) all dead
e) none of the choices
c
223
Three types of exotoxin are
a) lipopolysaccharide, enterotoxins, and neurotoxins
b) neurotoxins, cytotoxins, and lipid A
c) neurotoxins, cytoxins, and enterotoxins
d) cytotoxins, disseminating clotting toxin, and neurotoxins
e)none of the choices
c
224
botulism toxin as a(n)
a) neurotoxin
b) muscular toxin
c) febrile toxin
d) enterotoxin
e) none of the choices
a
225
Many people refer to tetanus infection with the pathogen Clostridium tetani as "lockjaw" which of the following best explains why? These bacteria
a) produce a toxin that causes jaw muscles to remain contracted
b) produce a capsule that hardens the surface of the jaw
c) product an enzyme that breaks apart jaw muscle cells
d) accumulate in the jaw and prevent proper jaw movement
a
226
Which of the following best describe endotoxins?
a) they are toxins that are produced by dead gram negative and gram positive cells
b) they are toxins that are released by gram-positive cells
c) they are toxins found on Gram negative cell walls
d) they are toxins found on gram positive cell walls
e) they are identical in structure to exotoxins
C
227
A new patient in the intensive care unit has disseminated intravascular clotting (DIC) the patients DIC is probably caused by
a) exotoxins
b) endotoxins
c) enterotoxins
d) vascular toxins
d) neurotoxins
d
228
transmission of infection process
reservoirs of infectious organisms (which are places where pathogens can grow and accumulate)
mechanisms of transmission (which are the various ways in which organisms move from place to place)
229
Three types of reservoirs
humans, other animals, and nonliving reservoirs
230
Human reservoirs
found in infected people who are carriers (typhoid mary)
231
Animal reservoir
zoonotic diseases (animals to humans), ex) rabies and lymes disease, occur after direct contact or indirect contact
232
Nonliving reservoir
water (most dangerous), food, and soil
233
mechanisms of transmission
contact transmission
vehicle transmission
vector transmission
234
contact transmission
a healthy person is exposed to pathogens by either touching or being close to an infected person or object
can be direct, indirect, or droplet
235
indirect contact transmission
intermediate non living articles known as fomites
236
Vehicle transmission
pathogens "riding" along on supposedly clean components ex)food
most difficult vehicle is air becuase it can contain dust, microbial spores and fungal spores
237
vector transmission
pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person by a carrier known to be associated with some diseases, usually arthropods
238
mechanical vector transmission
the vector's body parts are contaminated with the infecting microorganisms and they are passively "passed off" onto the host
ex) fly touches trash and then touches food host consumes
239
biological vector transmission
occurs through a bite
ex) flea bites rat and then bites person giving the person the plague
240
Factors affecting disease transmission
age, gender, lifestyle, occupation, emotional state, and climate
241
climate and disease
1) increased respiratory infections in colder climates
2) warmer climates allow longer periods when vectors are present
3) climate can effect changes in the variety of infectious organisms that may be present in a given location
242
Neutropenia
lower-than-normal number of neutrophils (white blood cells that kill and digest bacteria), common in cytotoxic chemotherapy
primarily bacterial and fungal
243
Organ transplants
immunological differences between patient and transplant organs requires meds to lessen immune response against the organ but also lessens their overall immune capability which causes them to be more susceptible to infection
244
Burn patients
loss of large area of primary physical barrier to infection
greater risk of septicemia (blood poisoning/ sepsis)
245
Opportunistic infections
any infection acquired from microorganisms that are part of our normal microflora
ex) E. coli traveling from anus to urethra causes UTI
246
Sources of nosocomial infection
break in skin, IV applications, urinary and other catheters, invasive tests, and surgical procedures
247
what do hospitals consider when limiting nosocomial infections
source of infection, mode of transmission of the pathogen, susceptibility of the patient to infection, prevention and control
(staff, insects, water, medical supplies)
248
MRSA and VRSA
MRSA: methicillin resistant S. aureus
VRSA: vancomycin resistant S. aureus
few alternative antibiotic treatments
249
Epidemiology
study of the factors and mechanisms involved in frequency and spread of diseases or other health-related problems, and is an important part of understanding disease
250
incidence
number of new cases contracted within a set population in a specific period
251
prevalence
total number of people infected within a population at any given time
252
Morbidity rate
number of individuals affected by the disease during a set period divided by the total population
253
mortality rate
the number of deaths due to a specific disease during a specific period divided by the total population
254
sporadic diseaseas
occur in a random and unpredictable manner and pose no threat to public health
255
endemic
refers to diseases that are constantly in the population but in numbers too low to be a public health problem ex)common cold
256
epidemic
occurs when the incidence of a disease suddenly becomes higher than the normally expected number of individuals affected by the disease ex) flu
257
pandemic
when a disease occurs in an epidemic proportions throughout the world
258
common source outbreak
epidemic that arises from contact with contaminated substances and most commonly occurs either when a water supply is contaminated with fecal material or when food is improperly prepared. Although common source outbreaks affect large numbers of people, they quickly subside when the source of contamination has been identified and resolved
259
propagated epidemic
results from amplification of the
number of infected individuals as person-to-person contacts occur.
Propagated epidemics stay in the population for long periods and are
more difficult to deal with than common-source outbreaks.
260
Descriptive epidemiological studies
concerned with the physical
aspects of patients and the spread of the disease. These studies include
data on the number of cases and on which segment of a population was
affected.
261
analytical epidemiological studies
establishing a
cause-and-effect relationship. These studies are always done in conjunction
with a control group, which is a population known to be free of the
disease being studied.
262
retrospective analytical study
one in which
the records of patients who have already contracted the disease are studied.
Using this type of already-available patient information, workers
running retrospective studies can take into account a wide variety of factors
that preceded an epidemic so that they can narrow down the potential
causes.
263
Prospective analytical studies
do not allow the
benefit of hindsight; in this type of study, data are analyzed as they are
collected. In other words, prospective studies consider factors that occur
as the epidemic proceeds.
264
In which of the following reservoirs are the organisms that cause Lyme disease found
a) animal
b) nonliving
c) other human
a
265
In which of the following reservoirs are the organisms that cause cholera found?
a) animal
b) nonliving
c) other human
b
266
In which of the following reservoirs are the organisms that cause typhoid fever found?
a) animal
b) nonliving
c) other human
c
267
In which of the following reservoirs are the organisms that cause measles found?
a) animal
b) nonliving
c) other human
c
268
In which of the following reservoirs are the organisms that cause anthrax found?
a) animal
b) nonliving
c) other human
a
269
Nonliving reservoirs include all of the following except
a) food
b) water
c) soil
d) air
e) ticks
e
270
Direct contact transmission occur because of
a) the shared us of dirty towels
b) inhaling air containing droplets from a sick person's cough
c) an infected person kissing a non infected person
d)a tick bite
c
271
HIV transmitted by a contaminated needle is an example of
a) direct contact transmission
b) droplet contact transmission
c) indirect contact transmission
d) vector transmission
c
272
The most common cause of profound neutropenia is
a) a congenital disorder characterized by poor bone marrow function
b) the administration of cytotoxic chemotherapy
c) cancer or other diseases that damage bone marrow
d) viral infections
e) autoimmune disorders that destroy neutrophils of bone marrow cells
b
273
Examples of vehicles for disease transmission include
a) water
b) air
c) blood
d) IV fluids
e) all of the above
e
274
To prevent the transmission of a disease from human to human, health workers immunized 90% of the population. However 99% of the population was free of the disease. The reason for this was
a) transmission was by air droplets
b) transmission was by fecal oral route
c) the portal of entry was the skin
d) the vector population was large
e) to enable herd immunity to function
e
275
Nosocomial infections are almost always seen
a) in healthcare setting
b) in the very young
c) in the elderly
d) in debilitated patients
a
276
The most common site of a nosocomial infection is
a) the brain
b) the urinary tract
c) the digestive system
d) the eyes
b
277
The most likely fomite for a nosocomial infection is a
a) nebulizer
b) bed sheet
c) catheter
d) humidifier
e) contaminated needle
c
278
Universal procedures are required
a) in all medical facilities in the US
b) only when an infection occurs
c) only in major hospitals
d) only in nursing homes
a
279
The number of new cases of a disease contracted per a set number of people per unit of time is its
a) prevalence
b) mortality rate
c) morbidity rate
d) incidence rate
e) none of the above
d
280
Diseases that occur in a random and unpredictable manner are referred to as
a) pandemic
b) epidemic
c) sporadic
d) endemic
c
281
The total number of people infected within a population at any given time is its
a) prevalence
b) mortality rate
c) incidence
d) epidemic number
a
282
The total number of cases of polio in the world was 1300 in 2007, 1550 in 2008, 14000 in 2009 and 1350 in 2010. From this information we describe polio as an ___ worldwide
a) endemic
b) epidemic
c) pandemic
d) sporadic
e) none of the above
a
283
correct/incorrect: the sensitivity of a diagnostic test is important because it discriminates between the true pathogen and other similar pathogens
incorrect
284
correct/incorrect: it is the important to circumvent the patient's normal flora because otherwise it can make the pathogen isolation and identification difficult or impossible
correct
285
correct/incorrect: diagnostic work is usually done according to standard operating procedures, because every effort is made to prevent legal complications
correct
286
Is the reason given correct or incorrect in the following statement? because biotechnological advances will impact the health care community, health care professionals should have a basic understanding of how they are being made
correct
287
correct/incorrect: monoclonal antibodies are commonly used today because they are powerful tools for diagnosing infectious disease and cancer, and for detecting harmful microorganisms in food
correct
288
Which of the hybridoma and phage display techniques is used when the host animal is the source of the antibody
a) phage display only
b) hybridoma only
c) both
d) neither
c
289
Which of the hybridoma and phage display techniques is used to enlarge an antibody library?
a) phage display only
b) hybridoma only
c) both
d) neither
a
290
Which of the hybridoma and phage display techniques is used to select genes with the desired binding capacity
a) phage display only
b) hybridoma only
c) both
d) neither
a
291
Which of the hybridoma and phage display techniques uses only mouse immunization
a) phage display only
b) hybridoma only
c) both
d) neither
b
292
Which of the hybridoma and phage display techniques is used to produce polyclonal antibody
a) phage display only
b) hybridoma only
c) both
d) neither
d
293
Phage display
Phage display is a molecular biology technique by which phage genomes are modified in such a way that the coat proteins of assembled virions are fused to other proteins or peptides of interest (of any origin), displaying them thus to the external milieu.
294
Hybridoma
Hybridoma technology involves fusing short-lived antibody-producing B cells with immortal myeloma cells, creating cell lines that produce a never-ending supply of a specific monoclonal antibody.
295
disease
any negative change in a persons health
296
etiology
cause of disease
disease is caused by microorganisms invading a host's body, these microorganisms are etiological agents of disease
297
Microbial flora
normal microorganisms located in many places in the body ex) large intestine has the largest population of bacteria
298
commensalism
one partner is benefited but the other is unaffected
299
mutualism
one in which the host offers benefits to the bacteria and the bacteria offer benefits to the hose
300
parasitism
one of the partners benefits at the expense of the other (relationship we see with pathogens)
301
microbial antagonism
microbial flora can protect us from disease, microflora are well established and competitively inhibit pathogens, however many normally harmless resident bacteria are opportunistic pathogens
302
Kochs postulates
the same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease
the pathogen must be isolated from the sick host and purified
the pure pathogen must cause the same disease when given uninfected hosts
the pathogen must be re-isolated from these newly infected hots
303
incubation
the time between the initial infection and the first symptoms of the disease, depends on virulence of the pathogen
304
prodromal period
first mild symptoms appear
305
period of illness
major symptoms are noted, immune response is at it's highest, patients may die
306
period of decline
symptoms subside indication of end of illness but also when patient may acquire a second infection (opportunistic and nosocomial)
307
period of convalescence
patient regains strength and proceeds to full recovery
308
communicable
disease can spread from one person to another, opposite is non-communicable
309
contagious
communicable diseases that spread very easily (such as when in contact with an infected individual)
310
Three method of control for communicable diseases
isolation (prevent individual from coming in contact with general population), quarantine (separating healthy individuals who may have been exposed to a communicable disease) and vector control (destruction of vector habitats and the inhibition of vector breeding habits and feeding behaviors)
311
vector
any organism that carries disease pathogens from one host to another
312
acute diseases
develop quickly but last only for a short time
313
chronic diseases
develop slowly but remain for long periods
314
subacute
insidious onset that can take 6-12 months but can be fatal
315
latent diseases
those that remain in the host after the initial signs and symptoms disappear and can become reactivated after long periods
316
granulomas
bodies made up of host defense cells, activated macrophages aggregate into gigantic cells similar to the syncytia
317
herd immunity
immunity can be conferred through vaccination or developed after infection, when most of the population becomes immune, the disease essentially disappeared because there were no more potential hosts in the "herd" ex) small pox
318
local infection
host defenses wall off an infection and keep it in a singular section, these infections are easiest to deal with
319
focus of infection
when pathogens find a way to move from their original location in a host and congregate in another location
320
systematic infection
infection has moved away from the focus of infection and is accomplished when pathogens gain access to blood to lymph
321
bacterema
bacteria in blood, if organisms are growing in blood the condition is known as septicemiat
322
toxemia
toxins move through the blood
323
viremia
viruses move through blood
324
primary infection
one causing the initial acute onset of symptoms
325
subclinial infection
one in which symptoms do not appear even though the infection is ongoing
326
secondary infection
one that establishes itself in a host weakend by some primary infection
327
toxic shock
there is massive leakage of plasma from the circulation that causes blood pressure to plummet
328
sepsis syndrome
general term indicating the presence of either pathogenic organisms or their toxins in the blood
329
severe sepsis
signs of systematic inflammation and organ dysfunction
330
Emerging infectious diseases
those whose incidence in humans have either increased in the past 30 years or threaten to increase in the near future
331
Re-emerging infectious diseases
diseases that were previously controlled but now have returned
332
environment infectious disease
humans encroaching on nature leads to more infectious diseases such as niaph, hanta, and lyme
333
food-borne infectious disease
many through improperly prepared meat and wild animals demand
334
Reassortment
gene "shuffling" in which an organism's genes rearrange themselves and cause changes in the characteristics of the organism
335
hurdles in interspecies transfer
must adapt to be able to replicate in human cells
must configure itself so that it can be easily transmitted from one human to another
336
emerging infectious disease
mostly viral, because jump to species is adjusted easiest (done through RNA mutation, recombination, and re-assortment)
337
SARS
severe accute respiratory syndrome, animal coronavirus in southern China that causes fever, malaise, and lymphopenia
338
arboviruses
carried by arthropods
