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Microbiology > Micro class exam 1 > Flashcards

Micro class exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

It’s the microbes who will have the last word

A

Louis Pasteur

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2
Q

She was puzzled as to why learned people didn’t adopt chemistry as a religion

A

Betty Smith

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3
Q

Inhalation anthrax

A

Bacillus anthracis

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4
Q

immunocompromised

A

a condition in which a persons immune system is not properly functioning, causes difficulty dealing with illness

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5
Q

Echerichia coli

A

bacterial hemorrhagic disease, enterohemorrhagic bacteria
gram negative

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6
Q

nosocomial

A

hospital acquired infections

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7
Q

virulence

A

the potential to cause disease

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8
Q

epidemiology

A

the study of the factors determining the frequency and distribution of disease

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9
Q

pathogenesis

A

the study of how disease develops

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10
Q

innate immune response

A

nonspecific defense
first line of defense by the host
lethal for most diseases

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11
Q

adaptive immune response

A

lethal and specific
has the benefit of memory

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12
Q

Peptidoglycan

A

main component of cell wall, not found in human cells

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13
Q

Which of the following is true about the relationship between humans and pathogens
a) the human body has its own population of microbes
b)most microbes are pathogenic and cause disease
c) humans do not come into contact with many microbes
d) non-pathogenic organisms can never be pathogenic

A

A

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14
Q

In the past 10 years the earth has become warmer. this has probably caused which of the following
a) more respiratory disease (transmitted by droplets)
b) spread of insect-transmitted disease
c) less respiratory disease
d) less digestive disease

A

B

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15
Q

If the availability of clean drinking water decreases, then we can expect
a) more respiratory disease
b) more digestive disease
c) more insect-borne disease
d) less respiratory disease

A

B

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16
Q

A term reserved for diseases acquired in a clinical setting is a(n) _____ infection
a) enterohemorrhagic
b) contagious factors
c) nosocomial
d) multi-drug resistant
e) acute

A

C

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17
Q

Which type of microorganism causes the majority of infectious disease
A) bacteria
b) fungi
c)parasites
d) viruses

A

D-viruses

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18
Q

Which of the following are important in guarding against the spread of infectious disease?
A) handwashing between working with different patients in healthcare situations
b) handwashing after using restrooms
c) handwashing before and after food preparation
d) none of the choices
e) all of the choices

A

E

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19
Q

The general term for features of microorganisms that enhance pathogenesis
a) virulence factors
b) toxins
c) inflammatory agents
d) antibiotics

A

a) virulence factors

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20
Q

Redness swelling and pain indicate which of the following
a) inflammation
b) blush reflex
c) presence of non-pathogenic organisms
d) adaptive immune response

A

A

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21
Q

Why are infectious diseases a serious healthcare problem in the developed world again?
a) the human immune system is becoming less effective
b) there is increasing resistance to treatments that were once completely effective
c) there are more pathogenic organisms than there used to be
d) pathogens have a wider variety of mechanisms to damage host cells

A

B

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22
Q

Protons

A

located in the nucleus of the atom, have a positive charge

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23
Q

atomic number

A

equal to the number of protons in the core of that atom

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24
Q

Neutrons

A

located in the core of the atom but have no charge. the atomic weight of an element equals the number of protons plus neutrons

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25
Q

electrons

A

these atomic particles have a negative charge and are located in shells (or clouds) that surround the core of the atom. In neutral molecules the number of uncharged electrons equals the number of protons

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26
Q

cation

A

lost an electron, positive

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27
Q

ion

A

gains an electron, negative

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28
Q

nonpolar covalent bond

A

sharing of the electrons between two atoms is equal

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29
Q

polar covalent bond

A

the sharing of electrons between two atoms is unequal (one side pulling more than the other) results in a weak electric charge

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30
Q

Why is water the most important component of life

A

1) solubility (spheres of hydration saturate)
2) reactivity (dehydration synthesis and hydrolysis)
3) heat capacity

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31
Q

dehydration synthesis

A

removal of a water molecule to build molecules

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32
Q

hydrolysis

A

addition of a water molecule to break down molecules

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33
Q

Carbohydrates

A

cellulose and starch, broken down and stored as glycogen

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34
Q

Lipids

A

chemically diverse group of substances that includes fats, phospholipids, and steroids. Lipids are used as energy sources

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35
Q

Fatty acids

A

long chains of C with bound hydrogens, a fat is made of 3C molecule glycerol

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36
Q

Other forms of lipids

A

phospolipids (lipid + phosphate)
Glycolipid (lipid + carbohydrate)
Steroids

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37
Q

formation of proteins

A

made of amino acids, form a peptide bond between amino and carboxyl group, amino acids link into peptides and peptides link into proteins, if amino acids contain sulfur atoms they form disulfide bridges used in protein folding

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38
Q

primary protein structure

A

sequence of amino acids in polypeptide chain

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39
Q

secondary protein structure

A

a folding or coiling of the polypeptide
that is brought about by the sequence of the amino acids and hydrogen
bonds that form between amino acids. This secondary folding is usually
seen as either a helix or a pleated sheet form.

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40
Q

Tertiary protein structure

A

folding of the chain upon itself. This
folding confers the major three-dimensional structure of the polypeptide
and is held in place in part by hydrogen bonding and the formation
of disulfide bridges. This folding can result in several shapes, including
globular and fibrous (threadlike) structures.

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41
Q

Quaternary protein structure

A

occurs in very large proteins for which more
than one polypeptide is joined together. This joining together of individual
polypeptide chains also occurs through the formation of bonds
and between amino acids in the individual polypeptide chains.

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42
Q

Nucleic acids

A

cellular info and energy
deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) had adenine, thymine, guanine, or cytosine
ribonucleic acid (RNA) has that but with uracil instead of thymine

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43
Q

Purines

A

two aromatic rings, adenine and guanine

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44
Q

Pyrimidines

A

one aromatic ring, cytosine, thymine, and uracil

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45
Q

ATP

A

adenosine triphosphate
major energy molecule in biological systems
remove phosphate to get energy (create ADP), then recycle ADP into more ATP

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46
Q

An atom has 17 electrons it is most likely to
a) be inert
b) form an anion
c) form a cation
d) react with a Cl- ion

A

B) form an anion

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47
Q

Electron sharing leads to covalent bonds which compound contains covalent bonds
a) H2O
b) Glucose
c) fatty acids
d) amino acids
e) all of the choices

A

E- all of the choices

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48
Q

Order the substances based on the most acidic first. which is the most acidic?
a) gastric fluids
b) pure water
c) baking soda
d) soap solutions
e) tomatoes

A

A, e, b, c,d

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49
Q

which of the following has just two reactive groups
a) amino acids
b) fatty acids
c) glucose
d) proteins
e) nucleic acids

A

a) amino acids

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50
Q

Which of these is not a component of the plasma membrane
a) triglyceride
b) phospholipid
c) glucose
d) cholesterol
e) glycolipid

A

c

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51
Q

Which is not a component of DNA
a) cytosine
b) deoxyribose
c) phosphate
d) ribose
e) thymine

A

d) ribose

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52
Q

Metabolism

A

the chemical process that goes on inside any living organism

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53
Q

Autotrophy

A

“self feeding” obtain carbon atoms from inorganic sources (such as CO2)
photoautotrophs use sunlight ex) plants
chemoautotrophs use chemical reactions with nitrates and sulfates

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54
Q

Heterotrophy

A

get carbon atoms from organic molecules present in other organisms
photoheterotrophs obtain energy from sunlight and convert it to chemical energy
chemoheterotrophs obtain energy by breaking down organic compounds

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55
Q

Catabolism

A

all metabolic processes in which molecules are broken down to release the energy stored in their chemical bonds
involves electron transfer

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56
Q

Anabolism

A

metabolic processes in which energy is derived from catabolism is used to build large organic molecules from smaller ones
involve electron transfer

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57
Q

redox reaction

A

oxidation reaction and reduction partner
reduction (gains electron)
oxidation (loses electron)

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58
Q

aerobic respiration

A

metabolism that uses oxygen
38 ATP for every molecule of glucose

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59
Q

anaerobic respiration

A

metabolism that occurs without the use of oxygen
2 ATP for every molecule of glucose

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60
Q

facultative anaerobes

A

organisms that can carry out metabolic processes either way, aerobically or anaerobically

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61
Q

enzymes

A

protein molecules with distinct 3D shape
act as a catalyst by lowering the energy of activation

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62
Q

Enzyme substrate complex

A

when the substrate is bonded to the enzyme at the active site
causes chemical bonds in the substrate molecule to change and leads to formation of a product

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63
Q

cofactor enzyme

A

enzyme requires the help of a cofactor ( a separate inorganic nonprotein substance) to be able to react with the substrate. Works allosterically (does not bind to active site)

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64
Q

coenzyme

A

nonprotein organic molecule that must bind to the active site of the enzyme to allow the enzyme to react with the substrate

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65
Q

carrier molecules

A

present in metabolic reactions and can carry H atoms or electrons in redox reactions. Ex) cofactors and coenzymes

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66
Q

Common carrier molecules in biological reactions

A

FAD (flavin adenine dinucleotide) (can carry 2 H and 2e-, called FADH2)
NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide)

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67
Q

competitive inhibition

A

inhibitor molecule similar in structure to the substrate for a given enzyme competes with the substrate to bind to the enzyme’s active site

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68
Q

Allosteric inhibition

A

molecules bind to the allosteric site (a separate part of the enzyme, not the active site) this causes the active site to change shape and prevents substrate from binding

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69
Q

Feedback inhibition

A

final product in a pathway accumulates and begins to bind to and inactivate the enzyme that catalyzes the first reaction of the pathway

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70
Q

factors that affect enzyme reactions

A

temperature, pH, concentration of substrate/product/enzyme

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71
Q

Glycolysis

A

carbohydrate such as glucose is broken down through a series of steps that ultimately result in the production of 2 molecules of ATP for each glucose, process occurs at cytoplasm and does not require oxygen, forms NADH, pyruvate, and ATP

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72
Q

Kreps cycle

A

aerobic cellular respiration using the pyruvate from glycolysis
to enter the Krebs cycle the 3C pyruvate from glycolysis must be modified to a 2C acetyl group by losing a carbon as CO2
1) carbon is oxidized to CO2
2) electrons are transferred to coenzyme carrier molecules that take the electrons to the electron transport chain
3) energy is captured and stored when ADP is converted to ATP

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73
Q

Electron Transport Chain

A

cellular process in which electrons are transferred to final electron acceptor (for aerobic this is oxygen)
series of redox reactions
NADH enters ETC and passes on it’s electrons who’s energy is released through chemiomosis
Krebs + ETC yields 36 ATP

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74
Q

location of ETC

A

Eukaryotes: protons pumped between mitochondria and intermembrane space
Prokaryotes: ETC pumps protons across plasma membrane

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75
Q

Proton motive force

A

ETC create a high proton concentration inside the cell which forms a concentration gradient to pump against, gradient is known as proton motive force

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76
Q

Fermentation

A

enzymatic breakdown of carbohydrates in which the final electron acceptor is an organic molecule, only has 2ATP yielded during glycolysis, different organisms use different fermentation pathways

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77
Q

Homolactic fermentation

A

pyruvate molecule is converted directly to lactate with reactions driven by the energy of the electrons from NADH, does not have gas byproduct, aka lactic fermentation

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78
Q

Alcoholic fermentation

A

CO2 released by pyruvate to for acetaldehyde, reduced to ethanol using NADH

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79
Q

Choose best description for enzyme from the following
a) precursor of protein
b) catalyst
c) inorganic compound
d) precursor of ethanol
e) ethanol

A

B) catalyst

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80
Q

Choose the best match for alcohol from the following
a) catalyst
b) precursor of ethanol
c) ethanol
d) inorganic compound
e)Precursor of protein

A

C)ethanol

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81
Q

choose the best match for acetaldehyde from the following
a) precursor of protein
b) inorganic compound
c) catalyst
d) ethanol
e)precursor of ethanol

A

e) precursor of ethanol

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82
Q

Choose the best match for CO2 from the following
a) precursor of protein
b) inorganic compound
c) catalyst
d) ethanol
e)precursor of ethanol

A

b) inorganic compound

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83
Q

Choose the best match for amino acid from the following
a) precursor of protein
b) inorganic compound
c) catalyst
d) ethanol
e)precursor of ethanol

A

a) precursor of protein

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84
Q

Choose the best match for energy of activation from the following
a) energy required to start a reaction
b) stabilize water and protein structure
c) where enzyme catalyzed reactions occur
d) uneven distribution of a chemical in solution or across a membrane
e) released by catabolic reactions

A

a) energy required to start a reaction

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85
Q

Choose the best match for energy (fuel) from the following
a) energy required to start a reaction
b) stabilize water and protein structure
c) where enzyme catalyzed reactions occur
d) uneven distribution of a chemical in solution or across a membrane
e) released by catabolic reactions

A

e) released by catabolic reactions

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86
Q

Choose the best match for gradient from the following
a) energy required to start a reaction
b) stabilize water and protein structure
c) where enzyme catalyzed reactions occur
d) uneven distribution of a chemical in solution or across a membrane
e) released by catabolic reactions

A

c)where enzyme catalysed reactions occur

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87
Q

Choose the best match for hydrogen bonding from the following
a) energy required to start a reaction
b) stabilize water and protein structure
c) where enzyme catalyzed reactions occur
d) uneven distribution of a chemical in solution or across a membrane
e) released by catabolic reactions

A

b) stabilize water and protein structure

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88
Q

Choose the best match for active site from the following
a) energy required to start a reaction
b) stabilize water and protein structure
c) where enzyme catalyzed reactions occur
d) uneven distribution of a chemical in solution or across a membrane
e) released by catabolic reactions

A

a) energy required to start a reaction

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89
Q

Which of the following is a product of catabolism
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) pyruvic acid
d) protein
e) phospholipid

A

c) pyruvic acid

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90
Q

Which of the following is a product of anabolism?
a) CO2 generated during oxidative phosphorylation
b) H+ generated during oxidative phosphorylation
c) lactic acid generated during fermentation
d) acetic acid generated during fermentation
e) lipoproteins generated in membranes

A

b) H+ generated during oxidative phosphorylation

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91
Q

Autotrophic organisms obtain carbon from
a) organic molecules
b) photosynthesis
c) CO2
d) the soil
e) water

A

c) CO2

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92
Q

Heterotrophic organisms obtain carbon from
a) organic molecules
b) photosynthesis
c) CO2
d) the soil
e) water

A

a)organic molecules

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93
Q

Anabolism is the process in which
a) molecules are broken down
b) molecules are transported out of the cell
c) energy in the form of ATP is used up
d) energy in the form of ATP is released

A

c) energy in the for of ATP is used up

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94
Q

Catabolism is the process in which
a) energy is used up
b) molecules are transferred out of the cell
c) molecules are built up
d) molecules are broken down

A

d) molecules are broken down

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95
Q

Oxidation is defined as
a) gaining an electron
b) losing an electron
c) utilizing CO2 for metabolism
d) destroying CO2 during metabolism
e) none of the above

A

B

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96
Q

during a redox reaction
a) protons are lost
b) electrons are gained and lost
c) electrons are generated
d) protons are gained
e) electrons are not used at all

A

B

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97
Q

During a reduction reaction a substance
a) gains an electron and becomes more positively charged
b) loses an electron and becomes positively charged
c) gains an electron and becomes more negatively or less positively charged
d) loses an electron and becomes more negatively charged
e) neither gains or loses an electron

A

C

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98
Q

In prokaryotes, the greatest amount of ATP per glucose molecule is produced through
a) aerobic cellular respiration
b) fermentation
c) anaerobic respiration
d) both 1&2
e) none of the choices

A

A

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99
Q

Organisms that can metabolize either in the presence or absence of oxygen are called
a) obligate anaerobes
b) micro-aerobes
c) obligate aerobes
d) facultative anaerobes

A

D

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100
Q

Complete oxidation of glucose yields
a) only CO2 and water
b) Only CO2 and energy
c) only CO2
d) none of these choices

A

C, makes CO2 water and 38 ATP

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101
Q

enzymes
a) cause a reaction to happen
b) cause a reaction to happen more slowly
c) increase the activation energy
d) decrease the energy of activation

A

D

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102
Q

Which of the following can be required for an enzyme to function
a)cofactors
b)coenzymes
c) prosthetic groups
d) metal ions
e) all of the choices

A

E

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103
Q

Allosteric inhibition occurs
a) because of conformational changes in the enzyme
b) at the active site
c) because a compound binds at a site which reduces the maximum rate at which the enzyme works
d) when inhibitors bind close to the active site
e) because of a molecule identical to the substrate

A

a

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104
Q

Which of the following affect enzyme activity
a) concentration of product
b) temperature
c) pH
d) concentration of substrate
e) all of the above

A

E

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105
Q

The net gain of molecules of ATP solely from glycolysis is
a) 4
b)2
c) 0
d) 19
e) 36

A

B

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106
Q

Fermentation can produce which of the following
a) ethanol
b) proponic acid
c) butyric acid
d) CO2
e) all of the choices

A

E

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107
Q

Homolactic fermentation
a) results in a loss of ATP
b) is not involved in anaerobic respiration
c) is a form of aerobic respiration
d) produces CO2
e) produces lactic acid

A

E

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108
Q

The Krebs cycle only accepts
a) pyruvate from the glycolytic pathway
b) single C products derived from fermentation
c) 3C molecules
d) 2 C molecules

A

A

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109
Q

The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is
a) hydrogen
b) both oxygen and water
c) water
d) oxygen

A

d) oxygen

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110
Q

The majority of electrons are carried to the ETC by
a) FAD
b) NAD+
C) glycolysis
D) the Krebs cycle
e) none of the choices

A

b) NAD+

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111
Q

in anaerobic metabolism, the final electron acceptor can be any of the following except
a) nitrite
b) sulfate
c) oxygen
d) nitrate

A

C (no oxygen in anaerobic)

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112
Q

The total number of ATP molecules that result from the breakdown of one molecule of glucose via glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation by a prokaryote is
a) 4
b)16
c)34
d)38
e)32

A

d) 38

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113
Q

Answer true or false to the following statement: Pathogens with good metabolic function are more successful at causing disease

A

TRUE

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114
Q

T/F: A gastric biopsy is required to determine whether a patient with an ulcer is infected with helicobacteria

A

FALSE

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115
Q

T/F: Iron is critical for the growth of some pathogenic microbes

A

True

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116
Q

Prokaryotes

A

extremely simple cells that lack a nucleus and other structures enclosed by a membrane

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117
Q

Eukaryotes

A

organisms made up of cells that do contain a membrane enclosed nucleus as well as other membrane-enclosed structures outside the nucleus

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118
Q

organelles

A

membrane enclosed cells

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119
Q

cocci

A

spherical and ovoid bacteria

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120
Q

bacilli

A

rod shaped bacteria

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121
Q

spirilla

A

spiral shaped bacteria

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122
Q

spirochetes

A

flexible and undulating bacteria shape

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123
Q

diplococci

A

two cell arrangements, such as gonorrhea

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124
Q

simple stains

A

only one dye and are used to ID the shape and multicell arrangement of bacteria

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125
Q

Differential stains

A

use 2+ dyes to distinguish either between two or more organisms or between different parts of the same organism
primary dye + decolorizing agent + counterstain

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126
Q

gram stain steps

A

1) apply crystal violet
2) add grams iodine
3) decolorize with alcohol
4) apply safranin
gram positive: purple (contain peptidoglycan wall)
gram negative: pink

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127
Q

Negative (capsule) stain

A

ID bacterial shapes, particularly spirochetes, identifies presence of capsules (limits access of antiseptics , disinfectants, and even antibiotics)
the stain colors only the background and not the cell

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128
Q

Flagella Stain

A

bacteria have flagella (allow for moving), allows organisms to move from the initial site of the infection, flagella stain coats flagella with metals or layers of dye to see them using a microscope

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129
Q

Ziehl Neelsen Acid fast Stain

A

used to detect Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium leprae (which causes leprosy), have cell wall that contains mycolic acid (waxy) and lipids which make it difficult to penetrate. Only cells with mycolic acid can be stained for being acid fast

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130
Q

Endospore stain

A

differential stain in which sample is colored with malachite green and the endospore walls are thick and need heating to make them permeable to stain
nonspore-red
endospore- green

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131
Q

Endospore

A

small tough dormant structure that forms in bacterial cells and several types of bacteria can undergo sporulation (the process in which endospores are formed)

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132
Q

Pathogens

A

organisms that can infect humans and cause illness in them

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133
Q

mutualistic

A

depend on humans for survival and we live more comfortably with them
most micro organisms are harmless
help protect us from pathogens, produce vitamins, and digest food

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134
Q

opportunistic pathogens

A

organisms that cause disease by taking advantage of a host’s increased susceptibility to infection

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135
Q

Pathogens must be able to…

A

a potential pathogen must be able to adhere to, penetrate, and persist in the host cell (get in and stay in)
it must be able avoid, evade, or compromise the host defense mechanisms
it must damage the host and permit the spread of infection
it must be able to exit from one host and infect another host

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136
Q

Virulence

A

how harmful a given pathogen is to a host

137
Q

plasmids

A

clusters of genes whose activity results in the production of factors that increase its virulents. Bacterial have one chromosome which has mobile genetic elements (plasmids)

138
Q

pathogenicity islands

A

clusters of virulence genes which occupy distinct regions on the chromosome/plasmid

139
Q

Quorum sensing

A

specialized sensing proteins relay information about cell’s environment to the protiens that regulate transcription of virulence genes (won’t become infectious unless enough of a population to cause damage)

140
Q

Biofilms

A

aggregated assembly of cells which can impede the entry of antimicrobial agent, can capture nutrients, and can increase inflammatory response of hose

141
Q

Steps of biofilms

A

bacteria begin to accumulate on protein film (substrate layer) then the bacteria can accumulate on the device and be absorbed into it. Next, the bacteria can detach from the device surface and move into liquid surround biofilm ( spreading the infection elsewhere)
biofilm forms a gelatinous mass resistant to host
large pieces of biofilm detach from surface and spread to other locations (sometimes lethal clots)
plaque on teeth is a biofilm

142
Q

Plasma membrane

A

outer layer of eukaryotic cell, has different amounts of lipids such as cholesterol, phospholipid bilayer allows cell to protect from and interact with environment
fluid mosaic model

143
Q

viral envelope

A

viral particle acquiers a part of the host’s plasma membrane as the particle leaves the infected host cell. This piece of plasma membrane wraps around the virus and corms a viral envelope

144
Q

cytoplasm

A

eukaryotic, made of semifluids, cytosol, organelles, and membraneless organelles, if infected this is where individual viral particles are manufactured and assembled

145
Q

Cytoskeleton

A

gives structural integrity
made of microfilaments (scaffolding of cytoskeleton to membrane), intermediate filaments (keratin for strength and stability), and microtubules (hollow tubes of tubulin largest of cytoskeleton)

146
Q

Cilia

A

microtubules on surface of cell used to move liquids and secretions

147
Q

Flagella

A

cell motility, protein tubulin

148
Q

ribosome

A

both prokaryote and eukaryote, responsible for production of proteins, targeted in treatment of bacteria infections (selective toxicity)

149
Q

Mitochondria

A

ATP produced in folds
creates endosymbiotic theory (bacteria integrated into eukaryotic cells)

150
Q

Endoplasmic Reticulum and golgi apparatus

A

only in eukaryotes, rough ER (ribosomes) where proteins produced , smooth ER where lipids are produced
Golgi modifies & packages proteins, renews plasma membrane, and produces lysosomes

151
Q

Lysosomes

A

only eukaryotes
destroy invading microorganisms and any foreign material that gets inside cell, vesicles containing powerful enzymes, can cause phagocytosis

152
Q

Proteosomes

A

degrade proteins, by tagging with ubiquitin and going through core rings

153
Q

Peroxisomes

A

organelles responsible for breakdown of fatty acids in cell

154
Q

Nucleus

A

only in eukaryotes
nuclear membrane (phospholipid bilayer)
nucleoplasm
contains chromatin which condenses into chromosomes
location of transcription

155
Q

endocytosis

A

cell takes in materials
pinocytosis (vesicles)
phagocytosis (vesicles of pathogens that cells destroy)
receptor-mediated endocytosis (bind on surface of cell)

156
Q

exocytosis

A

materials leaving cell
vesicles formed by ER and golgi apparatus

157
Q

which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a) alcohol- decolorizer
b) acid- alcohol-decolorizer
c) iodine-mordant
d) gram negative bacteria- staphylococcus
e) none of these choices

A

E

158
Q

Place steps of the gram stain in the correct order, using this cod: 1 alcohol wash, 2 crystal violet stain, 3 safranin stain, 4 iodine
a) 4-3-2-1
b)2-4-1-3
c)1-2-3-4
d)1-3-2-4

A

B

159
Q

Name the genus of Neisseria meningitidis
a) meningitidis
b) Nesseria
c) bacjk
d) if-1/2

A

b

160
Q

which of the following stains allows you to see the capsule of an encapsulated bacterium under the microscope
a) Ziehl Neelsen acid-fast
b) spore
c) gram
d) negative

A

d

161
Q

Virulence genes are carried on
a) chromosome
b) ribosome
c) chromosome and plasmids
d) ER
e)plasmids

A

C

162
Q

Virulence genes are often arranged into
a) reservoirs
b) clusters
c) pathogenicity islands
d) plasmids
e)individual chromosomes

A

c

163
Q

Properties of quorum sensing include which of the following?
a) relaying information about the cell’s environment to other proteins
b) regulating genes controlling the transcription of virulence genes
c) detection of pathogen population density
d) involvement of small diffusible molecules
e) all of the above

A

E

164
Q

Biofilms
a) are aggregations of many bacterial cells
b) often contain polysaccharide matrices
c) protect bacteria
d) all of the above

A

d

165
Q

organisms that can cause disease even in healthy individuals are
a) primary pathogens
b) opportunistic pathogens
c) variable pathogens
d) directed pathogens
e)none of the choices

A

a

166
Q

a pathogen must be able to
A) adhere to, penetrate, and persist in host cell
b) avoid, evade, or compromise the hose defense mechanism
c) damage the host and permit the spread of infection
d) all of the above

A

d

167
Q

Which of the following is false, regarding the gram stain and acid-fast stain
a) in one the primary stain is crystal violet, the other stain is carbolfuchsin
b) mycobacteria stain negative in acid fast and positive in gram stain
c) acid fast bacteria stain poorly or not at all in gam stain
d) in the gram stain a negative cell is red, in acid fast stain a positive result is red
e) one uses alcohol wash, one uses acid-alcohol wash

A

b

168
Q

Starting from the site of entry of a protein into a proteasome, which is the first part of the proteasome it will encounter
a) ubiquitin
b) first regulatory particle
c) second regulatory particle
d) core particle

A

a

169
Q

Starting from the site of entry of a protein into a proteasome, which is the second part of the proteasome it will encounter
a) ubiquitin
b) first regulatory particle
c) second regulatory particle
d) core particle

A

b

170
Q

Starting from the site of entry of a protein into a proteasome, which is the third part of the proteasome it will encounter
a) ubiquitin
b) first regulatory particle
c) second regulatory particle
d) core particle

A

d

171
Q

Starting from the site of entry of a protein into a proteasome, which is the fourth part of the proteasome it will encounter
a) ubiquitin
b) first regulatory particle
c) second regulatory particle
d) core particle

A

c

172
Q

virulence factors

A

characteristics that the pathogens possess that allow them to thrive and survive the host’s environment

173
Q

Portal of entry

A

at an point at which organisms can enter the bod
mucous membranes, skin, and parenteral routes

174
Q

The respiratory tract

A

most favorable portal of entry to pathogens
also a portal of exit through coughing or sneezing

175
Q

portal of exit

A

any point at which microorganisms can leave the body

176
Q

The GI tract

A

enter the body via foods and liquids
many protective barriers against pathogens (stomach acid and bile)

177
Q

Helicobacter pylori

A

carried gastric mucosa in one out of every two people, increases risk for gastroduodenal ulcers
fecal-oral route of contamination is a source of infections

178
Q

the genitourinary tract

A

urinary and reproductive tracts
UTI more likely in women & STDs

179
Q

Skin

A

larges organ in the body (most surface areas for possible contamination)
skin is impenetrable to most organisms unless able to get in through a hair follicle, a perspiration duct, or a break in the skin

180
Q

Parenteral Route

A

break in skin barrier, injections, bites (vector transmission), and cut/wound severity affects the severity of infection
epidermis-less severe
dermis-more severe

181
Q

Fimbriae

A

in gram negative organisms, to attach to certain receptors on cells of the small intestine colon bladder

182
Q

adhesins

A

glycolipids or lipoproteins located on the pathogen surfaces as a means of adhering to tissue

183
Q

pellicle

A

protein film that coats your teeth and causes tooth decay

184
Q

LD50

A

lethal dose 50%, the number of organisms required to kill 50% of the hosts, low LD50 means most virulent

185
Q

ID 50

A

Infectious dose 50%, number of organisms required for 50% of the population to show signs of infection

186
Q

binary fission

A

how bacteria divide (one bacterium splits into two), low LD50 and short doubling time is extremely dangerous

187
Q

Lytic virus

A

a virus that functions by filling a host cell with viral particles called virions until host cell burst opens and pours virions into the intercellular fluid (how more hosts are contaminated

188
Q

phagocytosis

A

phagocyte cells ingest pathogens and then destroy them, cannot attack pathogens with capsules

189
Q

Opsonization

A

a process where antibody molecules bind to the capsule

190
Q

mycolic acid

A

waxy substance which inhibits phagocytosis and protects the bacterium against antiseptics, disinfectants, and antibiotics

191
Q

Leukocidins

A

enzymes that destroy white blood cells in the host (neutrophils and macrophages (phagocytic)), also destroys lymphocytes which are responsible for the adaptive immune response to infection

192
Q

Hemolysins

A

membrane-damaging toxins that disrupt the plasma membrane of host cells and cause the cells to lyse, can damage red and white blood cell

193
Q

hyaluronidase and collagenase

A

enzymes that break down connective tissue and collagen in the host

194
Q

kinases

A

enzymes that break down fibrin and dissolve clots

195
Q

obligate intracellular parasites

A

only able to survive in one environment, and for viruses that one environment is inside the host cell

196
Q

invasin

A

produced by salmonella, changes the plasma membrane of host cell

197
Q

Cadherin

A

used by pathogens to move from one cell to another without ever exposing itself to the host’s immune defenses

198
Q

Exotoxins

A

produced by pathogens and then leave pathogen cells and enter host cells, most lethal, soluble in blood and lymph, cytotoxins, neurotoxins, enterotoxins
antigenic (host produces antibodies) which means that they are easily treated

199
Q

cytotoxins

A

kill cells that they come in contact with

200
Q

neurotoxins

A

interfere with neurological signal transmission

201
Q

enterotoxins

A

affect the lining of the digestive system

202
Q

anthrax

A

gram positive cytotoxin, toxin interrupts signaling capability of host macrophages and causes their death & disrupts function of dendritic cell

203
Q

Diphtheria

A

cytotoxin inhibiting protein synthesis, pseudomembranous in back of throat, multiple organ toxicity Corynebacterium diphtheriae

204
Q

Botulinum toxin

A

Clostridium botulinum, gram positive, inhibit release of acetylcholine which results in paralysis, uses snare proteins to block neurotransmitter release
causes flaccid paralysis

205
Q

Tetanus toxin

A

Clostrdium tetani, gram positive, neurotoxin blocks relaxation impulse and causes uncontrollable muscle contractions (spasmodic paralysis) and lockjaw, mostly seen in elderly

206
Q

vibrio toxin

A

cholera toxin
enterotoxin with two poplypeptide chains that bind to the epithelial cells of the digestive system to release large quantities of electrolits
causes severe diarrhea (rice water stool) and vomiting, transmitted through fecal-oral route

207
Q

S. aureus toxin

A

enterotoxin that affects digestive system and causes toxic shock (loss of electrolyte fluids leads to hypotensive shock), heat stable

208
Q

endotoxins

A

part of cell wall of gram neg bacteria, only active after a bacterium containing them has dies. less toxic, lipid A, large amounts of endotoxin (such as if using antibiotic) causes DIC, fever, hypotension, septic shock, and death

209
Q

Disseminated intravascular toxin (DIC)

A

minor clotting occurs throughout the body.

210
Q

Limulus amebocyte lyasate assay LAL

A

uses white blood cells of horseshoe crab to determine presence of endotoxins, creates gel in endotoxin is present

211
Q

cytopathic effect CPE

A

virally caused cell death
can be caused by viral overload, cytocidal effect (host defense mechanisms kill virally infected cells) and non-cytocidal effect (virus shuts down host DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis

212
Q

inclusion bodies

A

cells filled with virus that become visible inside the cell

213
Q

negri bodies

A

inclusion bodies seen in rabies viral infections and can be diagnostic for the disease

214
Q

a man nicks himself while shaving and the area becomes infected. Which of the following portals of entry did the pathogen probably use
a) gastrointestinal tract
b) respiratory tract
c) genitourinary tract
d) skin (parenteral
e) exotoxin tract

A

d

215
Q

The adherence of E. coli involves
a) cell surface adhesion molecules binding to receptors on cells lining the respiratory tract
b) adhesion molecules attaching to carbohydrates on respiratory cells
c) bacterial proteins attaching to cells in the reproductive tract
d) adhesion molecules on bacterial flagella attaching to gastrointestinal cells
e)adhesion molecules on bacterial pili attaching to the GI cells

A

e

216
Q

A pathogen has entered the body. All of the following will have a role in establishment except
a) boring through tissues
b) using adhesions to attach to tissues
c) releasing endotoxin that will cause clotting
d) creating a biofilm on body surface
e) using fimbriae to attach to cell receptors

A

c

217
Q

The LD50 of a pathogen is the number of organisms require to
a) benefit 50% of the hosts
b) infect 50% of the hosts
c) produce lytic deaminase toxin
d) kill 50% of the hosts
e) none of the choices

A

d

218
Q

Imagine you are working in a lab and read reports about two different bacteria. Organism A has an ID50 of 20 cells, whereas organism B has an ID50 of 100 cells. Which of the following conclusions would you make
a) organism A must have endotoxin
b) organism A could be considered more virulent than organism B
c) organism B could be considered more virulent than organism A
d) organism B has a portal of entry but organism A does not

A

B

219
Q

A bacterial toxin that causes damage to the plasma membrane of host red blood cells and results in lysis is
a) coagulase
b) leukocidin
c) collagenase
d) hemolysin
e)hyaluronidase

A

d

220
Q

A bacterial enzyme that breaks down connective tissue is
a) coagulase
b) hemolysin
c) hyaluronidase
d) all of the choices
e) none of the choices

A

c

221
Q

In invasin would be used by a microbe to
a) change the nuclear structure of host cells
b) inhibit the functions of host ribosomes
c) increase the rate of bacterial division
d) change the shape of microtubules in host cells
e) change the structure of actin filaments in host cells

A

E

222
Q

A culture of cells is producing exotoxins. On the basis of this information, the organisms are probably
a) gram negative bacteria
b) viruses
c) gram positive bacteria
d) all dead
e) none of the choices

A

c

223
Q

Three types of exotoxin are
a) lipopolysaccharide, enterotoxins, and neurotoxins
b) neurotoxins, cytotoxins, and lipid A
c) neurotoxins, cytoxins, and enterotoxins
d) cytotoxins, disseminating clotting toxin, and neurotoxins
e)none of the choices

A

c

224
Q

botulism toxin as a(n)
a) neurotoxin
b) muscular toxin
c) febrile toxin
d) enterotoxin
e) none of the choices

A

a

225
Q

Many people refer to tetanus infection with the pathogen Clostridium tetani as “lockjaw” which of the following best explains why? These bacteria
a) produce a toxin that causes jaw muscles to remain contracted
b) produce a capsule that hardens the surface of the jaw
c) product an enzyme that breaks apart jaw muscle cells
d) accumulate in the jaw and prevent proper jaw movement

A

a

226
Q

Which of the following best describe endotoxins?
a) they are toxins that are produced by dead gram negative and gram positive cells
b) they are toxins that are released by gram-positive cells
c) they are toxins found on Gram negative cell walls
d) they are toxins found on gram positive cell walls
e) they are identical in structure to exotoxins

A

C

227
Q

A new patient in the intensive care unit has disseminated intravascular clotting (DIC) the patients DIC is probably caused by
a) exotoxins
b) endotoxins
c) enterotoxins
d) vascular toxins
d) neurotoxins

A

d

228
Q

transmission of infection process

A

reservoirs of infectious organisms (which are places where pathogens can grow and accumulate)
mechanisms of transmission (which are the various ways in which organisms move from place to place)

229
Q

Three types of reservoirs

A

humans, other animals, and nonliving reservoirs

230
Q

Human reservoirs

A

found in infected people who are carriers (typhoid mary)

231
Q

Animal reservoir

A

zoonotic diseases (animals to humans), ex) rabies and lymes disease, occur after direct contact or indirect contact

232
Q

Nonliving reservoir

A

water (most dangerous), food, and soil

233
Q

mechanisms of transmission

A

contact transmission
vehicle transmission
vector transmission

234
Q

contact transmission

A

a healthy person is exposed to pathogens by either touching or being close to an infected person or object
can be direct, indirect, or droplet

235
Q

indirect contact transmission

A

intermediate non living articles known as fomites

236
Q

Vehicle transmission

A

pathogens “riding” along on supposedly clean components ex)food
most difficult vehicle is air becuase it can contain dust, microbial spores and fungal spores

237
Q

vector transmission

A

pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person by a carrier known to be associated with some diseases, usually arthropods

238
Q

mechanical vector transmission

A

the vector’s body parts are contaminated with the infecting microorganisms and they are passively “passed off” onto the host
ex) fly touches trash and then touches food host consumes

239
Q

biological vector transmission

A

occurs through a bite
ex) flea bites rat and then bites person giving the person the plague

240
Q

Factors affecting disease transmission

A

age, gender, lifestyle, occupation, emotional state, and climate

241
Q

climate and disease

A

1) increased respiratory infections in colder climates
2) warmer climates allow longer periods when vectors are present
3) climate can effect changes in the variety of infectious organisms that may be present in a given location

242
Q

Neutropenia

A

lower-than-normal number of neutrophils (white blood cells that kill and digest bacteria), common in cytotoxic chemotherapy
primarily bacterial and fungal

243
Q

Organ transplants

A

immunological differences between patient and transplant organs requires meds to lessen immune response against the organ but also lessens their overall immune capability which causes them to be more susceptible to infection

244
Q

Burn patients

A

loss of large area of primary physical barrier to infection
greater risk of septicemia (blood poisoning/ sepsis)

245
Q

Opportunistic infections

A

any infection acquired from microorganisms that are part of our normal microflora
ex) E. coli traveling from anus to urethra causes UTI

246
Q

Sources of nosocomial infection

A

break in skin, IV applications, urinary and other catheters, invasive tests, and surgical procedures

247
Q

what do hospitals consider when limiting nosocomial infections

A

source of infection, mode of transmission of the pathogen, susceptibility of the patient to infection, prevention and control
(staff, insects, water, medical supplies)

248
Q

MRSA and VRSA

A

MRSA: methicillin resistant S. aureus
VRSA: vancomycin resistant S. aureus
few alternative antibiotic treatments

249
Q

Epidemiology

A

study of the factors and mechanisms involved in frequency and spread of diseases or other health-related problems, and is an important part of understanding disease

250
Q

incidence

A

number of new cases contracted within a set population in a specific period

251
Q

prevalence

A

total number of people infected within a population at any given time

252
Q

Morbidity rate

A

number of individuals affected by the disease during a set period divided by the total population

253
Q

mortality rate

A

the number of deaths due to a specific disease during a specific period divided by the total population

254
Q

sporadic diseaseas

A

occur in a random and unpredictable manner and pose no threat to public health

255
Q

endemic

A

refers to diseases that are constantly in the population but in numbers too low to be a public health problem ex)common cold

256
Q

epidemic

A

occurs when the incidence of a disease suddenly becomes higher than the normally expected number of individuals affected by the disease ex) flu

257
Q

pandemic

A

when a disease occurs in an epidemic proportions throughout the world

258
Q

common source outbreak

A

epidemic that arises from contact with contaminated substances and most commonly occurs either when a water supply is contaminated with fecal material or when food is improperly prepared. Although common source outbreaks affect large numbers of people, they quickly subside when the source of contamination has been identified and resolved

259
Q

propagated epidemic

A

results from amplification of the
number of infected individuals as person-to-person contacts occur.
Propagated epidemics stay in the population for long periods and are
more difficult to deal with than common-source outbreaks.

260
Q

Descriptive epidemiological studies

A

concerned with the physical
aspects of patients and the spread of the disease. These studies include
data on the number of cases and on which segment of a population was
affected.

261
Q

analytical epidemiological studies

A

establishing a
cause-and-effect relationship. These studies are always done in conjunction
with a control group, which is a population known to be free of the
disease being studied.

262
Q

retrospective analytical study

A

one in which
the records of patients who have already contracted the disease are studied.
Using this type of already-available patient information, workers
running retrospective studies can take into account a wide variety of factors
that preceded an epidemic so that they can narrow down the potential
causes.

263
Q

Prospective analytical studies

A

do not allow the
benefit of hindsight; in this type of study, data are analyzed as they are
collected. In other words, prospective studies consider factors that occur
as the epidemic proceeds.

264
Q

In which of the following reservoirs are the organisms that cause Lyme disease found
a) animal
b) nonliving
c) other human

A

a

265
Q

In which of the following reservoirs are the organisms that cause cholera found?
a) animal
b) nonliving
c) other human

A

b

266
Q

In which of the following reservoirs are the organisms that cause typhoid fever found?
a) animal
b) nonliving
c) other human

A

c

267
Q

In which of the following reservoirs are the organisms that cause measles found?
a) animal
b) nonliving
c) other human

A

c

268
Q

In which of the following reservoirs are the organisms that cause anthrax found?
a) animal
b) nonliving
c) other human

A

a

269
Q

Nonliving reservoirs include all of the following except
a) food
b) water
c) soil
d) air
e) ticks

A

e

270
Q

Direct contact transmission occur because of
a) the shared us of dirty towels
b) inhaling air containing droplets from a sick person’s cough
c) an infected person kissing a non infected person
d)a tick bite

A

c

271
Q

HIV transmitted by a contaminated needle is an example of
a) direct contact transmission
b) droplet contact transmission
c) indirect contact transmission
d) vector transmission

A

c

272
Q

The most common cause of profound neutropenia is
a) a congenital disorder characterized by poor bone marrow function
b) the administration of cytotoxic chemotherapy
c) cancer or other diseases that damage bone marrow
d) viral infections
e) autoimmune disorders that destroy neutrophils of bone marrow cells

A

b

273
Q

Examples of vehicles for disease transmission include
a) water
b) air
c) blood
d) IV fluids
e) all of the above

A

e

274
Q

To prevent the transmission of a disease from human to human, health workers immunized 90% of the population. However 99% of the population was free of the disease. The reason for this was
a) transmission was by air droplets
b) transmission was by fecal oral route
c) the portal of entry was the skin
d) the vector population was large
e) to enable herd immunity to function

A

e

275
Q

Nosocomial infections are almost always seen
a) in healthcare setting
b) in the very young
c) in the elderly
d) in debilitated patients

A

a

276
Q

The most common site of a nosocomial infection is
a) the brain
b) the urinary tract
c) the digestive system
d) the eyes

A

b

277
Q

The most likely fomite for a nosocomial infection is a
a) nebulizer
b) bed sheet
c) catheter
d) humidifier
e) contaminated needle

A

c

278
Q

Universal procedures are required
a) in all medical facilities in the US
b) only when an infection occurs
c) only in major hospitals
d) only in nursing homes

A

a

279
Q

The number of new cases of a disease contracted per a set number of people per unit of time is its
a) prevalence
b) mortality rate
c) morbidity rate
d) incidence rate
e) none of the above

A

d

280
Q

Diseases that occur in a random and unpredictable manner are referred to as
a) pandemic
b) epidemic
c) sporadic
d) endemic

A

c

281
Q

The total number of people infected within a population at any given time is its
a) prevalence
b) mortality rate
c) incidence
d) epidemic number

A

a

282
Q

The total number of cases of polio in the world was 1300 in 2007, 1550 in 2008, 14000 in 2009 and 1350 in 2010. From this information we describe polio as an ___ worldwide
a) endemic
b) epidemic
c) pandemic
d) sporadic
e) none of the above

A

a

283
Q

correct/incorrect: the sensitivity of a diagnostic test is important because it discriminates between the true pathogen and other similar pathogens

A

incorrect

284
Q

correct/incorrect: it is the important to circumvent the patient’s normal flora because otherwise it can make the pathogen isolation and identification difficult or impossible

A

correct

285
Q

correct/incorrect: diagnostic work is usually done according to standard operating procedures, because every effort is made to prevent legal complications

A

correct

286
Q

Is the reason given correct or incorrect in the following statement? because biotechnological advances will impact the health care community, health care professionals should have a basic understanding of how they are being made

A

correct

287
Q

correct/incorrect: monoclonal antibodies are commonly used today because they are powerful tools for diagnosing infectious disease and cancer, and for detecting harmful microorganisms in food

A

correct

288
Q

Which of the hybridoma and phage display techniques is used when the host animal is the source of the antibody
a) phage display only
b) hybridoma only
c) both
d) neither

A

c

289
Q

Which of the hybridoma and phage display techniques is used to enlarge an antibody library?
a) phage display only
b) hybridoma only
c) both
d) neither

A

a

290
Q

Which of the hybridoma and phage display techniques is used to select genes with the desired binding capacity
a) phage display only
b) hybridoma only
c) both
d) neither

A

a

291
Q

Which of the hybridoma and phage display techniques uses only mouse immunization
a) phage display only
b) hybridoma only
c) both
d) neither

A

b

292
Q

Which of the hybridoma and phage display techniques is used to produce polyclonal antibody
a) phage display only
b) hybridoma only
c) both
d) neither

A

d

293
Q

Phage display

A

Phage display is a molecular biology technique by which phage genomes are modified in such a way that the coat proteins of assembled virions are fused to other proteins or peptides of interest (of any origin), displaying them thus to the external milieu.

294
Q

Hybridoma

A

Hybridoma technology involves fusing short-lived antibody-producing B cells with immortal myeloma cells, creating cell lines that produce a never-ending supply of a specific monoclonal antibody.

295
Q

disease

A

any negative change in a persons health

296
Q

etiology

A

cause of disease
disease is caused by microorganisms invading a host’s body, these microorganisms are etiological agents of disease

297
Q

Microbial flora

A

normal microorganisms located in many places in the body ex) large intestine has the largest population of bacteria

298
Q

commensalism

A

one partner is benefited but the other is unaffected

299
Q

mutualism

A

one in which the host offers benefits to the bacteria and the bacteria offer benefits to the hose

300
Q

parasitism

A

one of the partners benefits at the expense of the other (relationship we see with pathogens)

301
Q

microbial antagonism

A

microbial flora can protect us from disease, microflora are well established and competitively inhibit pathogens, however many normally harmless resident bacteria are opportunistic pathogens

302
Q

Kochs postulates

A

the same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease
the pathogen must be isolated from the sick host and purified
the pure pathogen must cause the same disease when given uninfected hosts
the pathogen must be re-isolated from these newly infected hots

303
Q

incubation

A

the time between the initial infection and the first symptoms of the disease, depends on virulence of the pathogen

304
Q

prodromal period

A

first mild symptoms appear

305
Q

period of illness

A

major symptoms are noted, immune response is at it’s highest, patients may die

306
Q

period of decline

A

symptoms subside indication of end of illness but also when patient may acquire a second infection (opportunistic and nosocomial)

307
Q

period of convalescence

A

patient regains strength and proceeds to full recovery

308
Q

communicable

A

disease can spread from one person to another, opposite is non-communicable

309
Q

contagious

A

communicable diseases that spread very easily (such as when in contact with an infected individual)

310
Q

Three method of control for communicable diseases

A

isolation (prevent individual from coming in contact with general population), quarantine (separating healthy individuals who may have been exposed to a communicable disease) and vector control (destruction of vector habitats and the inhibition of vector breeding habits and feeding behaviors)

311
Q

vector

A

any organism that carries disease pathogens from one host to another

312
Q

acute diseases

A

develop quickly but last only for a short time

313
Q

chronic diseases

A

develop slowly but remain for long periods

314
Q

subacute

A

insidious onset that can take 6-12 months but can be fatal

315
Q

latent diseases

A

those that remain in the host after the initial signs and symptoms disappear and can become reactivated after long periods

316
Q

granulomas

A

bodies made up of host defense cells, activated macrophages aggregate into gigantic cells similar to the syncytia

317
Q

herd immunity

A

immunity can be conferred through vaccination or developed after infection, when most of the population becomes immune, the disease essentially disappeared because there were no more potential hosts in the “herd” ex) small pox

318
Q

local infection

A

host defenses wall off an infection and keep it in a singular section, these infections are easiest to deal with

319
Q

focus of infection

A

when pathogens find a way to move from their original location in a host and congregate in another location

320
Q

systematic infection

A

infection has moved away from the focus of infection and is accomplished when pathogens gain access to blood to lymph

321
Q

bacterema

A

bacteria in blood, if organisms are growing in blood the condition is known as septicemiat

322
Q

toxemia

A

toxins move through the blood

323
Q

viremia

A

viruses move through blood

324
Q

primary infection

A

one causing the initial acute onset of symptoms

325
Q

subclinial infection

A

one in which symptoms do not appear even though the infection is ongoing

326
Q

secondary infection

A

one that establishes itself in a host weakend by some primary infection

327
Q

toxic shock

A

there is massive leakage of plasma from the circulation that causes blood pressure to plummet

328
Q

sepsis syndrome

A

general term indicating the presence of either pathogenic organisms or their toxins in the blood

329
Q

severe sepsis

A

signs of systematic inflammation and organ dysfunction

330
Q

Emerging infectious diseases

A

those whose incidence in humans have either increased in the past 30 years or threaten to increase in the near future

331
Q

Re-emerging infectious diseases

A

diseases that were previously controlled but now have returned

332
Q

environment infectious disease

A

humans encroaching on nature leads to more infectious diseases such as niaph, hanta, and lyme

333
Q

food-borne infectious disease

A

many through improperly prepared meat and wild animals demand

334
Q

Reassortment

A

gene “shuffling” in which an organism’s genes rearrange themselves and cause changes in the characteristics of the organism

335
Q

hurdles in interspecies transfer

A

must adapt to be able to replicate in human cells
must configure itself so that it can be easily transmitted from one human to another

336
Q

emerging infectious disease

A

mostly viral, because jump to species is adjusted easiest (done through RNA mutation, recombination, and re-assortment)

337
Q

SARS

A

severe accute respiratory syndrome, animal coronavirus in southern China that causes fever, malaise, and lymphopenia

338
Q

arboviruses

A

carried by arthropods

Microbiology (6 decks)

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