Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Helicase

A

Unwinds the 2 strands of parental DNA

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2
Q

DNA Gyrase (Type II Topoisomerase)

A

Cuts DNA and allows it to relax. Relieves supercoiling.

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3
Q

Single Strand Binding Protein (SSB)

A

Binds to newly separated individual DNA strands

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4
Q

1st DNA polymerase III

A

Extends a primer continuously to build the leading strand

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5
Q

Primase

A

Synthesizes short RNA sequences called primers

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6
Q

Primers

A

Serve as a starting point for DNA synthesis

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7
Q

2nd DNA polymerase III

A

Extends each RNA primer to complete an Okazaki fragment

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8
Q

What strand is the Okazaki fragment on?

A

Lagging strand

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9
Q

RNase H

A

Removes the RNA primer

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10
Q

DNA polymerase I

A

Extends the newer Okazaki fragment with DNA

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11
Q

DNA Ligase

A

Seals remaining nick between Okazaki fragments

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12
Q

What does sealing the nick between Okazaki fragments do?

A

Creates a continuous lagging strand

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13
Q

RNA Polymerase

A

Synthesizes RNA from DNA template

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14
Q

DNA polymerase does not initiate polynucleotide synthesis, it…

A

Can only extend a preexisting chain

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15
Q

What strand is synthesized in pieces?

A

Lagging strand

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16
Q

What is transcription?

A

the process of copying a segment of DNA into RNA

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17
Q

mRNA is also called what?

A

The transcript

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18
Q

The site of protein synthesis

A

Cytosolic Ribosomes

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19
Q

What strand is transcribed?

A

Template strand

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20
Q

Noncoding strand/antisense

A

Template strand

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21
Q

Coding strand/sense

A

Non-template strand

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22
Q

How prokaryotic genes transcribe in tandem

A

Operons

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23
Q

What side are promoters on?

A

5’

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24
Q

Initiation: RNA polymerase binds to…

A

the promoter

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25
Q

Promoter

A

Tells RNA polymerase where to start, which direction to go in, and which strand of DNA to transcribe

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26
Q

Region of Pribnow Box

A

-10

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27
Q

-10 sequence

A

TATAAT

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28
Q

-35 sequence

A

TTGACA

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29
Q

Prokaryotic Elongation: RNA Polymerase

A

Unwinds DNA about 10 base pairs at a time

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30
Q

RNA transcript is ________ to the DNA template strand

A

antiparallel

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31
Q

Constitutive genes

A

Genes synthesized at a steady rate and required for basic cell function (housekeeping)

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32
Q

Inducible genes

A

Genes synthesized only when required by the cell

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33
Q

DNA base sequence for termination

A

AAGCGCCG (TTCGCGGC)

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34
Q

RNA hairpin for termination

A

Shortens the length of DNA-RNA hybrid helix, which is rich in easily separated A:U base pairs

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35
Q

Movement of Rho along RNA transcript in termination

A

Pushes polymerase forward, leaving a short hybrid helix from which the RNA more easily dissociates

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36
Q

Eukaryotic Transcription: RNA polymerase I

A

Synthesized precursors of most rRNAs and found in nucleoli

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37
Q

Eukaryotic Transcription: RNA polymerase II

A

Synthesizes mRNA in nucleus

38
Q

Eukaryotic Transcription: RNA polymerase III

A

Synthesizes tRNA

39
Q

What direction is RNA synthesized in?

A

5’ to 3’

40
Q

Eukaryotic Transcription: Initiation promoter

A

TATA box

41
Q

What binds to the TATA box to allow more TFs to bind?

A

TF IID

42
Q

What do transcription factors do?

A

Unwind DNA to form transcription bubble

43
Q

What must assemble before RNA polymerase can bind to the promoter?

A

Transcription factors

44
Q

Eukaryotic Transcription Elongation: Clamp

A

Accounts for processivity

45
Q

Eukaryotic Transcription Elongation: Wall

A

Directs template strand out of the active site cleft

46
Q

Eukaryotic Transcription Elongation: Pore

A

NTPs enter

47
Q

Eukaryotic Transcription Elongation: Rudder

A

Separates RNA and template DNA strands

48
Q

Eukaryotic Transcription Elongation: Bridge

A

Aids in translocation

49
Q

What is processivity?

A

The ability of DNA polymerase to carry out continuous DNA synthesis on a template DNA without frequent dissociation

50
Q

Transcription occurs in…

A

Nucleus

51
Q

Translation occurs in…

A

Cytosol

52
Q

How does addition of 5’ cap occur?

A

7-methylguanine reside is joined to the 5’-nucleotide via 5’-5’ triphosphate bridge

53
Q

What are capped mRNAs resistant to?

A

5’-exonuclease cleavage

54
Q

Approximately how long is a polyA tail?

A

80-250 nucleotides

55
Q

What is the purpose of a polyA tail?

A

To protect against mRNA degredation

56
Q

PolyA tail sequence

A

AAUAAA

57
Q

What is AAUAAA signaling for?

A

For a protein to cleave, transcript, and extend with adenosine residues

58
Q

Intron

A

Segment of a DNA or RNA molecule that does NOT code for proteins and interrupts the sequence of genes

59
Q

Exon

A

Segment of DNA or RNA molecule containing information coding for a protein or peptide sequence

60
Q

Purpose of splicing exons and excising introns

A

Required to produce mature mRNA that is competent to direct translation

61
Q

Do introns or exons comprise a greater proportion of the gene?

A

Introns

62
Q

What is translation?

A

The process of translating a sequence of nucleotides into a sequence of amino acids

63
Q

tRNAs job is to match

A

an mRNA with the amino acid it codes for

64
Q

Is tRNA the codon or anticodon?

A

Anticodon

65
Q

What two structures are on the ends of a tRNA?

A

Anticodon on one end and aminoacyl group on the other end

66
Q

How do amino acids attach to tRNA?

A

Via ester linkage at 3’ OH

67
Q

What enzyme attaches the correct amino acid to tRNA

A

Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

68
Q

Where does the aa-tRNA pair with mRNA codon?

A

Ribosome

69
Q

What is the molecular machine that performs biological protein synthesis?

A

Ribosome

70
Q

How many tRNAs and mRNAs can bind to a ribosome at once?

A

3 tRNAs and 1 mRNA

71
Q

Prokaryote subunit (70S)

A

30S and 50S

72
Q

Eukaryote subunit (80s)

A

40S and 60S

73
Q

E (exit) Site

A

Site occupied by tRNA from the previous donor tRNA-amino acid

74
Q

P (peptide) site

A

tRNA-growing peptide chain

75
Q

A (acceptor) site

A

Aminoacylation site

76
Q

IF-3 binds where and does what?

A

Binds to 30S subunit and 50S dissociates

77
Q

What complex binds to 30S subunit?

A

fMet-tRNAfMet with IF-2-GTP

78
Q

What is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?

A

AGGAGG

79
Q

What does Shine-Dalgarno do?

A

Permits ribosome to select the proper AUG initiation codon

80
Q

Do prokaryotes or eukaryotes lack Shine-Dalgarno?

A

Eukaryotes, the require at least 11 IFs

81
Q

What makes the 50S subunit join 30S initiation complex?

A

IF-1 and IF-3 are released

82
Q

Association of 50S with 30S triggers what?

A

IF-2 to hydrolyze its GTP

83
Q

When 50S and 30S join, what happens to A and P site?

A

fMet-tRNAfMet occupies P site, while A site is ready to accept another aminoacyl tRNA

84
Q

Translation Elongation: Decoding

A

Codon directed binding of incoming aminoacyl tRNA at the A site, and uncharges tRNA leaves E site

85
Q

What ensures that polymerization does not occur unless the correct aminoacyl-tRNA is positioned in the A site?

A

EF-Tu

86
Q

Translation Elongation: Transpeptidation

A

Catalyze peptide bond formation (peptide transferase activity)

87
Q

Transfer of growing peptide goes from what site to another site?

A

P site to A site

88
Q

Translation Elongation: Translocation

A

Move to the next codon. Peptidyl-tRNA and corresponding codon shifts to P site

89
Q

What does EF-G do?

A

Displace peptidyl-tRNA

90
Q

Termination of Translation (stop) codons

A

UGA, UAG, UAA

91
Q

Where does the stop codon have to be positioned at?

A

A site