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Year 3 > Micro Exam 3 > Flashcards

Micro Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

4 Variables that dictate the most appropriate antimicrobial strategy

A
  1. Type of microbe
  2. Number of microbes
  3. Risk of infection
  4. Object being sterilized/disinfected
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2
Q

Process by which all living cells, sores, and viruses on an object are destroyed

A

Sterilization

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3
Q

The killing, or removal, of disease-producing organisms from inanimate surfaces

A

Disinfection

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4
Q

Killing or removal of most pathogens from living tissues

A

Antisepsis

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5
Q

Reduces the microbial population to safe levels and usually involves cleaning

A

Sanitation

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6
Q

Antimicrobial chemical agents that kill microbes

A

Cidal agents

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7
Q

Antimicrobial chemicals that inhibit or control microbial growth

A

Static agents

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8
Q

Can antimicrobial agents also kill nonpathogenic microbes?

A

Yes

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9
Q

In the presence of antimicrobial agents, microbes are killed:

A

At an exponential rate

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10
Q

The time it takes to kill 90% of the population
Efficacy of disinfecting and sterilizing agents are measured using this

A

Decimal reduction time (D-value)

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11
Q

Sterilization by using high pressure (15psi) and high temperature (121C)

A

Pressured steam sterilization

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12
Q

Biohazards waste is destroyed by burning

A

Incineration

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13
Q

Heat sterilization for moisture-sensitive items

A

Dry oven

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14
Q

100C, kills most organisms and viruses, but not spores or hyperthermophiles

A

Boiling

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15
Q

The heating of food at a temperature and time combination that kills pathogens

A

Pasteurization

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16
Q

4-8C, is used for food preservation because most pathogens are mesophilic

A

Refrigeration

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17
Q

Cultures mixed 1:1 with glycerol can be stored for long term at low temperatures -70C

A

Freezing

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18
Q

Cultures are quickly frozen at very low temperatures in a vacuum, the LOWEST microbial presence here

A

Freeze drying (lyophilization)

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19
Q

Is using cold physical agents static or cidal?

A

Static because the microbes are not killed, the growth is just stopped

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20
Q

Sterilization where solutions are passed through filters with tiny pores

A

Filtration

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21
Q

Food is bombarded with high energy radiation

A

Irradiation

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22
Q

Microbial sensitivity to irradiation is relative to the genome size. Larger genomes =

A

More sensitive, more likely for mistakes to happen

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23
Q

4 factors that influence the efficacy of a disinfectant

A
  1. The presence of organic matter
  2. The kinds of organisms present
  3. Corrosiveness
  4. Stability, odor, and surface tension
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24
Q

Test that measures how well a disinfectant kills microbes dried onto a surface

A

Use-dilution test

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25
Q

Objects that cannot be heat sterilized are best sterilized by this process by gamma irradiation or antimicrobial gases such as ethylene oxide

A

Gas sterilization

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26
Q

Any chemical used to treat disease

A

Chemotherapeutic agent

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27
Q

Any chemical that kills or inhibits microbes

A

Antimicrobials

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28
Q

Chemical compounds that are synthesized by one microbe to selectively kill other microbes. They are a natural antimicrobial, chemotherapeutic agent

A

Antibiotics

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29
Q

Drugs that kill bacterial cells

A

Bactericidal drugs

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30
Q

Drugs that slow or inhibit bacterial growth

A

Bacteriostatic drugs

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31
Q

Antibiotics that target one or limited groups of bacteria

A

Narrow spectrum

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32
Q

Antibiotics that target large groups of bacteria

A

Broad spectrum

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33
Q

Why don’t we use broad spectrum antibiotics for every bacterial infection?

A

Can lead to disruption of the host microbiota

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34
Q

What specific factors do health care providers need to consider when administering an antimicrobial drug?

A

-Tissue distribution
-Excretion
-Metabolism

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35
Q

Effect where one drug inhibits the function of another

A

Antagonistic effects

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36
Q

Effect where two drugs work better together than their additive effects

A

Synergistic effects

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37
Q

What is the selective toxicity of a drug? How is this measured?

A

The ability of a drug to be harmful against bad microbes while not harming the body. Measured via therapeutic index. You want a high TI to maximize killing bad microbes while minimizing toxicity

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38
Q

The concentration of drug needed to completely inhibit bacterial growth in culture

A

MIC (Minimum inhibitory concentration) You want a low MIC

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39
Q

Tests a bacterial culture for susceptibility to 12 antibiotics on one plate

A

Disk diffusion assay

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40
Q

Reduces the productivity of an enzyme by (usually) forming a weak bond to an enzyme

A

Metabolic Inhibitor

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41
Q

DNA polymerase inhibitors act on DNA polymerase, so that chromosomal DNA cannot be replicated, resulting in bacterial death.

A

DNA replication inhibitor

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42
Q

Regulation of transcription in response to environmental changes and in the virus-host relationship

A

RNA polymerase inhibitor

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43
Q

A compound that stops or slows the growth or proliferation of cells

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor

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44
Q

Antibiotics targeting this should selectively kill bacteria because it does not exist in eukaryotes

A

Peptidoglycan

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45
Q

In growing cells, this type of drug causes the cell walls to fall apart and burst the cell from internal pressure

A

Cell wall inhibitors

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46
Q

3 common targets for antivirals

A
  1. Attachment or entry
  2. Nucleic acid synthesis
  3. Maturation and release
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47
Q

Fungal and protozoal infections are difficult to treat because they are…

A

Eukaryotes like us

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48
Q

Many of these drugs target metabolic functions, can be used by releasing free radicals that damage the parasite

A

Antiprotozoal agents

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49
Q

Many of these drugs target the unique ergosterol membrane or DNA synthesis

A

Antifungal agents

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50
Q

3 general bacterial mechanisms to resistant antibiotics

A
  1. Prevent intracellular accumulation
  2. Prevent antibiotic binding to target
  3. Dislodge the antibiotic
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51
Q

Drug resistance that is due to the inherent characteristics of that organism. Mycobacterium: Waxy mycelia acid cell wall. Gram-negative: 2 Membranes

A

Innate (Intrinsic) Resistance

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52
Q

Acquired resistance in this process where resistance genes readily occurs between related and unrelated bacteria. Responsible for the generation of multi-drug resistant bacteria

A

Horizontal gene transfer

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53
Q

Acquired resistance in this process where they occur at a low rate, but quick generation time and exponential growth provides many genetic variants that can persist under selective pressure (natural selection)

A

Mutations

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54
Q

Multi-drug resistant bacteria are caused by…

A

Horizontal gene transfer

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55
Q

How does horizontal gene transfer affect antibiotic resistance of otherwise-susceptible bacteria when antibiotics are misused? Why is antibiotic misuse lead to resistance?

A

HGT allows for resistance to be transferred. Susceptible bacteria die but resistant ones live and multiply

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56
Q

The total community of microbes associated with an organism

A

Microbiome

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57
Q

7 body parts that harbor microbes

A

-Nose
-Skin
-Vagina
-Ear
-Small intestine
-Oropharynx
-Large intestine

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58
Q

3 body parts meant to be sterile

A

-Eye
-Urethra
-Stomach

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59
Q

The number of microorganisms that typically inhabit an environment

A

Bioburden

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60
Q

4 most prominent microbial ecosystems in the human body

A

-Skin
-Oral and nasal cavities
-Genitourinary tract
-Intestine

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61
Q

The place with the highest bioburden

A

Intestine

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62
Q

Why do anaerobes outnumber aerobes in all tissues?

A

The intestinal microbiome is fully anaerobic and has a neutral pH. Only anaerobes and facultative anaerobes can survive there

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63
Q

How does skin limit microbial growth? In other words, what conditions do bacteria have to endure to thrive on our skin?

A

Skin has multiple mechanisms to keep growth under control:
-Acidic (pH 4-6)
-High salt
-Low moisture content
-Enzymes like lysozyme (sweat)

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64
Q

An imbalance in microbiome composition that can lead to adverse effects

A

Dysbiosis

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65
Q

How do eyes keep a low bio burden even though they are exposed to the outside environment?

A

Tears contain lysozymes which eyes are constantly bathed in to wash away germs

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66
Q

How does saliva limit microbial growth?

A

Contains antimicrobial compounds like H2O2 and lysozymes
Washes the mouth, making the environment difficult to adhere to

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67
Q

What are the aerobic and anaerobic surfaces in the human mouth?

A

Anaerobic- Spaces between teeth
Aerobic- Surface of teeth

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68
Q

Where are the aerobic and anaerobic surfaces in the human oronasopharynx?

A

Anaerobic- The small pits along the tonsil surface (crypts)
Aerobic- The top of the mouth/behind the nose and in the center of the back of the throat

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69
Q

Mechanism in lungs where the ciliated mucous lining of the bronchioles, trachea, and bronchi sweep foreign particles up and out of the lungs

A

Mucociliart escalator

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70
Q

What does the upper respiratory tract use to keep most microorganisms in the nasopharynx?

A

Cilia

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71
Q

How does the stomach inhibit microbial growth? Where do bacteria colonize in the stomach?

A

Keeps pH very low (2) to inhibit growth. Colonize in the mucus lining

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72
Q

What microbiome has the most abundance and diversity than all other microbiomes?

A

Intestinal microbiome

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73
Q

What are the benefits of the intestinal microbiome?

A

Vitamins and hormones are produced by microbes and absorbed by our cells

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74
Q

Nerves in the GI tract that connect to the CNS

A

Microbiome-gut-brain axis

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75
Q

Normal bacteria and pathogens compete for the same spot, so normal bacteria produce this to fight off the pathogens

A

Antimicrobial compounds

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76
Q

What 3 outcomes can result from severe intestinal dysbiosis?

A

-Deadly infections
-Inflammatyory bowel diseases (Crohn’s)
-Bacteremia and organ infection

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77
Q

How does the female genitalia inhibit bacterial growth?

A

Female genital tract is slightly acidic. Most dominant vaginal microbiome is acid-tolerant

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78
Q

Part in the genitourinary tract that should be sterile

A

Kidneys

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79
Q

3 Parts in the genitourinary tract that have their own microbiomes

A

-Bladder
-Urethra
-Vagina

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80
Q

2 results of genitourinary tract dysbiosis

A

-UTI
-Yeast infection

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81
Q

What are some human behaviors that dramatically alter our microbiota composition?

A

-Clean water
-Cesarean deliveries
-Preterm antibiotics
-Smaller family size
-Reduced breast-feeding

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82
Q

Proposes that dramatic changes in human behavior have influenced the makeup of out microbiota

A

Hygiene hypothesis

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83
Q

Food or supplements that provide plant fibers that can be digested by beneficial bacteria. (fruits, vegetables, whole grains)

A

Prebiotics

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84
Q

Food or nutritional supplements that contain live organisms to promote colonization by beneficial bacteria (most commonly lactobacillus and bifidobacterium)

A

Probiotics

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85
Q

Transfer of the microbiome of a healthy person to a person with severe intestinal disease

A

Fecal microbiota transplant (FMT)

86
Q

May be a possible alternative to antibiotics in targeting pathogenic bacteria

A

Phage therapies

87
Q

3 physical barriers

A

-Epithelial
-Blood-brain
-Maternofetal (placental)

88
Q

What holds the 3 barriers together?

A

Tight junctions

89
Q

Multiprotein adhesion complexes that hold cells together

A

Tight junctions

90
Q

What is the purpose of physical barriers and how do we get nutrients past them?

A

Tight junctions are strictly regulated and control what passes through, they keep microbes out

91
Q

What is the most regulated physical barrier?

A

Blood-brain barrier

92
Q

What can pass through the blood-brain barrier?

A

Only oxygen, CO2, and alcohol. Glucose and other nutrients need carrier systems

93
Q

The fetus is considered ________ because of the placental barrier

A

Germ-free

94
Q

True or false: Fetal and maternal bloodstreams never mix

A

True

95
Q

An example of a virus that can cross the placental barrier and infect the fetus

A

Ziika

96
Q

Summary of the immune system

A

Distinguishes self from non-self. Sense and react to foreign antigens that have some sort of way to be identified

97
Q

The system of nonspecific mechanisms that the body uses for protecting against pathogens (Immediately activated-mechanisms already in place. Not specific about what they target)

A

Innate immunity

98
Q

Immune responses activated by a specific antigen and mediated by B cells and T cells (adaptive responses take a week or so to develop. Highly specific to a given pathogen)

A

Adaptive immunity

99
Q

All immune cells are made via this process

A

Hematapoiesis

100
Q

The formation of blood cellular components

A

Hematapoiesis

101
Q

Red blood cells and platelets

A

Erythrocytes

102
Q

B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells

A

Lymphoid cells

103
Q

Mast cell, Eosinophil, basophil, neutrophil, monocyte, macrophage, dendritic cell

A

Myeloid cells

104
Q

Cell type that is always in tissues

A

Mast cell

105
Q

Cell types that are mostly in blood

A

Eosinophil, basophil, neutrophil

106
Q

Cell type that is always in the blood

A

Monocyte

107
Q

Cell types that are mostly in tissues

A

Macrophage and dendritic cell

108
Q

Innate white blood cells that can phagocytose and kill microbes

A

Neutrophils

109
Q

2 Innate white blood cells that secrete antimicrobial compounds

A

Eosinophils and basophils

110
Q

Innate white blood cells only found in tissues and secrete antimicrobial compounds

A

Mast cells

111
Q

Innate white blood cells that differentiate into macrophages or dendritic cells

A

Monocytes

112
Q

Circulate in the blood, engulf foreign material (phagocytosis), enter tissues and differentiate to macrophages or dendritic cells (more aggressive endocytosis)

A

Monocytes

113
Q

Phagocytic and dispersed in tissues, likely make first contact with invading pathogens

A

Macrophages

114
Q

Antigens from engulfed pathogens are presented to the adaptive immune system

A

Antigen presentation

115
Q

Phagocytose, process, and present small antigens on their surface, can take up small soluble antigens from the surroundings in addition to phagocytosis. An important component to bridge innate and adaptive immunity

A

Dendritic cells

116
Q

Monocytes that stay behind and protect

A

Macrophage

117
Q

Monocytes that go and get help

A

Dendritic cell

118
Q

4 steps of phagocytosis

A
  1. Bacterium binds to the surface of phagocytic cell. Antibody or complement can aid in binding.
  2. Phagocyte pseudopods extend and engulf the organism.
  3. Invagination of phagocyte membrane traps the organism.
  4. A lysosome fuses and deposits enzymes into the phagosome. Enzymes cleave macromolecules and generate reactive oxygen, destroying the organism.
119
Q

2 results for a microbe after phagocytosis

A
  1. Into extracellular space
  2. Antigen presented on the membrane
120
Q

Cells that can engulf bacteria through phagocytosis

A

Phagocytes

121
Q

Cells that activate the adaptive immune system

A

Antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

122
Q

The group of organs, vessels, and tissues that complement the immune and circulatory systems

A

Lymphatic system

123
Q

Organs where immune cells originate and mature

A

Primary organs

124
Q

Organs where immune cells encounter antigen

A

Secondary organs

125
Q

Where T and B cells spend most of their lives, waiting to be presented antigen

A

Lymph nodes

126
Q

Interstitial fluids and which blood cells

A

Lymph

127
Q

How is lymph drained?

A

Lymphatic vessels through movement

128
Q

Where are T cells formed?

A

Thymus

129
Q

Where are B cells formed?

A

Bone marrow

130
Q

Antimicrobial enzyme that targets peptidoglycan

A

Lysozyme

131
Q

Antimicrobial enzyme that produces toxic superoxide radicals

A

Lactoperoxidase

132
Q

Antimicrobial enzymes that are positively charges small molecules, target membranes

A

Defensins

133
Q

5 Cardinal signs that mark inflammation (HERPA)

A

-Heat
-Edema (swelling)
-Redness
-Pain
-Altered function or movement

134
Q

Movement of white blood cells from the blood stream into the tissues (produces signs of inflammation)

A

Extravasation

135
Q

What are the dominant cells that flood the site of infection?

A

Neutrophils

136
Q

Inflammatory response

A
  1. Resident macrophages engulf and digest invading organisms
  2. Endothelial tight junctions loosen, and cytokines promote expression of adhesion molecules on endothelial cells
  3. Damaged tissue cells express bradykinin, which directly promotes vasodilation (loosen capillaries)
  4. Bradykinins also promote prostaglandin secretion from endothelial cells, which signals to nerve cells to send a pain input to the brain.
  5. Once microbe is cleared, neutrophils, cytokines, and chemokine are removed and the tissue can heal.
137
Q

Signaling peptides that communicate with other immune cells

A

Cytokines

138
Q

Increase vascular permeability (vasodilation)

A

Vasoactive factors

139
Q

Signaling peptides that guide immune cells towards the site of infection (chemotaxis along the concentration gradient)

A

Chemokines

140
Q

What kind of inflammation will lead to permanent damage?

A

Chronic

141
Q

Inflammation that causes cell damage as a worthwhile cost to clear out the pathogen

A

Acute

142
Q

Inflammation that occurs when the foreign body persists in the tissues (TB)

A

Chronic

143
Q

What do macrophages probe the environment with to determine if the cell they are in contact with is self or non-self?

A

Pseudopods

144
Q

What surrounds a bacterial to make it too slippery to grab?

A

Capsule

145
Q

Arm-like projections for bacteria that are too slippery

A

Psuedopods

146
Q

How does phagocytosis actually kill microbes?

A

By fusing the phagosome with the lysosome

147
Q

How do some microbes take advantage of phagocytosis?

A

They use it to enter the cell cytoplasm

148
Q

Ticking time bombs packed with pro-inflammatory molecules. Healing cannot take place when these molecules are present

A

Neutrophils

149
Q

Process that kills neutrophils, clean way to remove them

A

Apoptosis

150
Q

Cells that kill defective host cells, only lymphocyte in immune system. Don’t directly kill microbes, they kill the cells that allow for microbial replication

A

Natural killer cells

151
Q

When will NK cell force the cell to undergo apoptosis?

A

When infected of defective cells express less MCH-I

152
Q

“Self” molecule that is a receptor that all host cells express

A

MCH-I

153
Q

NK cells kill first by inserting pore-forming protein called:

A

Perforin

154
Q

Next, NK cells release cytotoxic proteins like _____________ that enter the cell and initiate apoptosis

A

Granzyme

155
Q

Patterns include those found in strongly immunogenic molecules like lipopolysaccharide, peptidoglycan, lipoteichoic acid, etc. Occur only in microbes, and are critical components of the microbial cell (virus), so they will not change

A

PAMPS/MAMPs

156
Q

Patterns that our immune cells know where our cells might leak out when damaged

A

DAMPs

157
Q

What sensed DAMPs and PAMPs?

A

Pattern-recognition receptors (PRRs)

158
Q

Primary example of PRRs

A

Toll-like receptors (TLRs)

159
Q

PRR activation leads to the cell producing _____________ that alert neighboring cells and immune cells the type of infection taking place

A

Cytokines

160
Q

TLRs on _______________ will sense PAMPs in the extracellular environment (bacteria, yeast, protists)

A

Cell membrane

161
Q

TLRs on ____________ will sense PAMPs taken up by endocytosis related to viruses and intracellular bacteria

A

Endosomal membranes

162
Q

Cytokines that cells express during infection to warn other cells to establish an antiviral state

A

Interferons

163
Q

A systemic inflammatory response to infection that can lead to multi-organ failure and death

A

Sepsis

164
Q

Main cause of sepsis

A

Bacterial infections

165
Q

These cause fever by influencing the hypothalamus to “turn up the thermostat”

A

Pyrogens

166
Q

A family of proteins present in the blood that react to bacterial membranes

A

Complement

167
Q

2 consequences of complements

A

1) they can coat the bacterial cell and make them easier to be eaten by phagocytes (opsonization)
2) they add up to form a structure called the membrane attack complex that forms pores in the membrane.

168
Q

All of our own cells have surface proteins that inactivate complement. Do bacteria have these proteins?

A

No

169
Q

What does severed combined immunodeficiency (SCID) lead to?

A

The death of T cells during development, preventing B cells from functioning. Leads to susceptibility to all pathogens, especially viruses

170
Q

Any molecule that will elicit an immune response when introduced into a person

A

Antigens

171
Q

An antigen that can elicit the production of antibodies

A

Immunogen

172
Q

Each antigen can have one or more of these that themselves can elicit an immune response

A

Epitopes

173
Q

What cells do APCs present to?

A

Macrophages and dendritic cells present antigens to T cells

174
Q

Which cells bind free antigen from the lymph?

A

Free-floating antigens from the microbe bind to B-cell receptors

175
Q

Type of adaptive immunity that is mediated by antibodies that are secreted by plasma cells and activated by B cells

A

Humoral immunity

176
Q

Type of adaptive immunity that is mediated by cytotoxic T cells

A

Cell-mediated immunity

177
Q

These cells are central to activating both humoral and cell-mediated immunity

A

Helper T cells

178
Q

How are helper T cells activated?

A

Bind to B cells that have taken up free-floating antigens in the lymph

179
Q

B cells also form ________ cells, which can be quickly activated in the next infection

A

Memory

180
Q

2 distance signals B cells need to activate

A
  1. Antigen binding to the B cell antigen receptor
  2. Tfh cell interaction with the B cell
181
Q

B cells activate, rapidly diving and forming ________ cells that secrete antibody

A

Plasma

182
Q

Help identify alien things in the body. Y-shaped protein that circulates in the bloodstream to bind to matched antigens on an infecting pathogen

A

Antibodies

183
Q

These enter the bloodstream, then tissues to directly kill infected cells

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)

184
Q

2 signals that CTLs need to activate

A
  1. Binding to an APC presenting an antigen it recognizes
  2. Cytokines secreted by a similarly-activated Th cell
185
Q

Where to T and B cells go?

A

T cells to site of infection, B cells to bone marrow

186
Q

Measures how well an antigen elicits an immune response

A

Antigenicity/immunogenicity

187
Q

Most antigenic molecule

A

Proteins (can be manipulated most)

188
Q

This principle governs how effective vaccines are against different pathogens.

A

Antigenic specificity

189
Q

An antibody expressed on the cell membrane

A

B cell receptor (BCRs)

190
Q

How do BCR differentiate between B cells?

A

Our bodies produce millions of B cells and each naive B cell has a BCR specific to a different antigen

191
Q

B cell that has gone through selection in the bone marrow and is ensured to not react to self antigens

A

Mature B cell

192
Q

Are all B cells in the lymph node mature?

A

Yes

193
Q

Why do naive B cells not secrete antibody?

A

Because they have not seen antigen yet (antigen activates them

194
Q

Naive B cells exist as _________ within the lymph node

A

Clones

195
Q

The theory that specific antigen receptors exist on lymphocytes before they are presented with an antigen due to random mutations during initial maturation and proliferation

A

Clonal selection

196
Q

A small number of precursor cells that recognize a specific antigen proliferate into expanded clones, differentiate and acquire various effector and memory phenotypes, which promote effective immune responses

A

Clonal expansion

197
Q

Once a clone has expanded, what does it differentiate to?

A

Memory B cells or plasma cells

198
Q

Do memory B cells or plasma cells release antibodies?

A

Plasma cells

199
Q

2 regions of antibodies

A

Fab (antigen-binding) and Fc (constant)

200
Q

Process where antibodies bind to bacteria, and the Fc portion of the antibodies binds to receptors on the macrophage surface

A

Opsonization

201
Q

How do complement proteins attack bacterial cell membranes?

A

Assemble into the membrane attack complex to poke holes in the membrane and cause the cell to lyse

202
Q

Isotype that is most abundant in blood/tissues, most associated with protective immunity

A

IgG

203
Q

Isotype where the monomer is the BCR, and the secreted form is a huge, five-antibody pentameter

A

IgM

204
Q

Isotype where it exists as a dimer, secreted into mucousal surfaces, and protects against pathogens in the mucosa

A

IgA

205
Q

Isotype that causes allergy

A

IgE

206
Q

Isotype that is primarily found on the surface of B lymphocytes where it functions as a receptor for antigen

A

IgD

207
Q

Two isotopes that are found in all naive B cells

A

IgM and IgD

208
Q

All activated B cells use this process to decide their isotype

A

Isotype switching

209
Q

Which isotype is secreted first?

A

IgM

210
Q

Which isotype is secreted for most of the response?

A

IgG

211
Q

Primary response vs. secondary response

A

Primary- Specific to the antigen, but has relatively weaker affinity
Secondary- Memory B cells continually divide, and make up 40% of the circulating B cell population. Upon reinfection, memory B cells quickly expand and differentiate to more memory cells and plasma cells

212
Q
A

Year 3 (7 decks)

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